Master Tech Quiz Questions (Issue 81, Oct 2023) - Part 2 PDF

CLOSED BOOK QUESTIONS: (20 questions in 20 mins) DOCUMENTS 1 Who is responsible for the manuals and documents to be valid during the entire flight? (OMA 1.5.3t) a. Commander b. First Office c. Dispatch d. Engineer FUEL / REFUELING: 1 Who is responsible for keeping a valid medical licence? (OMA 6...

CLOSED BOOK QUESTIONS: (20 questions in 20 mins) DOCUMENTS 1 Who is responsible for the manuals and documents to be valid during the entire flight? (OMA 1.5.3t) a. Commander b. First Office c. Dispatch d. Engineer FUEL / REFUELING: 1 Who is responsible for keeping a valid medical licence? (OMA 6.4) a. Licensing department b. GCAA c. Documents keeper d. Individual crew member 2 Which documents are NOT retained on ground in Dubai? (OMA 2.1.3.1) a. SIGWX chart is NOT to be retained. NOTE: May have moved to Open Book Section. See 51 DOCUMENTS In Open Book Notes 3 Is the Commander responsible for Safety Cards? a. Yes. The Commander delegates to the Cabin Crew and the Purser Ensures it is done b. No NOTE: Someone’s feedback said: Yes the Commander delegates to the Purser and Ensures it is done 4 The Tech Log must be filled out in accordance with which manual? (OMA 8.1.11) a. MEL / CDL 5 A Captain shall not commence a flight if he is not satisfied? (OMA 8.1) a. Aircraft is airworthy b. The load is correctly distributed c. The airplane configuration is in accordance with the CDL d. All of the above. 6 What are the Flight Crew duties during fuelling? (OMA 8.2.1.3) a. Establish and maintain comms with ground. b. Inform Cabin Crew when refueling is finished by switching the seat belt signs on. c. Be ready to action PAX evacuation d. All of the above 7 Is refueling with passengers embarking / onboard / disembarking allowed? (GOM Chap17; No4 / 8.2.1.3) a. JET B, JP-4 or AVTAG is prohibited b. Kerosene fuels (Jet A/A1) is permitted when applying the following procedures and the flight crew MUST be notified before commencing. c. Follow local regulations d. A and B 8 When can you start to use contingency fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.2 / 8.3.7.1) a. After the release of the fuel bowser 9 At the planning stage contingency fuel compensate for deviations in? (OMA 8.1.7.1.3) a. WX Forecasts b. ZFW c. TOW d. Expected Taxi Fuel LATEST QUIZ UPDATE: Ver 81 (13/OCT/2023) PREVIOUS VERSION Ver 80 (11/OCT/2023) 10 Standard Fuel Planning requirements are only applicable until? (OMA 8.1.7.2) a. Completion of refueling and release of the fuel bowser. 11 When is it NOT recommended to do tankering? (OMA 8.1.7.6) a. If TO/LDG runway is contaminated or expected to be so NOTE: If temp at destination is <20 degrees should not plan to arrive with more than 25 12 What are the tolerance limits for the Outer Tank imbalance? (FCOM LIM-28 P2/4) a. Left / Right Outer tank imbalance is 1,200kgs b. Left / Right Outer tank imbalance is 2,500kgs c. Left / Right Outer tank imbalance is 3000kgs d. Left / Right Outer tank imbalance is 1,000kgs 13 How is FPF calculated? (FCTM-PRO-ABN & EMER PROC-FUEL-FUEL PEN) a. The answer Is the one that mentions only TRIP FUEL 14 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement regarding fuel remaining on touchdown? (OMA 8.3.7.3) a. For Commitment to Destination = Final Reserve Fuel b. For Destination = Alternate + Final Reserve Fuel c. For Alternate = Final Reserve Fuel d. For Destination = Alternate Fuel 15 What is Final Reserve Fuel? (OMA 8.1.7.1.5) a. Fuel required to fly for 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required. 16 If during the in-flight fuel check the expected fuel on arrival at the destination is less than Alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, could you continue to destination without knowing the EAT? (OMA 8.3.7.2) a. No. b. Flight may continue towards the destination aerodrome if it is possible to reach at least two aerodromes at which a landing is assured with at least Final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single aerodrome within two hours of flying time may be considered to be equivalent to two aerodromes, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due to any likely ATC delays COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS: 1 How many mm of frost is allowed under the wing? (OMA 8.2.4) a. 3 b. 2 c. None d. 1 2 With regards to frost? (OMA 8.2.4) a. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the fuselage. b. Regulations allow a small layer of frost on top of the wing c. Any ice/frost less than 3mm does not need to be taken in to account d. ? 3 When does Holdover Protection Expire? (GOM Chap20; 9.6.3) a. At the commencement of take-off roll (due to aerodynamic shedding of fluid) b. When frozen deposits starts to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid (fluid failure) c. Both A & B LATEST QUIZ UPDATE: Ver 81 (13/OCT/2023) PREVIOUS VERSION Ver 80 (11/OCT/2023) 4 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6) a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded. b. When there is heavy snow and a take-off is contemplated. Or Heavy snow conditions exist or has been encountered since the start of anti-icing fluid application. c. When a passengers report suggest that the anti-icing fluid has failed. d. All of the above. 5 When is a PCI mandatory? (OMC 10.2.3.6) a. When precipitation has started since application of final layer and the shortest time of the HOT is exceeded. b. If Ice pellets are encountered and take off is contemplated c. When severe icing conditions are encountered and take off is contemplated d. All of the above. 6 When will you turn on ENGINE ANTI ICE? (FCOM>PRO>SUPP>ICE & RAIN> OP IN ICING) a. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. Engine anti-ice must be ON before and during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below –40 °C. b. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist. c. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist, except during the climb and cruise when the SAT is below –40 °C. 7 When WILL you turn on WING ANTI ICE? (FCOM>PRO>SUPP>ICE & RAIN> OP IN ICING) a. When icing conditions are encountered: b. The flight crew may turn on the wing anti-ice to prevent the ice accretion on the wing leading edge c. The flight crew must turn on the wing anti-ice if there is evidence of ice accretion, such as ice on the visual indicators or on the wipers, or if the alert A-ICE SEVERE ICE DETECTED is displayed. This is to remove any ice accumulation from the wing leading edge. d. All the above 8 When SHOULD you turn on WING ANTI ICE? (FCOM>PRO>SUPP>ICE & RAIN> OP IN ICING) a. When icing conditions are encountered: b. The flight crew may turn on the wing anti-ice to prevent the ice accretion on the wing leading edge c. The flight crew must turn on the wing anti-ice if there is evidence of ice accretion, such as ice on the visual indicators or on the wipers, or if the alert A-ICE SEVERE ICE DETECTED is displayed. This is to remove any ice accumulation from the wing leading edge. d. Only if severe ice detected. 9 What is a Representative Surface? (OMC 10.2.3.6 / GOM 9.3.2.1) a. The inner portion of the wing from the root outward to the innermost pylon. It includes the entire chord length. 10 What is the definition of a contaminated runway? (OMA 8.1.2.6.1.4) a. 25% covered b. 50% covered c. 75% covered d. 100% covered 11 When flying to an airport on altimeter setting and the OAT is -30c at the airfield. Which altitudes need to be corrected for temperature? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1) a. MEA/MH/MGA? Minimum obstacle b. Missed approach altitude and engine acceleration altitude c. Approach minimum, initial fix, intermediate fix and final fix d. All of the above 12 What do you apply temp correction to if the airfield (or ISA) temp is -30 degrees? (OMC 10.2.4.1.1) a. Min en-route alt MEA / Min Holding Alt MH / Min Grid Alt MGA / Min Obstacle / Obstruction Alt MOCA. NOTE: Not ATC Cleared ALT: ( In the EXAM I think the correct answer is ALL OF THE ABOVE) LATEST QUIZ UPDATE: Ver 81 (13/OCT/2023) PREVIOUS VERSION Ver 80 (11/OCT/2023) 13 a. b. c. d. What shall be done once minimum holdover time elapses? (GOM 9.6.3) Return to the gate. PCI is mandatory Repeat anti and de-icing CSI is mandatory NOTE: Not ATC Cleared ALT: ( In the EXAM I think the correct answer is ALL OF THE ABOVE) FDP’s: 1 How long do the crew need to be onboard prior to departure? (OMC 1.1.5 & GOM Annexes>Annex B>1.2.5.TA now says STD-60 min) a. Early enough b. Cabin Crew 1 hour, Flight Deck 40 mins c. STD-55 (this was the correct answer in the old exam) d. STD-60 (the new correct answer) Note recent feedback says STD-60 was NOT an option. Suggest you go with old answer for now. 2 When do the crew need to be on board the aircraft? (OMA 8.2.1.3) a. 60 mins for Cabin Crew and 40 mins for Flight Crew b. As early as they can manage to be on board c. At least one Flight Crew member and cabin crew shall be on board whenever the passengers are embarking or disembarking or are on board. 3 When does the FDP start and end? (OMA 7.6.1) a. Dubai 1h25min to chocks on / Outstation 1h to chocks on 4 When can FDP’s be legally extended? (OMA 7.7.1 / 7.7.2 / 7.15) a. Inflight relief b. Split duty c. Commander’s discretion d. All the above 5 What FDP should be recorded in your personal logbook? (OMA 7.7.1.3) a. A nominated Captain and FO 100% b. ? c. Augmenting crew their actual operating times on the VR. d. Both A and C 6 When is a crew member said to be acclimatised for work? (OMA 7.5) a. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time) b. When they have 2 local nights on ground within 3 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 local time) c. When they have 3 local nights on ground within 2 hour time band (Local night is 8hrs within 2200-0800 UTC) d. Three days off 7 Who is responsible for making sure the FTL scheme is monitored? (OMA 7.2 / 7.3) a. Crew Member b. Emirates Airline c. GCAA d. Answer A & B from above SOP’s / PROCEDURES: 1 What are the initial actions of the PM during an Emergency Descent? (PRO-ABN-ECAM-10-21-30) a. PA announce, Call ATC b. Set 7700… c. Crew Oxy Masks… ON / Signs: ON / FMA MONITOR d. CREW OXY MASK……………ON / SIGNS…ON/FMA MONITOR Note: Feedback implies that the correct answer is the one with three dots (…). More feedback required please. LATEST QUIZ UPDATE: Ver 81 (13/OCT/2023) PREVIOUS VERSION Ver 80 (11/OCT/2023) 2 What are the initial actions of the PF during an Emergency Descent? (PRO-ABN-ECAM-10-21-30) a. PA announce, Call ATC b. Set 7700… c. Crew Oxy Masks… ON / Signs: ON / Descent: Initiate / Heading Bug: PULL / Speed Bug: SET MAX APPROPRIATE / Confirm THR IDLE / SPD BRK LVR: Full 3 2. 4 When must the flight crew press the MASK MAN ON pb? (FCOM-PRO-ABN & EMER-CAB PRESS-CAB PRESS EXC-CAB ALT) a. 14,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 8,000ft d. 6,000ft 5 What are the required conditions to perform an Orbit? (OMA 8.3.20.2.26) a. In Day VMC, whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain, & above 1500ft agl with the autopilot engaged., 6 When would you assume Pilot incapacitation? (OMA 8.3.14) a. Two verbal communications when above 1000ft AGL b. One verbal communication when below 1000ft AGL c. Any verbal communication associated with significant deviation from the intended flight path d. All the above. 7 What is the correct action in you get TAWS Caution? (FCOM: MEMORY ITEMS) a. If runway in sight continue to land b. Immediately execute PULL UP TOGA c. During daylight and VMC conditions, with terrain and obstacle clearly in sight, its considered cautionary 8 For a Non-standard Engine Out turning procedure when do you initiate the acceleration? (OMA 8.3.20.3.6.2) a. The aeroplane is established on the final heading, track or course of the Non-Standard engine out procedure and at or about the minimum acceleration height. b. At or above the applicable MSA c. The aeroplane meets the specific requirements described in the applicable Non-standard engine out procedure. d. All of the above. What are the immediate actions (memory items) for emergency descent? (PRO-ABN-ECAM-10-21-30) a. Emerg PA……………announce Signs………………..on Descent……………initiate Thrust……………….check idle Speed Brake…………full b. Crew Mask……………on Emerg Pa………………..on Descent……………initiate Speed Brake…………full c. Emerg PA……………announce Mask………………..on Signs………………..on Descent……………initiate Speed Brake…………full d. Crew Mask……………on Signs………………..on Descent……………initiate Thrust……………….check idle Speed Brake…………full LATEST QUIZ UPDATE: Ver 81 (13/OCT/2023) PREVIOUS VERSION Ver 80 (11/OCT/2023)