GarmentTechnology_V1.docx

Which city is considered as a fashion capital in 20^th^ century? A. Rome B. Paris C. New York D. London 2. Which one of the following is apparel made in a style that continues to be fashionable over a long period of time, and that may return as high fashion at regular intervals? A...

Which city is considered as a fashion capital in 20^th^ century? A. Rome B. Paris C. New York D. London 2. Which one of the following is apparel made in a style that continues to be fashionable over a long period of time, and that may return as high fashion at regular intervals? A. Fad B. Classic C. Avant Grade D. Couture 3. Among the following principle of design, which one is the application the comparative harmonious relationship between two or more elements in a composition with respect to size, color, quantity? A. Rhythm B. Emphasis C. Balance D. Proportion 4. Which one of the following elements of design describes the outer dimensions or contour of an object that communicates silently the messages about the wearer? A. Color B. Texture C. Shape D. Line 5. 6. Which one of the following is the top edge and most noticeable part of a garment which require careful consideration while choosing a design as well as while sewing? A. Hat B. Necklines C. Cuff D. Hem 7. Which of the following is NOT true about inspirational boards? A. It helps you communicate your ideas to a client B. It hones your visual ideas at the start of a creative project C. It improves the work breakdown of a creative project D. It will give the clarity you need before you start buying materials or building elements 8. Which of the following is correctly identify cellulosic fiber? A. Cotton, Silk and Jute fiber B. Jute, Silk and Asbestos fibre C. Rubber, Cotton and Bamboo fibre D. Jute, Sisal and Flax fibre 9. Supposed XYZ garment company wants to produce overcoat for garment testing laboratory, which fabric type is best for this product? A. Knitting fabric B. Carpet fabric C. Woven fabric D. Non-woven fabric 10. If you want to add interlining for inner part of suit and collar, which one of the following fabric types is the best for the product? A. Woven fabric B. Knit fabric C. Woven fabric D. Carpet 11. Which one of the following is **NOT** correctly explained the property of silk fabric? A. It is well known for its luxurious B. Smooth, soft touch and glistening looks C. It is the most durable and strongest natural fabric D. It is also manufactured from cellulose 12. If you are selecting suitable fabric type for bed coverings, which one of the following fabric types is an appropriate? A. Velvet Fabric B. Linen C. Polyester Fabric D. Nylon 13. Assume that a designer wants to produce very stretchy, flexible and durable sport wear. Which of the following type of fabric is best for this product? A. Net or Lace Fabric B. Satin Fabric C. Lycra Fabric D. Wool Fabric 14. One of the following is the best measurement tool to take measurements directly from the given model? A. Metal ruler B. Faxable tape measure C. Curved rulers D. French curve 15. Which of the following principles of pattern making absorbed the dart excess into style lines to create a contoured silhouette? A. Dart Manipulation B. Contouring C. Drafting D. Added fullness 16. Which of the following is true about paper Pattern Making? A. This was the original method of constructing garment patterns B. It is a two-dimensional basic method of preparing a paper pattern. C. It was originally called modeling D. It is one of the easiest ways and requires minimum number of staff 17. Which of the following is NOT true about the concept of fit and balance? A. It folds out excess fullness to make an area smaller B. It redrawing darts or seamlines C. It's often necessary to achieve good fit in a garment D. It alters the style of the garment 18. Which one of the following is the correct step for producing paper pattern by drafting techniques? A. Analyze the given design-Trace the drafted patterns -Check the given body measurements on the drafted patterns -Draw pattern draft by using given body measurements B. Draw pattern draft by using given body measurements -Analyze the given design-Trace the drafted patterns -Check the given body measurements on the drafted patterns C. Analyze the given design- Draw pattern draft by using given body measurements - Check the given body measurements on the drafted patterns - Trace the drafted patterns D. Analyze the given design-Trace the drafted patterns - Draw pattern draft by using given body measurements 19. If one pattern developer wants to change one basic skirt to full sided pleated skirt and he is undertaking only traced basic skirt components. In which steps of pattern making does the pattern maker? A. Production pattern B. Grade pattern C. Block pattern D. First pattern 20. Where did the art of draping dates back to 3500 BCE begins? A. Greek and Ancient Egyptians B. Italy and Ancient Egyptians C. Mesopotamians and Ancient Egyptians D. Australian and Ancient Egyptians 21. Which of the following is NOT true about the importance of dress form? A. They are mostly used for displaying garments B. They are mostly used for creation of photo-shoot samples C. They are mostly used for sample fit tasting D. They are mostly used for home decorative purpose 22. During draping process which tool will be apply for marking or locating guidelines, seam lines and style lines? A. Tracing wheel B. Straight ruler C. Dressmaker's pins D. Style tape 23. Which of the following draping producer will be applied first on preparing your dress form during fashion draping? A. Apply style tape to locating guidelines B. Mark all major points and seams to create guidelines for your garment C. Along the backside, style tape should be placed horizontally at shoulder blade level D. Pieces of muslin are cut and prepared 24. Drape in a garment depends upon the draping quality of material used in its construction. Which kind of fabric characteristics will mostly apply for draping? A. Stiff fabric B. Light weight fabric C. Thick fabric D. Crisp fabric 25. Which of the following is the use of computer software to control machine tools and related machinery in the manufacturing of work pieces? A. Computer-integrated manufacturing B. Computer-Aided Manufacturing C. Computer-Aided Process Planning D. Computer-Aided Design 26. If you want to draw an object with fill and stroke which of the following primary drawing tool with several variants to make line in Illustrator you will apply? A. Pen tool B. Selection tool C. Color Picker D. Control panels 27. Which one of the following is the first step applied to construct garment flat design? A. Adjust with the direct selection tool B. Open New Document C. Select the entire half top using selection tool D. Create a rectangular using rectangular tool 28. Which of the following known as object-oriented drawings, images defined by curves and lines or mathematical formulas? A. JPG files B. Raster-Based Program C. Vector-Based Program D. Modaris 29. Which one of the following CAD patterns thermology is 2D with all seam, dart, design detail and style lines clearly? A. Seam allowance B. Double notches C. Flat sketch D. Dart length 30. If fashion designer is using pattern design system **(PDS)** tools for patternmaking, which one of the following is **NOT** correct about the tool? A. It is capable of storing an incredible amount of data that can be quickly retrieved B. It is invaluable tools to the patternmaker in assisting with patternmaking C. It assists patternmakers to quickly add style details and make changes D. It is time consuming process for the pattern maker 31. While using Lectra software, which one of the following applied for patter making and designing? A. Plotter B. Modaris C. Domino D. Adobe illustrator 32. If a fashion designer is increasing and decreasing the size of pattern by sing CAD software, which CAD activates the designer is applying? A. Digitizing B. Grading C. Plotting D. Marker making 33. If a fashion designer is applying proper alignment of developed pattern by using CAD software, which CAD activates the designer is applying? A. Digitalizing B. Grading C. Plotting D. Marker making 34. If a fashion designer wants to convert 2D of pattern designs in to 3D pattern, which CAD activates the designer is applying? A. Digitalizing B. Grading C. Plotting D. Marker making 35. Which one of the following is different from the other? A. Feed of the arm B. Post bed C. Cylindrical machine D. Electrically operated sewing machines 36. If Stich formed when one thread passes over another thread. Which type of stitch class does this stitch type applied? A. Stich class 401 B. Stich class 301 C. Stich class 101 D. Stich class 601 37. Suppose a Garment Company was producing blouse with tuck for export market. During operation which types of machine appropriate making tuck? A. Multi needle lockstitch machine B. Overclock machine C. Button hole machine D. Button attaching machine 38. Unfortunately, the sewing operator adjust his threading loose tension of sewing thread. What happened on his stitch formation? A. Seam pucker, unbalanced stitch formation weekend thread B. Excessive looping or loose and uneven stitches C. Uneven stitches formation D. Potentially damaged fabric 39. Suppose a Garment Company was producing blouse for local market. During operation which type of machine commonly used to join two separate components? A. Single needle lockstitch machine B. Cover stitch machine C. Overclock machine D. Double needle lockstitch machine 40. Cutting room operator of XYZ garment factory was sorting the cut components and tied together the pieces as per the production line requirement. Which of the following activity of cutting room is the performing by an operator? A. Planning B. Cutting C. Preparation for sewing D. Marker making and spreading 41. Which of the following methods of spreading requires a greater number of operators that the other to perform the activities? A. Semi-automatic spreading machines B. Manual spreading C. Semi- mechanical spreading machines D. Fully automated spreading machines 42. If a marker utilization is affected by differences in face and back, lengthwise directionality, crosswise symmetry, need for matching the fabric design, length of design repeat, and fabric width during marker Efficiency. Which factors of marker efficiency is mentioned? A. Characteristics of pattern pieces B. Fabric characteristics C. Standards of fabric utilization D. Grain line orientation 43. If a fabric rolls 150 yard long and 45 inch wide contains total defect of 30 points. What is the defect point per 100-yard square by 4- point system inspection method? A. 16 per 100-yard square B. 18.4 per 100-yard square C. 17 per 100-yard square D. 15.5 per 100-yard square 44. If the cutting department wants to cut most accurate small garment component like collar and pocket flaps with pre-shaped metal outlines by placing on a fabric. Which stationary cutter kind of cutting machine will be applied? A. Band knife B. Laser jet C. Die cutters D. Plasma Jet 45. Which one of the following is used to designed to hold finished caps for embroidering? A. Frames B. Embroidery C. Hoop D. Finishing 46. Which one of the following basic embroidery stitches used for outlines, fine details within a design and underlay stitches? A. Run **stitch** B. Satin path stitch C. Complex fill stitch D. Herring bone stitch 47. If one operator doing an outline for his embroidery design which have flower with veins in leaves. Which type of embroidery stitch does this operator is using his/her outline? A. Satin Stitch B. Fly stitch C. Stem stitch D. Herring Bone Stitch 48. Which one of the following procedures is the first step for performing garment embellishment by Applique segment property? A. Applying run stitch B. Applying appliqué border stitch C. Applying tack dawn stitch D. Access the Appliqué segment settings property page 49. In the digital embroidery machine software, the tool that indicated below applied on which type of activities? +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | H. Create stitches as that hold | | | the sequin in place | | +===================================+===================================+ | E. Create complex shapes filled | | | with sequins | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | F. Allows sequins to be placed | | | at desired points on a path | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | G. Used to move, add or delete | | | sequins for a manual path | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ 50. Which of the following interpretation is correct about the skirt below? +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | D. Slim, straight, fitted at the |  | | waist with dart or pleats | | +===================================+===================================+ | A. Fitted at the waist line with | | | fullness gathered into a band | | | at hem line | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | B. It fits smoothly at the waist | | | line area but flares at | | | hemline | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ | C. Fitted at the waist line with | | | darts or pleats, has straight | | | flare towards the hem | | +-----------------------------------+-----------------------------------+ 51. During assembling of shirt which component is placed in different direction from others? A. Sleeve B. Yoke C. Back panel D. Front panel 52. XYZ Garment Company was producing t-shirt for local market. During operation which type of machine appropriate hemming? A. Single needle lockstitch machine B. Cover stitch machine C. Overclock machine D. Double needle lockstitch machine 53. After production of shirt, the product was subjected to final inspection. Which of the following is the responsibility of end line checker? A. Differing shades of color B. Garment packaging C. Noticeable [**fabric defects**](https://www.hqts.com/defect-prevention-for-apparel-and-textiles/) D. Loose threads 54. Which one of the following is a product-based definition of quality? A. It's as a precise and measurable variable B. It's simply what satisfies the desires, needs, and wants of the customer C. It means keeping to specifications D. It's the cost of production or of the service to be rendered 55. Which of the following alternative shows how quality assurance differ from quality control? A. It's a corrective tool focused on the quality of output B. It aims to identify and correct defects in the finished product C. It's a system or a process to make sure that quality is maintained D. It aims to improve development and test processes so that defects do not arise when the product is being developed 56. Examine which cost of quality associated with measuring and monitoring activities to ensure that they conform to specifications, quality standards and performance requirement? A. Prevention costs B. Internal Failure costs C. Appraisal costs D. External Failure costs 57. Which of the following activity is performed during final inspections? A. Checking of measurement /dimension B. The pattern alignment with grain line C. The tension of fabric layer D. Cleanliness and safety should be ensured 58. Which one of the following severity classifications of defect result in overall product failure or reduced usability of the product that prevents it from being placed on the market? A. Material defect B. Major defects C. Critical defect D. Minor defects 59. One of the following is NOT correct about budgeting in garment industry? A. To hire lobar B. To schedule work C. To determine the volume of production D. To overcome problem of individual 60. Among the following elements of garment costing which one is the primary cost? A. Direct material cost B. Indirect material cost C. Indirect lobar cast D. Indirect expense cost 61. As a garment expert you are supposed to calculate the prime cost of an industry by using the following information. Calculate prime cost the industry. **Cost per activities** **Cost per month** ------------------------- -------------------- Cost of operators 95 \$ per month Cost of merchandisers 45 \$ per month Cast of accountants 26 \$ per month Cost of line supervisor 60 \$ per month Cost of quality checker 45 \$ per month A. 200 \$ per month B. 71 \$ per month C. 271 \$ per month D. 155 \$ per month 62. Among the following alternative, which one is the application of fixed cost? A. Cost of rent B. Cost of garment unit C. Cost of materials D. Cost of Machine parts 63. Among the following working capital management, one is managing amount of resource required for the business without interrupting? A. Regular working capital B. Reserve working capital C. Fluctuation working capital D. Permanent working capital 64. Where the size of the garment is categorized in cost sheet? A. In flat sketch B. In bill of material C. In measurement chart D. Standard allowed minute 65. In Which condition the Ethiopian economy is developing? A. If export rate is greater than import rate B. If export rate is less than import rate C. If export rate and import rate is equal D. If export rate is not visible 66. What is described as the combination of the processes that a new fashion item must go through to be available in mass quantities to the consumer after it is left the hands of the designer? A. Fashion marketing B. Fashion advertising C. Fashion merchandising D. Fashion promotion 67. Which of the following is NOT true about Haute Couture**?** A. Also known as fine tailoring B. The design made-to-order for private clients C. The design made for masses D. The creation of exclusive fitted clothing 68. Which of the following deals with the advertising of clothing and accessories to the target market by involving in directing the flow of goods and services from producers to consumers? A. Fashion marketing B. Fashion branding C. Fashion advertising D. Fashion promotion 69. The designs team begin by creating black-and-white sketches showing detailed silhouettes to illustrate the garments in their range. The sketch was created directly using CAD software. Which of the product development stage is the designer making? A. **Garment sample making** B. **Garment specifications sampling** C. **Developing Initial concepts** D. **Developing the range plan** 70. **Which of the following** retail strategy **market mix** enables a company to determine its strategy and direction in order to present and maintain a strong recognizable brand image and identity to customers? A. **People** B. **Place** C. Market position D. **Pric**ing strategy 71. **Which of the following** concepts in supply chain management defined as a search for a reduction of lead times? A. Quick response B. Just in time C. Reliability D. Resilience 72. Which one of the following is NOT correct about marketing merchandising in apparel industry? A. Developments of product design B. Product costing and ordering C. It has direct contact with the buyer D. It is carried out to predict finished product appearance and fit 73. Which one the following principle is NOT required in choosing a production system in apparel industry? A. Style change frequency B. Difficulty in line balancing C. Throughput time D. Fabric type 74. One of the following is a conventional method of production system in which an operator assembles a single piece of garment at a time by carrying out all the sewing processes? A. Section or Process production System B. Whole Garment Production System C. Make through production System D. Progressive Bundle Production System (PBS) 75. Which of the following influence is NOT affect the selection of an appropriate garment production system for an industry? A. Product styles B. Policies of the industry C. Location of the industry D. Labor capacity 76. Among the following alternatives, which one is the advantage of make through garment production system? A. Low productivity B. High labor cost C. Quick throughput time D. It necessitates an experienced operator for assembling 77. Which of the following is NOT correct about production planning and control in garment industry A. It's a predetermination of future achievement in time and Cost of manufacturing B. It's a predetermination of future achievement in types of products and volume of production C. It's necessary to decide the resources requirement and product pricing after production D. Its analysis all the problem likely to arise in manufacture and decides in advance how these difficulties can be overcome 78. 79. Which of the following planning phase is categorized under action planning apparel industry? A. Forecasting B. Product Design C. Tool Control D. Order Writing 80. Which of the following parameters describe production planning in apparel production A. It involves utilization of data, reporting about output, efficiency of labor and machines B. It involves looking backwards and taking steps to maintain time schedule C. It includes the functions of dispatching, expediting, follow up and progressing D. It involves collection of data on materials, machines, tools and equipment\'s, drawings and layouts 81. A garment industry which is making a formal shirt has 10 sewing lines and each line has 30 machines and a working shift is 8 hours per day. If the industry is utilized production capacity 55% and SAM value is 25 minutes, calculate production capacity per day in pieces? A. 3,168 pieces B. 2,248 pieces C. 2,868 pieces D. 3,486 pieces 82. 83. Which one of the following is correct about backward scheduling in apparel industry? A. It is utilized in assembling industries where they commit in advance to specific delivery time. B. It allows to add buffer time to estimate the target date and time for dispatching the order. C. Each task or operation is scheduled to happen at the earliest time. D. Procurement of material and operations starts as soon as the buyer/customer needs are known 84. Which one of the following is true about the broader conception of curriculum? A. It overlooks the unintended learning which takes place through the hidden curricula. B. It considers curriculum as a course of study offered by an academic institution C. It views curriculum as a list of subjects to be studied at educational institutions. D. It comprises of all the learning which is planned and guided by the school, whether inside or outside the school. 85. Why teachers dislike constructing subjective types of test items? A. Because while scoring it is time consuming, & difficult. B. Because it requires the instructor to give critical comments. C. Because it is easy and economical to administer. D. Because relatively easy to construct when compared to objective items 86. A TVET teacher can use case study method effectively when the objective of the lesson is to A. Help students exercise a behavior they are expected to exhibit in their occupation. B. Diagnose a particular problem and recommend methods of resolving these difficulties. C. Provide students a chance to express their opinion regarding a new topic or issue. D. Carry out step-by-step procedures so that trainees can observe and replicate practically. 87. Which theory of learning depends as learning is by the consequences of reward and punishment? A. Classical conditioning B. Respondent conditioning C. Behavioral conditioning D. Operant conditioning 88. Which foundation of curriculum primarily influences the decision regarding the goals (aims) and contents of the curriculum? A. Psychological foundation B. Sociological foundation C. Philosophical foundation D. Historical foundation 89. During administering the test, an examinee can do his/her best by A. Creating best physical conditions as comfortable as possible. B. Give tests immediately before or after long vacation or a holiday. C. Teachers should not keep the students informed of time remaining. D. Carelessly handling brings cheating removed. 90. Which one of the following is true about teacher-centered methods? A. Students take more responsibility for their own learning B. The authority of students learning is that of the teacher C. It is an interactive process wherein students are encouraged to make meaning D. It is highly flexible and responsive to learners' needs 91. A type of learning incorporates Applying of new knowledge by using one's previous experience is to\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A. Social learning B. Classical conditioning C. Constructivism D. Operant conditioning 92. Which of the following alternatives shows the correct order of the phases/stages of Systematic Curriculum and Instructional Development (SCID) model by Norton? A. Analysis -- Design -- Development -- Implementation --Evaluation B. Design -- Analysis -- Implementation -- Development --Evaluation C. Evaluation -- Analysis -- Design -- Development -- Implementation D. Analysis -- Development -- Design -- Implementation --Evaluation 93. 94. During administering the test item formats which item is arranged accordingly from simplest to complex instructional objectives measured. A. Multiple choice, True-false, Matching, Short-answer, Interpretive exercise, Essay B. Matching, Multiple choice, True-false, Short-answer, Interpretive exercise, Essay C. True-false, Matching, Short-answer, Multiple choice, Interpretive exercise, Essay D. Short-answer, Interpretive exercise, True-false, Matching, Multiple choice, Essay 95. Which of the following is an audio-visual medium? A. Module B. Computer C. White board D. Overhead projector 96. It is one of the factors tells how sharp people are, how much they know, how quickly they learn, how perceptive and sensitive they are. A. Intelligence B. Style of Learning C. Aptitude D. Socio-economic status 97. Which approach to curriculum implementation gives freedom for teachers to make necessary changes to the planned curriculum in line with the existing school situations? A. Fidelity Approach B. Curriculum enactment C. Mutual adaption D. None of the above 98. Assume there is a sample of five measurements in a certain class which is 2, 3, 5, 6, 4, when you calculate the mean the result will\_\_\_\_? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 99. At which stage of a lesson/session, does a teacher intentionally repeat or summarize key points covered in the lesson with the objective of consolidating what has been taught? A. Evaluation B. Introduction C. Stabilization D. Presentation/Development 100. One is **not** correct about principles of learning.Which? A. **Things most recently learned are susceptible to lost be immidatly** B. **Individuals learn best when they are physically, mentally, and emotionally ready to learn.** C. **Students learn best and retain information longer when they have meaningful practice and exercise** D. **The principle of intensity in learinig implies that a student will learn more from the real thing than from a substitute** 101. From the following practical steps of competency-based curriculum development, which step/activity should be completed first? A. Determining and identifying the different module titles B. Accomplishing the template for Learning Module C. Analyzing the occupational standard and its units of competence D. Determining the program learning outcomes 102. Predict an element of attest which is practiced after the test has been administered. A. Table of Specification B. Item Analysis C. Blueprint D. Classroom test 103. Which of the following alternatives shows the progression from the lowest to the highest hierarchy of the psychomotor domain? A. Imitation -- Manipulation -- Precision -- Articulation -- Naturalization B. Manipulation -- precision -- Imitation -- Naturalization -- articulation C. Naturalization -- Manipulation -- Precision -- Articulation -- Imitation D. Precision -- Articulation -- Manipulation -- Naturalization -- Imitation 104. Which one correctly describes cognitive theory of learning? A. Learning is influenced by environmental events. B. Learning process Passively influenced by environmental events C. Knowledge is learned, and change in knowledge makes changes in behavior D. Role of reinforcement strengthens responses