Heating & Cooling Quiz Questions - PDF

2. What is the setting on a T/P relief valve on a domestic 60-gallon hot water tank? A) 150 psi and 210 degrees fahrenheit B) 125 psi and 180 degrees fahrenheit C) 100 psi and 210 degrees fahrenheit D) 210 psi and 150 degrees fahrenheit 3. What is the main function of a gas meter? A)...

2. What is the setting on a T/P relief valve on a domestic 60-gallon hot water tank? A) 150 psi and 210 degrees fahrenheit B) 125 psi and 180 degrees fahrenheit C) 100 psi and 210 degrees fahrenheit D) 210 psi and 150 degrees fahrenheit 3. What is the main function of a gas meter? A) leak testing piping B) measuring gas input C) consumption of gas for billing D) dial reading 4. On a combustion limit control, at what temperature does the blower fan turn off? A) 100 degrees fahrenheit B) 200 degrees fahrenheit C) 130 degrees fahrenheit D) 127 degree fahrenheit 5. What would be the BTU gas input of a 25 Hp steam boiler? A) 34,000 cfh B) 850 cfh C) 540 cfh D) 140 cfh 6. What would be the approximate oil nozzle size? A) 6.8 gph B) 5.8 gph C) 5 gph D) 6 gph 7. A condensing warm air furnace has? A) operates without a heat exchanger B) one heat exchanger C) three heat exchangers D) two heat exchangers 8. What is the maximum high limit setting for a gravity furnace? A) 150 degrees fahrenheit B) 200 degrees fahrenheit C) 250 degrees fahrenheit D) 350 degrees fahrenheit 9. How far should a vent terminate from a window if the appliance-firing rate is 65 MBtu/h? A) 6 in B) 10 in C) 12 in D) 36 in 10. An appliance should not exceed the rated input less than? A) 80% B) 75% C) 25% D) 90% 11. Should a high-pressure leak test be performed if a section of more than 20 feet is added to an existing gas piping system? A) yes B) no C) soap test only D) dial and soap test 12. What is the closing force of a 2’ gas regulator? A) spring tension B) operating pressure C) downstream pressure D) leak limit orifice 13. A scotch marine boiler is what type boiler? A) two pass boiler B) copper tube boiler C) fire tube boiler D) four pass water tube boiler 14. In what section of the B149.1 codebook can you find specs. on a dirt pocket? A) section #2 B) section #5 C) section #4 D) section #6 15. What would be the minimum area needed to service an appliance? A) 24 in x 18 in B) 24 in x 24 in C) 36 in x 36 in D) 36 in x 48 in 16. Can a 2 in. diameter round duct be used as combustion supply air to an appliance? A) yes B) yes if total input of appliances exceeds 400,000 BTU C) yes if ventilation air is at least 10 in square D) no 17. If condensation occurs on the inside of the window when the outdoor temperature drops, the humidistat should be? A) increased B) set to zero C) set to 100% D) decreased 18. An adjustable sheave pulley is most commonly used on a: A) motor shaft B) variable speed motor C) blower shaft D) direct drive motor 19. What is used to redirect water in a one pipe hydronic-heating system? A) swing-check valves B) diverter valves C) centrifugal pumps D) balancing valves 20. Increasing the size of a blower pulley: A) decreases temperature rise B) decreases air flow C) increases air flow D) increases current 21. How many times should disposable filters be cleaned before they are replaced? A) one time B) two time C) three time D) never 22. What should be the humidistat control setting in the summer time? A) 0% B) 10% C) 20% D) 30% 23. What will happen if the furnace if the cooling coil gets too dirty? A) the return air temperature will rise B) the return airflow will increase C) the bonnet temperature will decrease D) the supply airflow will decrease 24. The device that the water tank uses to direct the incoming water to the lower part of the tank is called? A) anode rod B) unitrol C) dip tube D) invertube 25. Expansion tanks provide a place for: A) water to cool before returning to the system and pressure to build so the system will operate properly B) hot water to expand so it will be forced through the system and for steam to be trapped C) water to travel and allow for pressure fluctuations in the system D) condensate to collect before it returns to the boiler and a place for steam to expand in the system 26. Steel boilers are generally classified as: A) fire tube boilers B) vapour tube boilers C) square sectional boilers D) oval sectional boilers 27. A fire tube boiler has: A) water outside the tube and flue gases outside B) water inside the tubes and flue gases outside C) water inside the tubers and water outside D) water outside and tubes and flue gases inside 28. The most important valve in a hot water system is a: A) gate valve B) globe valve C) slowdown valve D) relief valve 29. Which of the following is the best way to increase the furnace blower speed? A) open up the motor pulley B) close up the motor pulley C) install a higher horsepower fan motor D) increase the size of the return air duct 30. The vent of a direct vent propane appliance shall not terminate: A) within 2 ft. of a property line B) less than 3 ft from a gas service regulator C) within 3 ft of a mechanical air supply inlet to a building D) within 10 ft of a mechanical air supply inlet to a building 31. Fuse circuits rating must not exceed: A) the current rating of the conductor that they are connected to B) 1.25 times the current rating of the conductor that they are connected to C) 1.5 times the current rating of the conductor that they are connected to D) 1.75 times the current rating of the conductor that they are connected to 32. Glass plug type fuses must be replaced after blowing? A) once B) twice C) five times D) seven times 33. As the length of a conductor increases, it may be necessary to: A) increase the wire size B) use a different type of conductor C) decrease the fuse size D) increase the fuse size 34. Armoured cable is referred to as: A) NMW B) NMD C) BX D) Romex 35. If a relay coil designed “82” is energized, will it cause all: A) R1-2 contacts to change position B) R1-2 contacts to open C) R2 contacts to change position D) R2 contacts to open 36. Clamp-on ammeters are connected: A) in series with the device being checked B) in parallel with the device being checked C) with the system power off D) in series with the loads only 37. A 240-volt power supply for a residential electrical circuit is taken from the: A) line side of one branch circuit breaker and the line side of the second breaker B) load side of the one main circuit breaker and the load side of the second circuit main breaker C) load side of one branch circuit breaker and the line side of the second main circuit breaker D) line side of one main circuit breaker and the line side of the second main circuit breaker 38. The open circuit test reading of a thermocouple should be in the range of: A) 2 to 10 mV B) 25 to 30 mV C) 250 to 750 mV D) 800 to 950 mV 39. A temperature control with a narrow differential will cause a very: A) close temperature control and long “on” cycles B) wide range of temperature control and short “on” cycles C) close temperature control and short and long “on” cycles D) wide range of temperature control and long “on” cycles 40. Thermostat heat anticipators are normally connected: A) in series with the valve, and in parallel with the thermostat contacts B) in parallel with the valve and in parallel with the thermostat contacts C) in series with the valve and in series with the thermostat contacts D) in parallel with the valve, and in series with the thermostat contacts 41. If the heat anticipator of a thermostat is set low, what probable condition would exist when the heating unit is in operation: A) burn out of the coil in the automatic safety shut off B) burn out the heat anticipator C) short cycling of the main burner D) none of the available choices 42. A poorly insulated building could result in: A) insufficient building air supply B) excessive moisture in the building C) increased fuel consumption D) decreased the fuel cost 43. Increasing the amount of attic ventilation in a building will: A) lower the relative humidity in the building B) lower the indoor dry bulb temperature C) lower the indoor wet bulb temperature D) lower the amount of ventilation air required for the building 44. Vapour barriers should be installed on: A) the inside of the insulation B) the outside of the insulation C) the cold side of the insulation D) the warm side of the insulation 45. With respect to heat loss, the most important area to seal against air leaks is: A) around the windows B) around exhaust fan outlets C) around fresh air intakes D) around basement floors 46. If air for combustion comes from inside the house, it is replaced with: A) return air B) air from the basement C) outside air by infiltration D) air from the attic 47. The best way to insulate an attic is to: A) install a moisture barrier and rigid insulation B) install expanding foam insulation and add vapour barrier C) install an air barrier and add poly board insulation D) install an air barrier and add fibreglass batts 48. A correctly sized air intake ensures: A) combustion air requirements B) dilution air and combustion requirements C) flue gas dilution requirements D) combustion air, flue gas dilution, and return air requirements 49. An air supply opening from the outdoors shall be located not less than inches above the outside grade level. A) 3 in B) 6 in C) 9 in D) 12 in 50. What causes negative pressure in a building? A) the volume of the air entering the building exceeds the volume of air leave the building B) the volume of the air leaving the building exceeds the volume of air entering the building C) too much excess air being introduced during the combustion process D) the combustion air opening is oversized 51. What is the voltage of a glow-coil? A) 2VAC B) 9VDC C) 24VDC D) 120VAC 52. When can moisture exhaust ducts be screwed together? A) always B) never C) only in retrofit D) only when approved by the manufacturer 53. A major disadvantage of a direct modulating over control is that: A) the oven temperature cannot be maintained below approximately 250 degrees fahrenheit B) it is too slow bringing the over up to temperature C) the over pilot tends to go out easily D) it cannot be used in conjunction with programmed cooking 54. The generator used in gas fired refrigerator takes the place of in a mechanical refrigeration system? A) evaporator B) condenser C) compressor D) metering device 55. In a 3 way refrigerator, the sources that may be used to achieve cooling are? A) 120VAC, 12VDC, gasoline B) 120VAC, 12VDC, propane C) 12VAC, 120VDC, kerosene D) 120VAC, 12VDC, kerosene 56. The condenser serves what purpose on a gas fired refrigerator? A) expels heat that has been gathered from inside the refrigerator B) removes heat from inside the refrigerator C) provides the heat energy source that begins and maintains the operating cycle D) storage tank used to house the refrigerant solution until required by the system 57. The absorber serves what purpose on a gas fired refrigerator? A) expels heat that has been gathered from inside the refrigerator B) removes heat from inside the refrigerator C) provides heat energy source that begins and maintains operating cycle D) storage tank used to house the refrigerant solution until required by the system 58. The evaporator serves what purpose on a gas fired refrigerator? A) expels heat that has been gathered from inside the operating cycle B) removes heat from inside the refrigerator C) provides the heat energy source that begins and maintains the operating cycle D) storage tank used to house the refrigerant solution until required by the system 59. The generator serves what purpose on a gas fired refrigerator? A) expels heat that has been gathered from inside the refrigerator B) removes heat from inside the refrigerator C) provides the heat energy source that begins and maintains the operating cycle D) storage tank used to house the refrigeration solution until required by the system 60. If a gas fired refrigerator is not kept level, what can result? A) excessive hydrogen pressure in the absorber may explode B) flame used to heat the generator can roll out, cause carbon monoxide C) liquid ammonia will accumulate in sections of the evaporator D) ammonia and hydrogen will mix causing a violent reaction 61. What effect will placing more heat on the generator cause? A) more refrigeration affect B) less refrigeration affect C) production of carbon monoxide D) no refrigeration affect 62. What is the effect on the refrigeration cycle when the flame on a gas fired refrigerator is at the lowest or minimum setting? A) more refrigeration affect B) less refrigeration affect C) production or carbon monoxide D) no refrigeration affect 63. The only physical difference between a natural gas and propane-fired refrigerator is? A) type of refrigerant B) orifice size C) smaller absorber used for propane D) larger generator used for natural gas 64. What type of gas-fired refrigerators are approved fro us in a recreational vehicle? A) direct vent type B) approved direct fired type C) approved power vented type D) floor vented type 65. Which form of power may not be used on a vehicle refrigerator when the vehicle is in motion? A) propane B) 12 volt DC C) 120 volt AC D) hydrogen 66. Where should a level be placed in a gas-fired refrigerator? A) on the top of the refrigerator B) on the top edge of the door C) on the ice cube tray D) on the top row of the evaporator fins 67. A gas-fired refrigerator should be defrosted when the ice buildup reaches % of the space between the evaporator fins A) 30% B) 40% C) 50% D) 60% 68. How often should a gas-fired refrigerator be cleaned? A) once it is not working properly B) one every two years C) once every three years D) twice a year 69. Use caution not to enlarge the when cleaning and maintaining the gas fired refrigerator. A) condenser B) evaporator C) metering device D) gas orifice 70. Always check the level of in the flue products whenever service or repair is performed on a gas-fired refrigerator A) carbon dioxide B) carbon monoxide C) ammonia D) methane 71. A refrigerant leak on a gas-fired refrigerator is usually indicated by? A) a green liquid substance B) a yellow liquid substance C) a black liquid substance D) a blue liquid substance 72. A category I appliance is a: A) operates at positive with no flue loss B) non-condensing appliance with a non-positive vent static with a flue loss of not less than 17% C) condensing appliance which operates with a positive vent static pressure with a flue loss less than 17% D) none of the above 73. Air for combustion of natural gas for every 1,000 Btu produced is: A) 10 cubic ft B) 100 cubic ft C) 30 cubic ft D) none of the above 74. In the above question, there are additional requirements of excess for dilution and this amount is: A) 20 cubic ft B) 30 cubic ft C) 50 cubic ft D) none of the above 75. Natural draft is defined as the draft developed by the difference in the temperature of hot gases and outside atmosphere. Natural — draft vent relies on upward movement of gases: A) true B) false 76. The draft will be greatest when: A) average stack temperature is highest B) the outdoor air temperature is least C) the stack height is greatest D) all of the above 77. Downdraft at the draft diverter is preferred on natural gas: A) true B) false 78. The venting system will operate because: A) there is a reclaimer B) there is no reclaimer C) there is a draft D) there is no long run 79. Which is not a component of a venting system when type-B vent is used? A) vent connector B) base tee C) support plate D) fire stop E) fire grille 80. Components used for a B vent system should be manufactured and not altered in any manner: A) true B) false 81. On an appliance with forced air, where is draft produced and by what? A) downstream of combustion zone with mechanical device B) up stream of combustion zone with mechanical device C) in boiler fire tubes D) non of the above 82. NAT + NAT — refers to the maximum combined input rating two or more draft hoods connected to a common vent. A) true B) false 83. FAN Min — refers to the maximum appliance output rating of a category 1 appliance with a fan assisted combustion. A) true B) false 84. The use of a smaller vent size than the appliance draft hood outlet is: A) prohibited B) does not matter C) only if all GVR are followed D) none of the above 85. A vent connector serving a single appliance with a single flu outlet can be smaller than the vent as long as it is connected to a draft hood outlet of equivalent size? A) true B) false 86. An appliance installed in a dwelling unit shall not be connected to a flue serving: A) solid fuelled appliance B) solid fuelled fireplace unless the opening from the fireplace to the flue is permanently sealed C) A and B D) none of the above 87. Vent and Chimney requirements for a Type B, BH, or L vents or factory built chimneys used for venting an appliance shall be: A) installed according to code B) certified C) be a minimum of 10 ft D) all of the above 88. When a confined space is used for return air, it shall not contain a vent or connector that does not have sealed joints. A) true B) false 89. A vent less than ten feet from any wall on a roof must locate the rain cap at least 3 feet above the wall: A) true B) false 90. A vent shall not terminate: A) directly above a paved sidewalk or driveway that is located between single dwelling and serves both dwellings B) within 3 feet of any gas service regulator C) within 6 feet of a mechanical air supply D) all of the above 91. Secondary air is: A) the second air in the room B) for ventilation C) for intermediate and final stages of combustion downstream of ignition D) none of the above 92. A draft control device is: A) draft hood or draft regulator B) chimney C) not allowed D) a controlled substance 93. When Type B vent passes through a floor or ceiling, good venting practice dictates the use of a: A) fire stop spacer B) ventilated thimble C) sleeve D) unventilated thimble 94. A return air duct opening can be installed in the same room as the forced warm air furnace as long as it is installed within 6 feet of the return air plenum. A) true B) false C) does not matter D) with permission only 95. Electrically operated automatic dampers shall be so that the main burner cannot operate unless the dampers are in the fully open position. A) locked in the open position B) locked in the closed position C) interlocked D) locked in the normal position 96. When a chimney liner is installed the clean out door at the base of the chimney will be: A) removed B) cemented shut C) left as is D) left open 97. Mechanical flue exhausters may be used in vents or chimneys in lieu of natural draft, except for: A) domestic water heaters B) incinerators or specific design as designated by the enforcing authority C) infrared heater D) building used as one or two family dwellings 98. What type of vent connector may be used between the draft hood inlet and the flue outlet of a converted furnace? A) L vent B) B vent C) BW vent D) single wall vent 99. Which of the following statements is correct: A) a single wall vent connector is allowed to pass through the first floor of a residence providing it has proper clearance and is connected to a Class A chimney B) a single wall vent connector can never be used in an unheated space C) you can use a power exhauster in place of natural draft venting in a residential home if you also install an air proving switch D) a certified contractor is allowed to install external electrically operated vent damper, with an air- proving switch in the vent of a residential appliance. The damper may be purchased separately from the appliance but it must be approved. 100. When using a liner inside a chimney: A) it must not extend the full height of the chimney B) it must extend from inside the space where the appliance is located to the top of the chimney C) it must cover only the problem area of the chimney D) it must line the outside part of the chimney 101. The standard rule for sizing either a vent or a chimney, which will vent more than one appliance is: A) the area of the common vent shall equal the total area of all flue collars B) the area of the common vent shall equal the area of the largest single flue collar C) the area of the common vent is to equal the area of the largest draft control device outlet or the largest flue outlet plus 50% the area of the sum of the outlet areas of the additional appliances D) the area of the common vent is to equal the area of the largest flue collar plus 75% the area of the flue collars of the additional appliances