Dental Past Paper PDF

**Question 1** Lignocaine hydrochloride is a weak base with a pKa of 7.9. At the site of injection in the oral mucosa (pH = 7.3) with bacterial pus (pH = 6.9), how much of the anaesthetic is in unionized form and ready for absorption? a\. 100%\ b. 91%\ c. 9% (Correct)\ d. 20%\ e. 80% **Question 2...

**Question 1** Lignocaine hydrochloride is a weak base with a pKa of 7.9. At the site of injection in the oral mucosa (pH = 7.3) with bacterial pus (pH = 6.9), how much of the anaesthetic is in unionized form and ready for absorption? a\. 100%\ b. 91%\ c. 9% (Correct)\ d. 20%\ e. 80% **Question 2** How many cartridges of prilocaine 3% (with 1:300000 epinephrine) can be safely used for a 70 kg adult if the maximum dose of prilocaine is 9 mg/kg? The cartridge volume is 2.2 mL. a\. 9 (Correct)\ b. 8\ c. 3\ d. 5\ e. 11 **Question 3** Four millilitres (4 mL) of a local anaesthetic solution containing 4% lignocaine with 1:50000 epinephrine contains how much of each? a\. 160 μg lignocaine, 80 μg epinephrine\ b. 160 μg lignocaine, 0.80 μg epinephrine\ c. 160 mg lignocaine, 8 μg epinephrine\ d. 160 mg lignocaine, 80 μg epinephrine (Correct) **Question 4** Aspirin is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? a\. Myalgia\ b. Rheumatoid arthritis\ c. Fever\ d. Unstable angina\ e. Peptic ulcers (Correct) **Question 5** Paracetamol is: I. Strong analgesic\ II. Strong antipyretic\ III. Strong anti-inflammatory a\. I and II (Correct)\ b. I only\ c. III only\ d. I, II, and III\ e. I and III **Question 6** In the very early stages of odontogenic infection, the predominant bacteria are: a\. Aerobic bacteria\ b. Nonspecific bacteria\ c. Anaerobic bacteria\ d. A mix of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria (Correct)\ e. Candidal infection **Question 7** Maximum dose of lignocaine given with adrenaline for nerve block anaesthesia is: a\. 3 mg/kg\ b. 5 mg/kg\ c. 7 mg/kg (Correct)\ d. 9 mg/kg **Question 8** An 8-year-old girl has a fever and muscle ache from a presumptive viral infection. Which of the following drugs would be MOST appropriate and safe to treat her symptoms? a\. Oxycodone\ b. Codeine\ c. Paracetamol (Correct)\ d. Aspirin **Question 9** How much of epinephrine (μg/mL) is present in prilocaine 3% (with 1:300000 epinephrine)? a\. 33 μg/mL\ b. 0.03 μg/mL\ c. 0.3 μg/mL\ d. 3.3 μg/mL (Correct)\ e. 3 μg/mL **Question 10** Digitalis is classified as: a\. Positive dromotropic drug\ b. Positive inotropic drug (Correct)\ c. Negative inotropic drug\ d. Positive chronotropic drug **Question 11** Pain nerve fibers are usually of what type? a\. β only\ b. A-α β\ c. A-δ C (Correct)\ d. A-γ A-β **Question 12** Which of the following antibacterial drugs acts as a prokinetic agent by acting on motilin receptors and thereby causes more risk of GI adverse effects? a\. Vancomycin\ b. Amoxicillin\ c. Azithromycin\ d. Erythromycin (Correct) **Question 13** All of the following are 3rd generation cephalosporins EXCEPT: a\. Ceftazidime\ b. Ceftriaxone\ c. Ceftaroline\ d. Cefuroxime (Correct)\ e. Cefotaxime **Question 14** Folinic acid is frequently administered shortly after the high dose of which of the following? a\. Doxorubicin\ b. Vincristine\ c. Cyclophosphamide\ d. Methotrexate (Correct)\ e. Cisplatin **Question 15** Which of the following antifungal drugs is a triazole antifungal? a\. Clotrimazole\ b. Amphotericin B\ c. Ketoconazole\ d. Miconazole\ e. Itraconazole (Correct) **Question 16** Ibuprofen belongs to which of the following class of NSAIDs? a\. Propionic acid derivative (Correct)\ b. Oxicams\ c. Salicylates\ d. Acetic acid derivative **Question 17** Which of the following antibiotics should not be used with NMJ blockers like tubocurarine? a\. Ciprofloxacin\ b. Doxycycline\ c. Gentamicin (Correct)\ d. Amoxicillin **Question 18** Which dose and schedule is recommended by therapeutic guidelines for oral sedation dentistry? a\. Diazepam 5 mg - 10 mg orally; night before the procedure\ b. Diazepam 5 mg - 10 mg orally; 1 hour before the procedure (Correct)\ c. Diazepam 5 mg - 10 mg IM; 1 hour before the procedure\ d. Diazepam 5 mg - 10 mg orally; 2-3 hours before the procedure **Question 19** Oral mucositis is a common problem associated with the administration of: a\. Cyclophosphamide\ b. Cisplatin\ c. Methotrexate\ d. 5-FU\ e. All of the above (Correct) **Question 20** Carbidopa, a peripheral dopa-decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitor, is usually used along with levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson\'s disease because it: a\. Potentiates the central effects of levodopa (Correct)\ b. Increases the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine\ c. Potentiates the peripheral effects of levodopa\ d. Increases the permeability of the blood-brain barrier to levodopa **Question 21** Which of the following antibiotics should not be used with NMJ blockers like tubocurarine? a\. Amoxicillin\ b. Doxycycline\ c. Gentamicin (Correct)\ d. Ciprofloxacin **Question 22** Which of the following drugs is a Lincosamide? a\. Vancomycin\ b. Gentamicin\ c. Amoxicillin\ d. Clindamycin (Correct)\ e. Erythromycin **Question 23** Doxycycline acts by: a\. Inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis\ b. Binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting DNA synthesis\ c. Changing cell wall permeability\ d. Binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting protein synthesis\ e. Binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting protein synthesis (Correct) **Question 24** Pseudomembranous colitis is MOST COMMONLY associated with the use of: a\. Metronidazole\ b. Vancomycin\ c. Clindamycin (Correct)\ d. Gentamicin **Question 25** Sequential blockade of folic acid synthesis pathway in bacteria is produced by the combination of which of the following two drugs? a\. Piperacillin + tazobactam\ b. Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid\ c. Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim (Correct)\ d. Ampicillin + clindamycin\ e. Cloxacillin + clavulanic acid **Question 26** Lignocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effect by: a\. Increasing A-V conduction\ b. Slowing the rate of depolarization (Correct)\ c. Increasing cardiac conduction velocity\ d. Inducing spontaneous pacemaker activity **Question 27** In the very early stages of odontogenic infection, the predominant bacteria are: a\. A mix of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria (Correct)\ b. Candidal infection\ c. Aerobic bacteria\ d. Nonspecific bacteria\ e. Anaerobic bacteria **Question 28** For patients (adults) in whom NSAID-like drugs are contraindicated, which is the FIRST-LINE analgesic for moderate to severe pain? a\. Ibuprofen 400 mg + paracetamol 500 mg\ b. Paracetamol 500 - 1000 mg\ c. Ibuprofen 400 - 600 mg\ d. Ibuprofen 200 mg + codeine 12.8 mg\ e. Paracetamol 1000 mg + codeine 60 mg (Correct) **Question 29** Which of the following corticosteroid-antibiotic paste is recommended for root canal medicament or as a pulp-capping agent? a\. Demeclocycline + triamcinolone (Correct)\ b. Triamcinolone alone\ c. Amoxicillin + triamcinolone\ d. Doxycycline + betamethasone\ e. Gentamicin + hydrocortisone **Question 30** Zidovudine is indicated for the treatment of: I. Hepatitis B infection\ II. Herpes simplex infection\ III. Human immunodeficiency virus infection a\. I and III (Correct)\ b. I only\ c. II and III\ d. I and II\ e. III only **Question 31** A 35-year-old patient complaining of severe pain along the right side of the jaw and face. Which of the following could be the BEST choice for this trigeminal neuralgia? a\. Carbamazepine (Correct)\ b. Morphine\ c. Ibuprofen\ d. Phenytoin\ e. Diazepam **Question 32** Which of the following antibacterial drugs acts as a prokinetic agent by acting on motilin receptors and thereby causes more risk of GI adverse effects? a\. Vancomycin\ b. Erythromycin (Correct)\ c. Azithromycin\ d. Amoxicillin **Question 33** Mr. T is taking warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism due to a prosthetic heart valve. Under which of the following circumstances is \"Tranexamic acid mouthwash protocol\" recommended? I. INR value of 2.5\ II. INR value of 2.8\ III. INR value of 3.5 a\. I, II, and III (Correct)\ b. II only\ c. I only\ d. II and III\ e. I and II **Question 34** Barbiturates act by increasing the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of opening and benzodiazepines act by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of opening of the GABAA - Cl- channel. a\. Duration, duration\ b. Frequency, duration\ c. Frequency, frequency\ d. Amplitude, intensity\ e. Duration, frequency (Correct) **Question 35** Cefalexin acts as an antibacterial drug by which of the following mechanisms? a\. Inhibiting cell membrane synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking\ b. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis\ c. Opening of K+ channels to increase cell membrane permeability\ d. Inhibiting ribosomal translocation\ e. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking (Correct) **Question 36** In the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias, sotalol is MOST similar in action to: a\. Amiodarone (Correct)\ b. Lignocaine\ c. Disopyramide\ d. Verapamil\ e. Flecainide **Question 37** Which of the following anxiolytic drugs can be safely given to patients with a history of drug dependence? a\. Temazepam\ b. Buspirone (Correct)\ c. Oxazepam\ d. Nitrazepam\ e. Diazepam **Question 38** All of the following are DNA polymerase inhibitors EXCEPT: a\. Aciclovir\ b. Valaciclovir\ c. Valganciclovir\ d. Abacavir (Correct)\ e. Ganciclovir **Question 39** Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase? a\. Benzylpenicillin\ b. Flucloxacillin (Correct)\ c. Piperacillin\ d. Amoxicillin\ e. Phenoxymethylpenicillin **Question 40** All of the following reduce the development of resistance EXCEPT: a\. Using narrow-spectrum drugs\ b. Using a combination of drugs\ c. Changing drugs frequently at intervals of time\ d. Using selective drugs based on culture and sensitivity\ e. Using broad-spectrum drugs (Correct) **Question 41** Mercaptoethansulfonate is usually given with cyclophosphamide to: a\. Increase absorption\ b. Reduce excretion\ c. Ameliorate hemorrhagic cystitis (Correct)\ d. Decrease metabolism\ e. All of the above **Question 42** All of the following are beta-lactam antibiotics EXCEPT: a\. Ertapenam (carbapenem)\ b. Penicillin G\ c. Cefaclor\ d. Aztreonam (monobactam)\ e. Vancomycin (Correct) **Question 43** A patient is being treated with zolendronate for the hypercalcemia of malignancy. His condition includes the drug to be administered as IV infusion. What is the risk involved in the IV infusion of this class of drugs? a\. Gingival hyperplasia\ b. Syncope\ c. Osteonecrosis of the jaw (Correct)\ d. Increased risk of fractures\ e. Osteoporosis **Question 44** A patient is being treated with zolendronate for the hypercalcemia of malignancy. His condition includes the drug to be administered as IV infusion. What is the risk involved in the IV infusion of this class of drugs? a\. Gingival hyperplasia\ b. Syncope\ c. Osteonecrosis of the jaw (Correct)\ d. Increased risk of fractures\ e. Osteoporosis **Question 45** Mr. TI is taking warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism due to a prosthetic heart valve. Under which of the following circumstances is \"Tranexamic acid mouthwash protocol\" recommended? I. INR value of 2.5\ II. INR value of 2.8\ III. INR value of 3.5 a\. II and III\ b. I only\ c. I, II, and III (Correct)\ d. II only\ e. I and II **Question 46** Digitalis produces positive inotropic effect by: a\. Decreasing Ca2+\ b. Increasing K+\ c. Increasing Na+\ d. Increasing Ca2+ (Correct) **Question 47** Phenytoin is effective in the treatment of all of the following types of seizures EXCEPT: a\. Simple partial seizures\ b. Tonic-clonic seizures\ c. Complex partial seizures\ d. Absence seizures (Correct) **Question 48** A 62-year-old man presents with dyspnea, angina, and dizziness on exertion. An echocardiogram reveals a calcified aortic valve with a restricted opening and diminished flow. Valve replacement surgery is recommended. Fifteen to thirty minutes prior to the start of surgery, the patient receives a 2 g dose of cefazolin intravenously (as per the protocol for cefazolin). Why is cefazolin preferable to other agents for this patient? a\. Cefazolin is resistant to beta-lactamases\ b. Cefazolin is cheaper than a 3rd generation cephalosporin\ c. Cefazolin is the only cephalosporin that can be given intravenously\ d. First-generation cephalosporins have superior activity against gram-positive organisms that cause endocarditis\ e. The patient is likely to be severely allergic to penicillin (Correct) **Question 49** A reasonable explanation for the therapeutic effects of ibuprofen or naproxen in primary dysmenorrhea is that these drugs: a\. ↓ TXA2\ b. ↓ PGE2 and PGF2α (Correct)\ c. ↓ PGI2\ d. Inhibit PLA2\ e. ↓ LTB4 **Question 50** Following an overdose of an over-the-counter (OTC) drug, a young college student has marked GI distress and is lethargic and confused with elevated body temperature. Lab analysis reveals ↑ pCO2, ↓ HCO3-, and an anion gap acidosis. Which of the following drugs produces such symptoms of respiratory alkalosis and systemic acidosis in toxic doses? a\. Diphenhydramine\ b. Paracetamol\ c. Ibuprofen\ d. Aspirin (Correct) **Question 51** A 70-year-old man has a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). For the last few months, he experienced severe arthritic pain in his joints. His physician wants to begin therapy with NSAIDs for his progressive osteoarthritis. Which of the following cytoprotective drugs can be given to him along with long-term use of high-dose NSAIDs to reduce the risk of his PUD? a\. Diphenhydramine\ b. Naproxen\ c. Aspirin\ d. Al (OH)3 antacid\ e. Misoprostol (Correct) **Question 52** MZ presents with a severe case of lichen planus. A topical corticosteroid was prescribed with additional lifestyle modifications. Which of the following is LEAST potent and hence not an appropriate treatment for severe lichen planus? a\. Betamethasone valerate 0.1%\ b. Methylprednisolone aceponate 0.1%\ c. Hydrocortisone 1% (Correct)\ d. Betamethasone valerate 0.02%\ e. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% **Question 53** Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY indication for antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis? a\. Prosthetic heart valve\ b. Valvular heart disease\ c. Previous infective endocarditis\ d. Prosthetic joint implant (Correct)\ e. Cyanotic congenital heart defect **Question 54** Concomitant administration of this drug with organic nitrates is contraindicated due to marked potentiation of vasodilatory action leading to profound hypotension. This drug is: a\. Hydrochlorothiazide\ b. Sildenafil (Viagra) (Correct)\ c. Propranolol\ d. Caffeine **Question 55** Mr. TL, a 70-year-old male, has undergone cardiac surgery for a prosthetic tricuspid valve replacement last month. He is taking the immunosuppressant drug cyclosporine A and oral anticoagulants. He seeks an urgent appointment for severe mandibular pain. The dentist suggests the 3rd molar extraction. Which of the following are of high concern in this case? I. Antibiotic prophylaxis\ II. Gingival enlargement\ III. Warfarin a\. I and II\ b. I, II, and III (Correct)\ c. I only\ d. II and III\ e. II only **Question 56** Which of the following antibacterial drugs act by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit but is NOT a macrolide antibiotic? a\. Erythromycin\ b. Clarithromycin\ c. Roxithromycin\ d. Clindamycin (Correct)\ e. Azithromycin **Question 57** Mrs. UK, a 56-year-old female with lymph-node positive breast cancer, is being treated with systemic chemotherapy. A few weeks later, she developed pain in the suprapubic area, dysuria, and hematuria. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents causes hematoma in the urinary bladder leading to hemorrhagic cystitis? a\. Methotrexate\ b. Doxorubicin\ c. Carmustine\ d. Cisplatin\ e. Cyclophosphamide (Correct) **Question 58** Which of the following is a potent analgesic but a very weak anaesthetic (B coefficient = 0.5 & MAC = 100%)? a\. Propofol\ b. Midazolam\ c. Thiopental\ d. Nitrous oxide (Correct)\ e. Halothane **Question 59** Which of the following property combinations is common to the MAJORITY of NSAIDs? a\. Antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic (Correct)\ b. Anti-inflammatory, antibacterial, antiviral\ c. Immunosuppressant, analgesic, antipyretic\ d. Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic\ e. Anti-inflammatory, antihistaminic, immunosuppressive **Question 60** Which of the following cancer chemotherapeutic agents is (are) classified as antimetabolites? I. Mercaptopurine\ II. Fluorouracil\ III. Cytarabine a\. III only\ b. I only\ c. I, II, and III (Correct)\ d. I and II\ e. II and III **Question 61** A 45-year-old male reported to the Dept of Oral Medicine with a chief complaint of burning sensation on the tongue and cheeks for the past 3 months. He had no significant past medical and drug history. Intraoral examination revealed erythematous patches on the right and left retrocommissural areas. The erythematous area was superimposed with multiple white striae/striations that were nontransparent. Similar patches were also present on the palate. Angular cheilitis was present bilaterally on lip commissures. Exfoliative smear revealed many epithelial cells with candida-like hyphae confirming the diagnosis of erythematous candidiasis. Which of the following drugs will be suitable for this patient? I. Amphotericin\ II. Nystatin\ III. Miconazole a\. I, II, and III\ b. II only\ c. I only\ d. II and III (Correct)\ e. I and II **Question 62** Antibacterial drugs acting by inhibiting cell wall synthesis is/are: a\. Clindamycin\ b. Nystatin\ c. Azithromycin\ d. Vancomycin (Correct)\ e. Streptomycin **Question 63** All of the following anticancer drugs act as \"Kinase inhibitors\" EXCEPT: a\. Ceritinib\ b. Imatinib\ c. Trastuzumab (Correct)\ d. Axitinib **Question 64** Which of the following drug combinations is considered to be the MOST effective in the eradication of H. pylori infestation when there are no antibiotic contraindications? a\. Esomeprazole + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin (Correct)\ b. Esomeprazole + Cimetidine + Clarithromycin\ c. Clarithromycin + Esomeprazole\ d. Esomeprazole + Clarithromycin + Metronidazole\ e. Esomeprazole + Clarithromycin + Clindamycin **Question 65** Which of the following NSAIDs is the MOST selective COX-2 inhibitor? a\. Celecoxib (Correct)\ b. Diclofenac\ c. Indomethacin\ d. Ibuprofen\ e. Ketorolac **Question 66** The \"HAART\" regimen is used for the treatment of which of the following diseases? a\. Herpes simplex infection\ b. Candida albicans infection\ c. Human immunodeficiency virus infection (Correct)\ d. Enterococcal endocarditis\ e. Herpes Zoster infection **Question 67** In order to reduce the development of resistance: a\. Narrow-spectrum drugs should be used\ b. Combination of drugs should be used\ c. Drugs should be changed frequently at intervals of time\ d. Selective drugs should be used based on culture and sensitivity\ e. All of the above (Correct) **Question 68** The maximum recommended dose (adult) of paracetamol in a day should not exceed: a\. 2000 mg\ b. 1000 mg\ c. 4000 mg (Correct)\ d. 8000 mg\ e. 500 mg