FN & MCN Midterm Focalizations (RECENT) PDF
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Cebu Doctors' University
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These are notes from a midterm exam in a nursing degree, containing questions focusing on human physiology and common nursing topics. Answers to some questions are included.
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yellow highlight = answer Rationale: What do you mean by this one? That man is unified as a whole. When there FN TEST DRILL is a stimulus, say, for example, you saw 1...
yellow highlight = answer Rationale: What do you mean by this one? That man is unified as a whole. When there FN TEST DRILL is a stimulus, say, for example, you saw 1. John Gerner used man as an organized your crush, that's why your face becomes cold with his biological, psychological, red. It's not only the nervous system that social, and spiritual attributes, intertwining reacts to it. It's not only your and interlocking throughout his lifetime. cardiovascular.. No. It's like all other One, man is like all other men because of systems also respond to such things in a his? way. That is what is meant by man. A response to be unified as a whole. A. structure and function of all body parts. 6. Kiko begins his journey as a student nurse at Cebu Doctors University. Student Rationale: That means what really makes nurse Kiko knows the importance of one's man the same with others? That structure behavior and hopes to become a registered and function of all body parts because that nurse in the future. makes us alike. - This is reflected in the way he 2. Man is considered like some other man responds to any environmental because of? stimulus. C. types of likes and dislikes. 7. scrutinizing man as a biological being agrees with the study of man. Rationale: we have likes. We have dislikes. - That is atomistic. But we differ in that one. Rationale: Say, for example, when you 3. What about like no other men. Maybe assess only the cell or the sputum, when that's only for you. you assess it singly, that is atomistic. B.Their individuality. 8. The feeling of joy by being ecstatic, energetic, and thankful upon passing post Rationale: Okay, aside from that one, if you test one is an example that man, as an also have your fingerprint, your DNA, that is organism also a possible answer. - responds as a unified whole 4. Man, as a system, is best shown in the statements below. 9. student nurse Akiko recognizes that the Man is made of different parts, which family promotes interaction within and ultimately function as one. among the community and society. This refers to this essential role of the family. Tha Rationale: This is man as a system. This is - D socialization. the best of all sentences here that depicts that man is indeed a system. Rationale: This interaction. 5. An example of a body response that best 10. His behavior is greatly influenced by his shows man's unified wholeness is response to his environment, family, and C. reddening of the face after community. This is an example of an embarrassment. c. Superordinate system. yellow highlight = answer Situation: Nurse Michelle practices the - D.1, 2, 3, and 4 essential values of a professional nurse. The situation below shows the different 15. She addresses her clients properly, values as applied in nursing practice. listens to their views, and takes them into consideration. 11. She makes unbiased decisions and provides the highest medical care to each - Respect for human dignity. one of her clients. Nurse Michelle demonstrates this essential value. Situation: India is a newly registered nurse - social justice. who graduated from Cebu Doctors University. He possesses a CDU CN and Rationale: That means you provide the government attributes and is guided by laws highest care for all, not those specific in the nursing profession. persons only. 16. India takes in Cebu. He became a 12. Nurse Michelle assists the position in member of the Philippine Nurses securing the consent form and makes sure Association. This act of India promotes the that her client who is scheduled for a principal element surgical procedure can rationally decide on - D. Nurses and profession. her own. This action depicts respect for: A. autonomy. 17.India always suspects the rights of his clients despite all the challenges he faces in Rationale: When the nurse can decide for the pandemic of his study. He promotes the herself, what is an essential nursing value? principal element of ? Autonomy. But when you respect others to - Nurses and people. decide for themselves, that is respecting one's autonomy. 18.India always reminds himself of the definition and scope of nursing practice. He 13. Nurse Michelle has a co-staff nurse who promotes the principal element of ? observes certain religious holidays. The - Nurses and practice. nurse manager makes sure that these observations can be met, the nurse 19. Nurse India is constantly updated with manager is practicing this essential value. the regular seminars and training conducted - Altruism. by the Philippine Nurses Association, Seboon chapter. He encourages his team Rationale: When you're looking after the… members to join. This action by India What do you call that? You're looking after promotes the principal element of? your welfare. She can't observe these religious practices on certain holidays. - Nurses and coworkers. That's altruism. 20.India always promotes health as a 14. Nurse Michelle knows the integrity of priority for its clients. This is based on the this value as a nurse. The situations below priorable of ? show that she has applied integrity at work - RA 9173. Philippine nursing act by: of 2002. 1.focusing on honest communication. 2.Upholding ethical standards. SCENARIO: Nurse Jeremy conducts 3.Holding oneself and others accountable. MMDST to Kaisa at 5 years old. 4.following through with one's commitment. yellow highlight = answer 21. Nurse Jeremy is certain that MMDST is 26. Nurse Vera performs assessment to performed to pediatric clients of different age groups. - Detect development. Vera prepares a drinking glass of juice and an ice cube tray. She pours the juice into Rationale: There are 4 sectors, assess an the ice cube tray. She asks the child if the Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test volume of the juice in the tray is greater (MMDST), right? How should that be than the volume in the drinking glass. The administered? So what's the order? child understands the concept of So you will start with a personal social, conservation if he responds: fine Motor adaptive followed by language and gross motor that would be for Red B. No, they are of the same volume. 27. Blair dispenses colorful wooden blocks 22. Jeremy knows that this is the most of different sizes. She instructs a child to crucial component of the test for Right child arrange the blocks according to height. This exact age. determines the development of How can we say that this is the most crucial - seriation component of the test ? Age is at the top of the form, a vertical line is drawn and those Seriation refers to the ability of the child to that pass through the line will be the skills order objects along a single dimension such assessed. That's why age is a very crucial as length, height or weight. component for Mmst. 28. Nurse Blair assess object permanence 25. An MMDST delay is any failure on an by item that is completely to the left of the - showing a toy, then hiding it. child's age line. (TRUE) 29. Children in the preconceptual phase Failure of the child that is to the right of the use an ego centric approach to age line is acceptable and not a delay. accommodate the demand of the TRUE environment. Egocentricity refers to the ability to recognize that numbers or objects Why do we say that it is not acceptable ? can be changed and returning to their because at the right of the child’s age line original condition. that means that is beyond his/her age. If there are skills there, it is not yet expected - Only the first statement is correct. to be developed. Why ? The ability to recognize that numbers What skills will be assessed with utmost or objects can be changed and return to priority ? those that pass through the line their original condition = Reversibility If you still have time, you can continue to assess those on the right. But, is the child Egocentricity = centered to yourself, the expected to have developed skills that are child at this time cannot view yet other on the left of the child’s age line ? YES, people’s perspectives because that means they should have 30. Blair knows that the reaction of a developed those before his current age. newborn to the environment is confined to the use of? - Reflexes yellow highlight = answer 31. Mia, as the medication compounding client. Considering the risk involved and nurse, mcn reviews and prepares all how this affects the client is applying the medication orders. Acetaminophen tylenol is principle of normally ordered to most of her patients. Mr. - non maleficence Drew received 615 mg per capsule of acetaminophen. The pharmacy currently 38. This is after explaining the pros and the has 325mg on hand is the appropriate cons The action of the nurse is considered number of capsules. Nurse Mia will under the principle of: (I think the question dispense is are of this is that the nurse explains the procedure/treatment options including the C. 2 (amount admin / drug on hand x pros/cons to the client and allowing the vehicle or quantity) client to make their own choices) 32. The same medication with an adult dose - Autonomy of 6.15mg is given to an 8 year old child waiting for 25.8kg following Clark's rule. 39. The nurse exhibits her judgement by - B. 245.9 or 246 (wt in lbs/150 x newly available oxygen tank (?) (I think the average adult dose) question is that there’s only one oxygen - 25.8kg x 2.2lbs = 56.76lbs tank and gi give sa nurse to the one who needs it the most) 33. A mother requested a liquid preparation for child who received 325 mg of tylenol the - Justice available suspension is 160 per 5ml - C. 10 40. “I will be back to answer the inquiries ma’am”, the nurse replied to her client. The 34. Another client of Mia is to receive an nurse's neglectful action when she does not antihypertensive once a day as her come back to answer. When the nurse does maintenance medication. The medication not come back to her client violates order is an example of principles of. - A. Standing order - fidelity 35. Before the inspiration of the medication me and performs medical hand washing Veracity is telling the truth, but there are while performing medical and washing times when we need to assess the situation shield serves this technique of rubbing her if it’s the right place to tell the truth or not hands. share information. - Rotary motion SITUATION: Nurse Cameron facilitates the orientation of newly hired staff nurses. She 36.Identify the principle that is being emphasizes the importance of meeting the practiced by the nurse. The daughter of the standards of care. client who is a doctor from another hospital, requested to read the medical charge of her 41. Nurse Cameron reminds the nurses to mother. The nurse does not allow this until take care of all clients equally, regardless of there will be a consent from the client. The age, sex, social status, ethnicity, and nurse's action is the principle religion. The action upholds this principle of - confidentiality human right 37. The benefits outweigh the risk. This is - UNIVERSAL the judgment of the healthcare team on the treatment regimen that will be given to a yellow highlight = answer 42. He informs that a nurse performing a 48. Nurse Daryll knows that the following practice that is below the standard expected are characteristics of children 7 years old of an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent person may be charged with: 1 they begin taking pride in their work - A. negligence 2 they concentrate and master skills 43. Presence of sponge in the client's that will help them abdomen after an operation will hold the surgical team accountable by virtue of this 3 they are motivated by activities doctrine: 4 they are easily concerned about - res ipsa loquitur their bodies, physical appearance 44. A nurse who is unable to report to duty - C, all excluding physical due to flood is not held accountable for his appearance action based on this doctrine: 49. Ian falls under the school age stage - force majeure under erikson psychosocial development. This development task of this stage is 45. The question ani was about the focused on definition of Nursing jurisprudence. The definition for personal adjustment was used - Industry and inferiority for nursing jurisprudence. 50. Nurse darryl inform ian's mother the - Professional Adjustment successful resolution of ians developmental task is 46. waley ma hear - competence and perseverance 47. According to view Ian religions that enhance the attention to stop schooling. Scenario: Michael is feeling stressed about Undergraduate strike. This mother also the upcoming board examination forms the first style that Ian must be at school before vanishing from his 51. During midterms, Michael was not neighborhood. (The question is about Ian satisfied with his exam score. His final doing badly in school, the mother saying grade for the FN. This time he makes sure that he shouldn’t come home if he fails to study before exam season starts. This again. This parenting style is called:) shows: - - Compensation 52. Of all the techniques Michael did to lessen his stress, he creates a routine schedule to prioritize his tasks. This stress management technique is called: - Time Management yellow highlight = answer 53. On the day of the final examination, 68. Nurse Emily is in this phase when she Michael’s stress and nervousness increases answers any concerns or questions, and making him temporarily blind. He is provides any referrals and support groups. experiencing: - Termination - Diversion 69. During the working phase, Nurse Emily 54. Later on, Michael thinks that due to (I asks for information purely out of curiosity. think Michael lost weight, tapos Michael Asking “Is this true ?” thinks it’s due to stress. The student nurse knows that what Michael needs is:) - Probing - Good Nutrition and Management 70. During the working phase of a healthy relationship, the nurse and a client begin to 55 - 58 no sound view each other as unique individuals. The goal of the nurse in this space is to develop 59. Rurie is assessing the IV site, her trust and security with the Nurse flying elderly client is sharing her bad experiences relationship, the nurture, establish and with her children. This statement by the develop trust and security during the first nurse shows rejecting phase, which is the orientation - I don't want to hear about that - Only the first statement is correct let’s discuss your current situation 71. no sound 60. This one on one interaction of 72. no question nurse-client (no sound) - Adaptation - Interpersonal 73. What influence one’s response the stress that includes 1.lifestyle 2.Mental attitude 61-63 no sound 3.Perception 4.Heredity 64. Mr. Thompson has a jejunostomy tube so maintaining his needs becomes difficult - 1234 for him. 74. Guy who made Stress Adaptation Model - di ma hear ang full question and - HANS SELYE answer 75. These human anatomical structure 65. A medical technologist hands over a control the control the body's response to s printed copy of Mr. Thompson’s CBC result stressful to Nurse Shannie. 1. Medulla oblongata 2. Skin - Verbal (Verbal is both spoken and 3. Pituitary gland printed words) 4. Reticular formation 66 - 67 - 134 76. no question yellow highlight = answer 85. During the initial interview the client - B A scale of one to ten. How makes this statement. I don't know why I painful is it right Now? have to undergro strategy. I'm really not that safe or in pain right now. Next, mary's best 77. Observes the following guidelines of answer telephone order, but one. - Temporarily writes the order in a - B What do you want to know about clean sheet of bond paper your surgical procedure? which is supposed to be your write right 86. Student Nurse Amy is in the diagnosis away on the physician's order sheet phase of the nursing process. Student Nurse Amy understands that clustering data 78. About SOAPIE ; part of SOAPIE comes with experience and recognizing - I (Intervention) cues. the best way for her to recognize patterns of cues 79. - Offering Self - taking assessment notes and utilize information from textbooks for comparison 80. Brian verbalizes, I am living alone right 87. N/A now because my parents are in California and I'm studying here in Cebu. Do you think 88. A client who has been in a wheelchair I need to continue my studies in the US? for several years, discovering problems with Nurse ellie's best response is skin breakdown and urinary retention in addition to depression when formulating and - B. What do you think would be the nursing diagnosis. So then there's Amy best for you choose this type Therapeutic technique used is - syndrome diagnosis( cluster the REFLECTING = let client think about it problem) 81. Nurse Murray assesses her client for 89. Student nurse Amy was taught in class this purpose that a primary advantage of using a 3 part - establish a database of client diagnostic statement such as the problem responses or her health status signs and symptoms, etiology PSE includes 82. In validating the data she has collected? - Standardizing organization of Nurse Murray does this client data - Apply a framework to the collected data 90. She differentiates Nursing Diagnosis from Medical Diagnosis. Nurse Amy is 83. N/A correct when she identifies the former as - Observe data should be interpreted in relation to other - a description of a client's response to sources of collective data. illness or health problems. (Nursing diagnosis) 84. N/A - B. Spouse dates the client and has loss all appetite. yellow highlight = answer 96. Nurse Rose, who says the nursing 91. Chopper, a student nurse at the Cebu process in the delivery of care, nurse Rose Doctors University, is on his first clinical implements the nursing process into a plan experience at Mactan Doctors Hospital. of care for a client. Part of the purpose of Chopper observed his staff nurse the the nursing process is. evaluate, client current medical and compared baseline data. This is done with - identify client meets and deliver the nurse to care to meet those needs - assess the effectiveness of the 97. Nurse Rose organizes a client of care nursing care plan. for the client and coordinates these with her co nurses and the healthcare team. This 92. during the nurse client interaction. The supports this characteristic of the nursing client states for the past 3 days that I have process been admitted. I would say that my pains for - interpersonal and collaborative us have gone down to 0, from 8 over 10 since receiving medical attention. This 98. The client complaints of itching and statement pay the acquire and indicates that pain. Nurse Rose documents this data as - A. The desired needs was met - symptoms 93. Based on a previous statement made by 99. Nurse Rose implements the nursing the client, Chopper is aware that the nursing process in the hospital. The purpose of the interventions will be diagnosis space does not include - continued - D. Developing a plan 94. The staff nurse assigned a chopper to 100. A major characteristic of the nursing administer the medication to the client which process is it is an example of indirect nursing care. This - A. Focuses on the clients need type of care is free from any accountability. - only the first statement is correct 95.Chopper base nursing Care plan and consider the following when selecting nursing dimensions appropriate for his client except for - C. situation of the nurse yellow highlight = answer FN RLE 12. Body alignment refers to the 1. Clean Inanimate Objects = relationship of one body part to Disinfectant another along a horizontal or vertical line. = TRUE 2. Stat orders are transcribed in the orange medication ticket. = TRUE 13. 2 importance of medical handwashing 3. Chemical waste with heavy metals a. prevents and controls the are discarded in the yellow with transmission of infection black band trash bin = TRUE b. mechanically removes soil Non infectious waste = and transient organisms Green that could be found in the Pathological waste = Yellow hands and cause various Radioactive Waste = Orange diseases 4. The timing for medication with OD is c. inhibits/reduces the 0600H - 0800H number of microorganisms d. reduces risk of 5. The scientific principle of contaminations of clients mathematics is observed when the nurse pours the desired amount of 14. 2 Indications for nurses to perform medication at the bottom of the medical handwashing meniscus at eye level = PHYSICS a. before and after contact with px 6. Bacteriostatic prevents the growth b. after contact with any and production of some bacteria = contaminated equipment TRUE c. from the start until the end of delivering nursing care 7. Clean pertains to an object that is d. before & after eating free from microorganisms = e. before charting STERILE f. before preparing a. Clean is free from dirt but medications nearly free from g. before handling sterile microorganisms equipment h. before clean/aseptic 8. The nurse must perform open procedure gloving when assisting the physician i. after touching px during circumcision = TRUE surroundings j. after body fluid exposure 9. Medical asepsis is also known as sterile technique = CLEAN 15. 2 examples of semi-liquid medications 10. Nurse KC performs medical hand a. cream washing when she starts wetting her b. ointment fingertips down to the elbow = c. gel SURGICAL d. paste e. lotion 11. Balance is maintained as long as the f. suppository line of gravity passes through the center of gravity and the base of 16. 2 advantages of oral medication support = TRUE a. more convenient route yellow highlight = answer b. non invasive 24. A cold compress must be applied for c. safer this number of minutes for it to d. less expensive render a therapeutic effect = 20 e. more comfort to px minutes f. self administered g. non sterile precautions 25. Give one anatomical landmark for needed ventrogluteal injection anterior superior iliac spine 17. 2 contraindications of oral iliac crest medication greater trochanter a. dysphagia b. gastric irritation 26. Position of patient during c. unconscious client ventrogluteal = side lying d. NPO status e. unable to swallow 27. Position of hand during ventrogluteal f. uncooperative client = non dominant, palm rest on g. after oral/gastric surgeries greater trochanter, index finger h. oral cancer towards the anterior superior iliac i. before a schedule major spine, middle finger towards the iliac surgery crest j. excessive vomiting k. poor gag reflex 28. The factor affecting parenteral l. reduced GI motility medication with insulin needle is m. gastric/intestinal injected at 90 degrees to administer obstruction the medication subQ = length of needle 18. Match the ff. situations to the rights of administering medications 29. The scientific principle involved when the nurse holds the hub to 19. Comparing the medication ticket to stabilize the syringe when the the drug 3x = RIGHT DRUG plunger is pulled back to check for blood = PHYSICS 20. Check the vital signs of the client prior to administering the medication 30. The skin layer where the nurse = RIGHT ASSESSMENT places the needle during skin testing = dermis 21. Verify the client’s identity using 2 identifiers = RIGHT PATIENT 31. This is the ideal intramuscular injection site for an infant = vastus 22. Check the order to see how lateralis frequently the medication is to be administered = RIGHT TIME 32. Identify the type of tonicity of PNSS = ISOTONIC 23. Ensuring that the nurse has signed a. Anything above.5 NaCl = on to the MAR form after the hypertonic medication has been administered. = b. Anything below.5 NaCl = RIGHT DOCUMENTATION hypotonic IDENTIFICATION 33. Corners of folded linen that allows automatic positioning of the linens = MAGIC CORNER yellow highlight = answer 34. Refers to the maintaining of cleanliness of one’s body to observe overall health and well-being = HYGIENE 35. A type of massage in which tapping in a rhythmic manner using the tips of fingers or the side of hands using short rapid repetitive movement. = TAPOTEMENT 36. Type of cloth for removing dust or small particles on varnished surfaces = DRY CLEAN CLOTH 37. Type of cloth for removing dust or small particles on unvarnished surfaces = CLEAN DAMP CLOTH 38. Give the equivalency of 1 teaspoon in ml = 5ml 39. Give the equivalency of 1 tablespoon in ml = 15ml yellow highlight = answer MCN TEST DRILL SITUATION: Darla, a high school student, SITUATION: Nurse bruce is assigned to visits School Nurse Piper due to congestive care for Mr. Jefferson, a newly admitted and stabbing pain in the lower abdomen. client with sexual difficulties. She also reports headache and is currently having her monthly menstrual period. 6. Mr. Jefferson experienced a period when his body would not respond to 1. In monitoring Darla’s menstrual sexual stimulation. After the period cycle. Nurse Piper can mark the ff. of restoration. Thus it pertains to as “Day 1” of Darla’s menstrual - refractory period. period. - First day of menses 7. Nurse Bruce conducted health teachings about sexual expression. 2. If darla’s usual menstrual period The sexual expression done through lasts for 30 days, Nurse Piper knows self stimulation or erotic pleasure is that ovulation most likely to occur on called your the - masturbation - 16th day (ovulation) 8. Nurse Bruce discussed previously in 3. Darla demonstrates understanding a different sexual paraphilias.some by answering that the uterine lining of these is the thickest during this phase of the menstrual cycle. 1.sexual arousal objects, situations - proliferative phase or individuals. 2. sexual arousal by looking at another person's body 3. sexual satisfaction by inflicting 4. Darla shares shortly before her pain menstrual start, she begins to 4. sexual arousal involves exposing experience bloating, swelling, the genitals. tenderness of the breast and nausea. Nurse Piper is correct to - D.1234 educate her that the symptoms she experiences are due - to the higher hormone levels before her period. 5. Nurse Piper continues to care for darla, she can prioritize this nursing action - Administer pain reliever as prescribed by the school physician yellow highlight = answer 9. Nurse Bruce is a young adult who 14. Oneida is concerned that her baby lives with his older sister. He is said will have chromosomal or congenital to be sexually healthy when his anomalies upon birth. Harry is sexual experiences mindful that this assessment finding is important in the detection of 1- enables oneself to make a responsible kidney and heart defects sexual decision a. single umbilical artery b. 2 umbilical arteries and 1 2- manifest commitment, caring and self vein disclosure c. hypocoiling of umbilical cord d. hypercoiling of umbilical cord 3- are free from violence, coercion, and discrimination 4- enhance one's personality 15. One of Harry’s patients is a 25 year old pregnant mother admitted for - D. 1234 monitoring of preterm labor contractions. Harry knows that the earliest age at which fetuses can survive upon birth is 10. As a young individual, Bruce is a. 22 weeks aware of his erogenous zone. It is b. 24 weeks best described as the body parts c. 26 weeks that are d. 28 weeks - sexually sensitive and a source of pleasure from. SITUATION: Student Nurse Xiao is preparing for a bench conference on SITUATION: Nurse Harry is assigned to a Responsible Parenthood and Family delivery unit and cares for Oneida, an Planning for a class of first-time parents. expectant mother for a non-stress test. 16. Student Nurse Xiao discusses with 11. Oneida confirms that she the group that the most efficient and understood the health teaching effective birth control method is when she says that quickening a. use of condoms refers to. b. use of pills - Fetal movement felt by the c. correct way of calculating for mother the calendar method d. abstinence 17. SN Xiao reinforces to the group that 12. She can expect to experience family planning focuses on effective quickening at this weeks of and safe methods of birth spacing. pregnancy The appropriate birth space is: - 18 to 20 weeks a. 3-5 years b. yearly age gap c. 1-2 years d. at least 6 years 13. The menstrual period lasted from June 3 to 7, 2023. For EDD is on - March 10th, 2024. yellow highlight = answer 18. The diaphragm is correct used when SITUATION: Maricar is a genetic counselor. a. removed immediately for She is counseling Mr. James, a patient douching suffering from progressive muscle b. left in place for 6 hrs after degeneration due to the alteration of intercourse dystrophin, who is married to Mrs. Neri, a c. spermicidal cream is not genetically healthy woman. needed d. properly positioned for 48 hrs 21. Nurse Maricar informs the couple that the disorder of Mr. James is diaphragm can be left in place for as long as inherited through: 24H a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive 19. Vasectomy can simply be explained c. x-linked dominant to the group by stating that d. x-linked recessive a. vasectomy cuts the tube of your urethra, keeping the sperm out of the semen b. semen in vasectomy 22. Nurse Maricar provides teaching maintains the characteristics regarding the inheritance of the and no change in disorder. This statement meant by organism/ejaculation the couple requires supplemental c. small tubes in the scrotum teaching that carry out sperm are a. only males will have the cut off. so, no sperm can disorder leave the body b. sons of affected man was not d. seminal vesicles are cut to affected prevent the flow of semen to c. males will manifest disease the urethra right away d. sons of unaffected men are not affected 20. The following statements are true on vasectomy, except: a. makes ejaculation difficult due to incision b. same amount of semen will be there but no presence of sperm c. takes at least 3 months after vasectomy when sperm will be absent from the semen d. sperm cells stay in the testicles and are reabsorbed by the body yellow highlight = answer 23. Mr. James is concerned with the 25. As a genetic counselor, Nurse maricar possibilities of him passing the strictly adheres to the legal and ethical disorder to his children. The aspects involving scheduling genetic following depicts the best and counseling. She observe___ the following correct interpretations of the punnett except (which is not a job of a nurse) square basing on the couple’s genetic composition: a. Explaining the entire contents of the inform consents 1 100% chance of female b. Provide the results to the individuals child will carry the disorder concerned as soon as they are ready 2 100% chance that male c. Allows the couple to submit child will carry the disorder themselves willingly d. Presents treatment options to the 3 100% chance that female couple after finding out the result. child will manifest the disorder SITUATION: Nurse Ron is assigned to care for the pregnant women. 4 100% chance that a male child will manifest the 26. Nurse Ron is providing instructions to disorder Letty, a 21 year old pregnant woman scheduled for an amniocentesis. This 5 100% chance that a female instruction should be emphasized to the child will be born healthy patient: 6 100% chance that a male a. ensure a strict bed rest with toilet child will be born healthy privileges after the procedure b. fever is not after the procedure due a. 1,4 to the trauma to the abdomen b. 2,5 c. hospital admission is required for c. 3,6 24hrs after procedure d. 1,6 d. informed consent should be signed prior to the procedure 24. Mrs. Neri asks Nurse Maricar “How many percent chance of our child being a 27. Nurse Ron further discusses with Letty carrier of the disorder ?” The best response the guidelines for performing amniocentesis. is: This statement made by Letty requires further teaching. a. 50% chance b. 100% chance a. i should drink plenty of water c. you need to be more specific before the procedure about question b. i will be positioned on a left side d. does the percentage matter ? lying after the procedure c. i will be positioned in a supine The client should specify first if the child is a position during the amniocentesis male or a female d. ultrasonography will be used simultaneously during amniocentesis yellow highlight = answer 28. Upon history taking, Nurse Ron noted 32. Nurse Sarah is accessing Mercy, a that the pregnant woman has a familial newly admitted pregnant woman due to disorder of 45X0. He is certain that 45X0 is ankle edema. She was able to obtain the also known as: following information: BP of 130/90 mmHg, a. Fragile X Syndrome proteinuria on dipstick. Nurse Sarah’s b. Klinefelter Syndrome priority nursing action is to : c. Turner Syndrome d. Cri-du-Chat Syndrome a. let patient rest comfortably as their results are suspected 29. Nurse Ron informs Letty that all but one b. inflate IV access for fluid are the components of a quadruple marker resuscitation screen: c. inform the physician right away a. alpha fetoprotein d. request the laboratory to obtain b. inhibin A blood sample c. human chorionic gonadotropin d. unconjugated estradiol 33. A patient complaining of backache has been moving irritably from time to time. 30. Letty asks Nurse Ron “ What does the Nurse Sarah’s priority nursing diagnosis is: presence of hCG in my blood indicate ?” Nurse Ron is correct when he mentions that: a. risk for falls b. risk for fall as evidenced by a. indicates fetus has down syndrome altered balance b. indicates fetus has spina bifida c. risk for falls: constantly moving r/t c. indicates that you are about to have shift of the body’s center of gravity a preterm delivery d. risk for falls: constantly moving r/t d. indicates that you are indeed pain sensation on the lower back pregnant SITUATION: Nurse Sarah is a staff nurse in station 4B Station of CDUH. She is assigned to the OB-Gyne ward to take care of ante-natal women. 31. Kelly complains of urinary frequency to Nurse Sarah. All but one are correct interventions performed by Nurse Sarah: a. Perform intermittent catheterization b. Encourage sufficient fluid intake c. Reduce intake of carbonated beverages d. Limit consumption of fluid after dinner yellow highlight = answer 34. Nurse Sarah notices that Thelma, a b. G2 T1 P0 A1 L1 pregnant woman, constantly scratches her c. G3 T1 P1 A0 L1 palms. She suspects palmar erythema. d. G2 T0 P0 A0 L1 Nurse Sarah shows effectiveness in caring for Thelma when she provides the following 37. SN Camille is performing an interventions: assessment of a pregnant client who is at 26 weeks gestation. Camille measures the 1 instructs thelma to avoid heavy scratching fundal height in centimeters and expects to finding to be which of the ff.: 2 trim thelma’s fingernails a. 22 cm 3 encourage oatmeal soak of the hands b. 36 cm c. 28 cm 4 apply chamomile lotion on both hands d. 40 cm a. 1,2 38. SN Camille is to assist the midwife in b. 123 assessing a pregnant client for the presence c. 134 of ballottement. To make this determination, d. 1234 the midwife does the following: 35. Rose’s last bowel movement was 2 a. Auscultates the fetal heart sounds days ago. Nurse Sarah then assesses the b. Assesses the cervix for nutritional intake of Rose prepared by the compressibility dietary department. Upon checking for the c. Palpates the abdomen for fetal food tray, she finds this food most movement concerning: d. Initiates gentle upward tap on the cervix a. bowl of cauliflower b. ½ cup of whole grains 39. SN Camille is performing an c. glass of milk assessment on a primigravida who is being d. peeled orange evaluated in a clinic during her 3rd trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following Milk and dairy products cause constipation indicates an abnormal physical finding that SITUATION: Student Nurse Camille is necessitates further testing: assigned in the CDUH DR a. consistent increase in fundal height 36. Upon collecting the data during an b. fetal heart rate of 120 bpm admission assessment of the pregnant c. quickening mother with twins. The client has a healthy d. nausea and vomiting 5 yr old child who was delivered at 38 weeks and tells the SN that she has a history of abortion. SN Camille would document the GTPAL for the client as: a. G3 T1 P0 A1 L1 yellow highlight = answer 40. SN Camille assists in performing an 42. Susanna coaches the mother as she assessment in pregnant women. The bears down. She is correct to say the following are presumptive signs of following: pregnancy: a. hold your breath for more than 10 1. nausea and vomiting seconds and push continuously 2. braxton hicks contraction when you feel your contractions 3. melasma peak 4. ballottement b. you may look upwards and raise 5. amenorrhea your buttocks when you are about to a. 123 start pushing b. 135 c. wait until you feel the urge to c. 134 push. you may grunt or breath out d. 345 during a pushing effort. d. take shallow breaths between SITUATION: SN Susanna assists in a contractions to prepare yourself for normal spontaneous vaginal delivery for the pushing first time. She applies the concepts that she has learned from her lessons in Maternal 43. Susanna prepares to assist the and Child Nursing. obstetrician during the delivery of the placenta, she observes for the following 41. Susanna is guided by the cardinal signs: movements as she anticipates the delivery of the baby. She is correct to expect the 1. sudden gush of blood events in the following order: 2. lengthening of the umbilical cord 3. placenta is visible at the vaginal 1. fetal head bends forward towards opening the fetal chest 4. boggy uterus 2. fetal head moves downward the a. 1234 pelvic inlet b. 123 3. shoulders rotate externally c. 234 4. part of the fetal head, the face, and d. 23 the chin are born 5. the entire body of the baby is born a. 12345 b. 21435 c. 23145 d. 13245 yellow highlight = answer 44. After the delivery of the placenta, d. midway between symphysis pubis Susanna knows that she can prioritize the and the umbilicus following nursing interventions at this stage: 47. SN Hazel knows that the client is in this 1. assessment of the lochia phase of postpartum psychological 2. checking vital signs every 30 adjustment to motherhood if the client minutes during the first hour needs to focus on her own needs such as 3. assessment of the consistency and sleeping and being dependent on her position of the fundus husband: 4. performing the crede’s maneuver a. 1 2 a. taking hold phase b. 2 3 b. taking in phase c. 1 3 c. letting go phase d. 1234 d. recovery phase SITUATION: SN Hazel is assigned to 48. Mrs. Kelly has shared to SN Hazel that CDUH-OB ward station. Her clinical she is excited to hold and take care of her preceptor is assigned to a number of clients new baby under her care. a. support her by telling her you will 45. Mrs.Kelly, 30 years old and G2P2, take care of her baby for a short time delivered her baby via NSVD and on her 12 b. help her as she bathes and hours postpartum. During her assessment, changes the diaper of her baby the client’s uterus is firm, contracting well c. encourage her to take as much and the uterine fundus is located at: sleep as she can recover d. tell her to choose their baby’s name a. the pelvic cavity can be palpated as soon as possible b. midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus 49. SN Hazel is going to record the lochia c. about the level of the umbilicus findings of Mrs. Rosell during her 48 hrs d. 5 fingerbreadths below the level of postpartum period. The amount and color of the umbilicus her lochia is: 46. SN Hazel assessment on Mrs. Rosell, a. dark or bright red blood in heavy 32 years old who delivered her baby girl via flow NSVD, is that her uterus is firm and b. white cream colored and scanty in contracting well on her second day amount postpartum. The location of the uterine c. pinking brown with lighter flow fundus must be: d. yellowish white discharge in scanty flow a. 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus b. about the level of the umbilicus c. at the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated yellow highlight = answer 50. SN Hazel is assessing the lochia of Mrs. 54. Nurse E should prepare calcium Rosell and she notes that the lochia is dark gluconate on Mrs. F bedside, This drug is red and has a foul smelling odor. This classified assessment finding indicates that: a. Antibiotics a. need for increased ambulation b. Anticonvulsant b. ongoing infectious process c. Antihypertensive c. need to increase coffee intake d. antidote d. normal output 55. Early signs of magnesium sulfate SITUATION: Mrs. F is diagnosed with toxicity include the following; eclampsia 1. Nausea 51. Upon assessment Mrs. F manifested 2. hyporeflexia the following sign and symptoms 3. Muscle weakness 4. Slurred speech 1. BP of 160/100mmHg a. 1,4 2. Proteinuria b. 123 3. Edema c. 134 4. glycosuria d. 1234 a. 12 b. 123 SITUATION: Hemolysis, elevated enzymes c. 124 and low platelet count syndrome is a d. 1234 complication during pregnancy 52. Having diagnosed of eclampsia, Mrs. F 56. The liver enzymes in HELLP syndrome is given magnesium sulfate to: increase which may indicate; a. Decrease blood pressure a. Hypertension b. Prevent seizure b. Infection c. Prevent bleeding c. Immobility d. Decreased sugar levels d. Bleeding 53. Nurse E’s responsibility to clients taking Liver is responsible for the production of magnesium sulfate like Mrs. F aware blocking factors. 1. Check deep tendon reflexes 57. Nursing care of clients with HELLP 2. Monitor urinary output syndrome includes: 3. Daily perinea;l care 4. Monitor bleeding A. Assist in blood transfusion A. 1 only B. Assist in blood transfusion with fresh B. 12 whole blood C. 123 C. Instruct to increase fluid intake D. 1234 D. Promote increase mobility yellow highlight = answer 58. HELLP syndrome is called a syndrome d. Pinkish because it is a group of 63. Mrs. Y. RH negative. If enough RH a. Complications positive fetal blood enters her circulation, it b. Disorders may cause; c. Sign and symptoms d. Infection a. Isoimmunization b. Fetalis complication 59. Clients with HELLP syndrome are c. Erythroblastosis fetalis transfused with d. Neonatal infection a. Fresh whole blood 64. An indication that a pregnant client is b. Frozen platelet having an infection is the presence of; c. Fresh platelet d. Frozen plasma a. Increased body temperature b. Muscle spasms 60. The live enzymes that increase during c. Headache the HELLP syndrome include: d. Decrease appetite 1. Alanine aminotransferase 65. After the birth of the baby, clients who 2. Aspartate aminotransferase had placenta previa are at risk of having: 3. Estrogen 4. Trans amino acids 1. Postpartum hemorrhage a. 1,2 2. Endometritis b. 2,3 3. postpartum hemorrhage c. 123 4. Severe headache d. 1234 a. 1 only b. 1,2 SITUATION; Nurse A assigned to mrs. X, c. 123 20 weeks pregnant with a diagnosis of d. 1234 hydatidiform mole SITUATION; A case of Mrs. P. 36 weeks 61. In hydatidiform mole, the bleeding AOG, G3 T2 P1 A0 L2, was admitted to occurs during the: CDUH labor room (LR) due to uterine contractions and premature rupture a. First trimester membrane. Upon assessment fetal b. Second trimester monitoring indicates bradycardia on late c. Third trimester deceleration, and a vaginal exam shows a d. Anytime during pregnancy shiny whitish object near the vaginal opening with a cervical dilation of 5cm. 62.bleeding in hydatidiform mole described as: 66. Nurse O knows when late deceleration occurs, this indicates; a. Bright red b. Brick red a. A normal finding does not need c. Brownish urgent incision yellow highlight = answer b. A reverse reaction that happens b. Alleviate anxiety during the period of uterine c. Provide adequate oxygenation to contraction both mother and fetus c. Insufficiency low fetal blood d. Enhance knowledge of childbirth and oxygen to the fetus relaxation d. A sign for cesarean delivery SITUATION: Nurse T is assigned in Mactan 67. In repositioning Mrs. P, the appropriate doctors hospital (MDH) delivery room position with her current condition is; 71.Nurse T is aware that the ideal a. Reverse trendelenburg position presentation of the fetus for delivery would b. Modified sims position be: c. Semi-fowler's position with a pillow in between legs a. Right Occipto-posterior d. Lithotomy position b. Left Occipito-posterior c. Occipito-anterior 68. Mrs. P asked nurse O if she and her d. Vertex baby would make it through. Nurse O’s best response would be; 72. In the malpresentation of the fetus, the presentation that can deliver the fetus a. You need not to worry, everything vaginally is: will be okay b. Let me get back to you in a while a. Complete breech presentation c. I will just be doing further tests and b. Frank breech presentation evaluation c. Brow presentation d. Would you like to tell me more d. Transverse lie about what has been bothering? 73. A client is about to deliver a baby. Nurse 69. The best nursing diagnosis for Mrs. P is; T noticed that the baby’s head retracted back to the mothers vagina. The sign a. Impaired parenting related to lack of indicates; family support and resources during pregnancy a. Breech presentation b. Anxiety related to the unknown b. Transverse lie outcome of pregnancy c. Shoulder dystocia c. Impaired tissue integrity related to d. Dysfunctional labor trauma sustained during delivery d. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to 74. A medical management that insufficient blood flow to the fetus purposefully breaks that clavicle of the baby secondary to umbilical cord to facilitate vaginal birth is known as; compression. a. Jacquemier's maneuver 70. The goal of care that the nurse O must b. Mcroberts maneuver attain Mrs. P would be; c. Huntington's procedure d. Cleidotomy a. Promote comfort and relief pain yellow highlight = answer 75. A mother delivered a baby with face 79. At the start of the shift, one of the presentation through normal spontaneous newborns experienced an apneic episode. vaginal delivery. Nurse T expects the Nurse Ae anticipates top first prepare: mother will acquire the ff problems. a. Overhead warming equipment a. Cervical swelling and third-fourth b. Supplemental oxygen and degree perineal laceration resuscitation equipment b. Facial ecchymosis and sucking c. A bottle of formula feeding problems d. Surfactant administration c. Urinary and fecal incontinence d. Urinary bladder and cervical 80. One of the neonates recently delivered laceration through forceps-assisted delivery exhibits a pronounced swelling of the scalp. Nurse Ae SITUATION: Nurse Ae is assigned at the understand that; nursery during the AM shift where he cares for various neonates a. The swelling subside without treatment 76. Baby B was delivered at 33 weeks of b. He must immediately consult the gestation. Nurse Ae knows that the child's physician following are typical assessment findings for c. The child must be closely monitored infants born at this age of gestation: for projectile vomiting d. The frequency of breastfeeding must a. Fully developed lungs and normal be increased body proportions b. Inability to regulate body SITUATION: Nurse Cee is assigned at the temperature, immature lungs, neonatal intensive care unit. She cares for undeveloped reflexes various high risk newborns on the morning c. Fully develop reflexes and ability to shift sucka and swallow d. Mature kidneys and well coordinated 81. Nurse Cee assesses a recently movements delivered preterm newborn and notes that the baby is exhibiting tachypnea and chest 77. Upon caring for Baby B, Nurse Ae attractions. She knows that preterm ensures that he prioritizes the following newborns with this finding may be at risk for intervention developing this complication. a. Immediate initiation of breastfeeding a. Meconium aspiration syndrome b. Prone placement in the bassinet b. Apnea of prematurity c. Maintaining thermoregulation c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Administration of high flow oxygen d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia 78. Meonwk blurry sama sa akong feelings para niya yellow highlight = answer 82. Cee observes an expiratory grunt in the SITUATION: Nurse Cee is a newly hired infant and greenish staining on the nurse assigned in the nursery. She prepares newborn's skin. She prepares to do the care plans for the neonates under her care; following 86. While caring for the neonate with a a. Suctioning of the mouth , nose, suspected congenital heart defect. Nurse and posterior pharynx dee knows that the following clinical b. Endotracheal intubation manifestations might suggest a cyanotic c. Administration of oxygen therapy congenital heart disease; d. Exogenous surfactant administration a. Increased pulmonary blood flow 83. Nurse Cee prepares a care plan for a b. Heart murmur with peripheral neonate with an increased RBC count. She cyanosis knows that this neonate is most at risk for c. Decreased pulmonary blood flow the following: with acyanotic presentation d. Increased oxygen saturation levels a. Fluid volume deficit after birth b. Thrombosis c. Infection 87. Nurse dee determines that the following d. Imbalanced nutrition clinical finding is consistent with pulmonary hypertension of the newborn: 84. Nurse Cee prepares to administer vitamin k parenterally to a preterm neonate. a. Cyanosis that worsens with She is correct to prepare this amount: crying b. Elevated oxygen saturation in a. 0.1 ml preductal sites b. 0.01ml c. Left to right shunting of blood in the c. 0.5 ml heart d. 0.05 ml d. Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance 85. Cee takes the vital signs of another preterm infant and observes that the infant 88. Dee receives a neonate born at 37 seems to stop breathing for more than 20 weeks of gestation with a birth weight of 8 seconds. Upon further observation, she lbs. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the noticed a decrease in the infant's heart and baby's condition is. bluish discoloration of the skin. This is a nursing priority for this infant: a. Risk for injury related to hyperactivity b. Risk for infection related to altered a. Encouraging frequent handling and immune response stimulation c. Risk for impaired gas exchange b. Administering a sedative medication related to respiratory distress c. Document the finding as periodic d. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: breathing less than body requirements d. Providing continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) yellow highlight = answer 89. In order to prevent complications for the 92. A preterm infant has been diagnosed neonate. Dee prioritizes this nursing with hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy. intervention in her plan of care Nurse Fe is correct to trace the etiology of the etiology of the condition to the following: a. Routinely assess neuromuscular development and reflexes a. Maternal caffeine consumption b. Initiate early and frequent b. Perinatal asphyxia feedings soon after birth c. Genetic predisposition c. Rapid administration of oral glucose d. Neonatal hyperthermia feedings during the first hour of life d. Provide oxygen therapy 93. Nurse Fe conducts a health teaching for parents caring for their neonate who has 90. As Dee prepares to feed a preterm experienced seizures. The following infant, a mother has stopped by the NICU to statement made by the parents indicates a visit her child. It is appropriate for Nurse dee need for further teaching: to: a. We will ensure our baby gets a. Gently inform the mother to visit the enough sleep, as lack of sleep can following day when the neonatal vital trigger seizures signs are more stable b. We should immediately feed our b. Let the mother to visit the child baby when she starts seizing shortly after the gavage feeding c. We will make sure to turn our baby c. Allow the mother to interact and to the side during a seizure to hold the child before beginning prevent choking the feeding d. We need to report any changes in d. Wait for the approval of the seizure activity to our healthcare pediatrician before letting the mother provider in the nursery 94. A neonate is suspected for neonatal SITUATION: Nurse Fe cares for different sepsis. Nurse Fe knows that she ought to high risk infants who have been admitted in prepare the infant for the ff diagnostic tests the neonatal intensive care unit - C. 345 91. Nurse fe is caring for a preterm neonate at risk for retinopathy of prematurity (ROP). 95. As nurse fee cares for a preterm infant the following actions should be part of her with necrotizing enterocolitis. She is keen to nursing care plan: add following to her nursing care plan. a. Administer daily vitamin A a. Routinely measure the abdominal supplements girth b. Maintain high flow oxygenation b. Monitor regular oral feedings c. Limit exposure to bright lights c. Change diapers frequently d. implement strict fluid restriction d. Position the child on prone position yellow highlight = answer SITUATION: Zach, a 4 week old infant was c. The condition is autosomal brought to CDUH ER. Upon interview, the recessive. This would mean, you are mother verbalized that the child was born at the carrier of this condition 30 weeks. During the assessment, the d. A Streptococcal infection damaged infant is febrile, poor appetite, and the bronchioles in this lungs occasionally exhibits breathing cessation, which made her anxious. He vital signs are 99. Nurse Aiza intervened with the mother as follows, RR 60 bpm, HR 160 bpm, temp who continuously gave water to zach and 38, O2 sat 89%. adjusted the flow rate of the IVF line. The action of the nurse is: 96. Nurse aizas goal of care for zach would be: a. Correct, fluid restriction must be observed to reduce the amount of a. Decrease body temperature of zach fluid in their lungs. b. Pacify zach’s mother while he is on b. Correct. The mother is not allowed treatment to regulate IVF for the patient c. Maintain zach’s ventilation and c. Correct. The patient is for the maximizes his oxygenation surgical opening of the trachea d. Continuously monitor zach’s d. Incorrect. Hydration is necessary condition and vital signs. since zach is febrile 97. Zach has been diagnosed with 100. Health teaching in caring for zach is to bronchopulmonary dysplasia. The be reinforced by nurse a non-modifiable cause of zach’s conditions is: Aiza. This includes: a. Respiratory rate 45 bpm 1. People with respiratory infections b. Breathing cessation during sleep must not come close to zach. c. Poor appetite 2. Family member must be vaccinated d. Prematurity at birth against flu 3. Strict hand hygiene must be 98. The mother asked nurse Aiza the cause observed of Zach's condition. Nurse aiza’s best 4. Support groups and schedules for response would be: outpatient therapies must be observed a. Early delivery of the child is the main a. 3,1,4 cause of this condition b. 1,2,3 b. When the child was born c. 1,2 prematurely, their lungs were d. All of the above undeveloped. The use of oxygen to help them breath could have harmed their lungs during the process yellow highlight = answer MCN RLE Q9- It is the type of heat application for perilite exposure: Directions:Refer to the test paper for the Answer: Dry Heat questions and be guided by questions (Q) Example of dry heat: number. Access the Celo+ quiz tab to input Perlite exposure & Hot water bath your answer. Click hints as appropriate. Example of moist heat: Sitz bath & Hot compress Cebu Doctors' University College of Nursing Mandaue City Q10- The appropriate distance of the heat MCN RLE Test lamp from the mother's perineum during September 27, 2023 perilite exposure: Answer: 18-24 inches Directions: Refer to the test paper for the Q11- The type of heat transfer applied in questions and be guided by question (Q) perilite exposure: number. Access the Celo+ quiz tab to input Answer: Radiation your answer. Click hints as appropriate. Q12- The position of the client during perilite exposure: TEST I. IDENTIFICATION Answer: Dorsal Recumbent Q1- Indicate the range of the normal heart Q13- The phenomenon that occurs at the rate in newborns: time when the maximum therapeutic effect Answer: 120-160 beats per minute of the hot application is achieved, and the Q2- Indicate the range of the normal opposite effect begins: respiratory rate in newborns: Answer: Rebound phenomenon or effect Answer: 30-60 breaths per minute Examples: Q3- The amount (in milliliters) of Hepatitis B Heat application=vasoconstriction vaccine administered to the newborn: leads to burn Answer: 0.5 mL Cold application= alternating of Q4. The amount (in milliliters) of Vitamin K vasodilation and vasoconstriction administered to a full-term newborn: Answer: 0.1 mL Q14- The breastfeeding position shown in Q5- This maneuver is done by applying the picture: pressure on the perineum to facilitate delivery of the fetal head: Answer: Ritgen’s Maneuver Q6- The maneuver which is done by applying gentle pressure on the contracted uterine fundus during placental delivery: Answer: Crede's Maneuver Q7- The APGAR score is given to a newborn whose whole body appears pale: Answer: 0 Q8- The APGAR score given to a newborn Answer: Football Hold with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute: Answer: 2 Below 100 the score is 1 yellow highlight = answer Q15- The breastfeeding position shown in Q25-Identify surgical reopening shown in the picture: the picture: Answer: DEHISCENCE Answer: Cross Cradle Hold -a surgery complication where the incision, a cut made during a Q16- It is the gelatinous connective tissue surgical procedure, reopens. that is found in the umbilical cord: Answer: Wharton’s Jelly EVISCERATION: Q17- Special kind of feeding for infants with -occurs when an internal bodily cleft lip and cleft palate: organ protrudes through the incision. Answer: Brecht Feeding Q18- Identify the type of diet prescribed for Q26- Identify the urgency of the surgery clients with constipation: needed for the cases below: Answer: High Residue or High Fiber Diet Ruptured Appendicitis Q19-Depth of compressions given to an Answer: Emergent adult upon doing CPR: Cataract Answer: 2 inches or 5 sm Answer: Elective Q20-The thinning, softening, and shortening Q27-Name the grasping instrument shown: of the cervix in preparation for delivery: Answer: Cervical Effacement or Cervical Ripening Q21- Normal duration of labor contractions during the ACTIVE PHASE of labor: Answer: 40-60 seconds Q22- Term referring to the time from the start of one contraction to the start of the next contraction: Answer: Frequency Q23- This refers to the period beginning immediately after birth until six weeks: Answer: Postpartum Period or Answer: Babcock Forcep Puerperium For grasping of soft tissues Q24- It refers to involuntary urination or loss of bladder control: Answer: Urinary Incontenence yellow highlight = answer Answer: False-start from the back and sweeps in front Q36-It is right to do a blind finger sweep. When the client to ducking blind finger Answer: False Q37- Enteral feeding refers to the method of delivering nutrition directly into one's stomach. Answer: True Answer: Allis Tissue Forcep Q38- A low purine diet is prescribed to W/ sharp teeth for firm tissue patients with kidney stones. Answer: True Q28- Give the classification of the following Q39- The DAT diet can include plain white instruments: crackers with applesauce. Mosquito Forcep Answer: True Answer: Occluding or Clamping Q40-A nurse stops performing CPR when Kelly Straight the scene becomes unsafe. Answer: Occluding or Clamping Answer: True Q41- During a Heimlich maneuver, the TEST II. TRUE OR FALSE nurse places her clenched fist on the lowest Q29 - The perfect score for APGAR is 15. rib of the client. Answer: False=10 Answer: False-sternum Q30- The 2nd APGAR is performed at the Q42- Pregnant women are contraindicated 10th minute of life. to perform Heimlich maneuver. Answer: False=5 minute Answer: True Q31- After gowning and gloving, the handle Q43-The medulla oblongata is the primary nurse can assist in tying the gowns of the respiratory control center. physician. Answer: True Answer: False Q44- The normal range for oxygen Q32- The newborn will be given formula saturation is 98-100%. milk if the mother undergoes chemotherapy. Answer: False-95% to 100% Answer: True Q33- The DASH diet can include fat-free TEST III. ENUMERATION dairy products. Q45- Two confirmatory signs that a patient Answer: True is choking: Q34- When a client uses a clock face technique, he must reach slowly in small Inability to cough circular motions when locating a Inability to speak dish/utensil. Inability to breath Answer: True Q35- True labor contractions normally begin in the lower segment of the uterus, sweeping upwards. yellow highlight = answer yellow highlight = answer prenatal visits with Patrice. Nurse Luciana MCN SERIES TEST 1 identifies Kyle's actions as common during: Cebu Doctors' University College of Nursing Mandaue City, Philippines A. 10-12 weeks pregnancy. Competency Appraisal 1 B. 18-20 weeks pregnancy. MCN Test 1 C. 24-26 weeks pregnancy. D. 32-34 weeks pregnancy. Direction: You are given four (4) alternatives for shading the letter corresponding to your choice RATIONALE: The man feels left standing on the side of the pregnant woman to compensate he SITUATION: Nurse Luciana is counseling a becomes overly absorbed to produce first-A pregnant mother with her husband. something. 1. Patrice informs Nurse Luciana that she is 4. Nurse Luciana is correct in providing the having mixed emotions of wanting and not following information to the couple regarding the wanting the pregnancy. Nurse Luciana is correct ideal prenatal schedule except: when she responds: A. Is this pregnancy unplanned?" A. A total of 6 visits during the first and second B. A child is a blessing, you should be grateful." trimesters. C. “It is normal to feel that way.” B. Two-week interval through 36th weeks of D. "What made you say that?" gestation. C. A total of 5 prenatal visits from 26th to RATIONALE: 36th weeks gestation. Patrice is experiencing ambivalence, the D. Every week until the delivery. state of having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or 5. Kyle reports to Nurse Luciana that he has someone. Experienced during the first been vomiting, having backache and feels his trimester. abdomen growing. Nurse Luciana identifies Acknowledge first then explore more these signs and symptoms as Couvade later on. Syndrome. All but one are correct information about this syndrome: 2. Nurse Luciana counsels the couple about their home situation. She identifies these events A. These are unhealthy happenings that may contribute to difficulty accepting the B. Couvade many happenings "to hatch" in pregnancy. French C. Kyle may experience more than Patrice 1. Pregnancy is unintended. D. The more Kyle is involved in the changes 2. Illness of a relative during pregnancy, the more symptoms are 3. Partner's infidelity experienced. 4. Multiple gestation RATIONALE: Couvade syndrome is a A. 1,2,3 psychosomatic disorder, meaning the feelings of B. 2,3,4 anxiety and depression manifest physically. The C. 1,3,4 most common physical symptoms are nausea, D. 1,2,3,4 vomiting, heartburn, changes in appetite, toothache, weight gain, food cravings, diarrhea, 3. Kyle, Patrice's husband, has been working for and even abdominal pain. longer hours than usual. He has been missing t yellow highlight = answer SITUATION: Nurse X is caring for postpartum RATIONALE: Except number 4, because the clients with episiotomy wounds in CDUH-OB. nurse should return 15 minutes after starting the therapy 6. Client S is for perilite exposure. Nurse X knows that the following are local effects of heat SITUATION: Nurse Janie, who is working in a application: barangay health center is teaching mothers about breastfeeding and cord dressing. 1. promotes soft tissue healing 2. increases capillary permeability 8. The best nipple suitable for breastfeeding is: 3. lowers the temperature of the skin A. Inverted 4. Provide comfort and relief B. Flat C. Everted A. 1,2,3 D. Puffy B. 1,2 C. 2,3 10. The hormone responsible for the production D. 3, 4 of milk: A. Colostrum RATIONALE: 3 & 4 are local effects of cold B. Prolactin application C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin-Ejection of milk 7. Nurse X remembers to take precautions in the use of heat application may be applied to these SITUATION: Nurse Amy is a community nurse conditions: in Barangay Tipolo, Mandaue City. She is 1. neurosensory impairment conducting prenatal visits to pregnant women in 2. Impaired mental status the community. 3. impaired circulation 4. immediately after injury 11. Nurse Amy provides health teaching to pregnant women regarding the fetal skull. She A. 1,2 emphasizes that these fetal bones are important B. 1,2,3 during childbirth except: C. 2,3,4 A. Frontal D. 1,2,3,4 B. Parietal C. Occipital 8. The following are guidelines for heat D Temporal application: RATIONALE: Temporal lobe has a little 1. determine the client's ability to tolerate the significance because it is not a presenting part. therapy. 2. assess the skin area to which the heat will be 12. A pregnant woman asks Nurse Amy "What is applied. the best position of the fetal skull to fit through 3. ask the client to report any discomfort. the inlet of the birth canal?" Nurse Amy is 4. return to the client 30 minutes after starting correct when she responds: the therapy. A "A fetus must present the transverse A. 1,2,3 diameter of the head to the diagonal B. 2,3 conjugate." C. 2,3,4 B. "A fetus must present the anteroposterior D. 1,2,3,4 diameter of the head to the diagonal conjugate." yellow highlight = answer C. "A fetus must present the transverse diameter D. Psyche of the head to the ischial tuberosity." D. "A fetus must present the anteroposterior SITUATION: Nurse Thelma is a Delivery Room diameter of the head to the Ischial tuberosity." Nurse at Cebu North General Hospital. She is caring for Perry, a 34th-week pregnant woman in 13. Nurse Amy enumerates the complication if a premature labor fetus presents one of the anteroposterior diameters of the fetal skull to the anteroposterior 17 Nurse Thelma informs Perry that the most diameter of the inlet. A pregnant woman shows frequent and the best type of fetal presentation an understanding of the teaching when she is: mentions this complication: A. Transverse A. Arrest of the labor process B. Breech B. Engagement may not occur C. Shoulder C. Maternal pain and hemorrhage D. Vertex D. Fetal lung distress 18. Nurse Thelma further teaches Perry the 14. Nurse Amy is evaluating her teaching most common fetal position. Perry is correct regarding molding. This statement made by the when she mentions: pregnant woman indicates the effectiveness of teaching except: A. Left occiput anterior B. Left occiput posterior A Molding is the overlapping of skull bones C. Right occiput anterior along the suture lines. D. Right occiput posterior chin B. This process usually lasts a week to complete. 19. Nurse Thelma assesses the knowledge of C. Newborns born by cesarean birth when there Perry regarding mentum presentation. This is no labor also typically have no molding. statement made by Perry depicts good D. There is a little molding when the brow is the understanding: presenting part. A. The head is only moderately flexed." 15. If the fetal head is held in moderate flexion, B. "The head is sharply flexed." the occipitofrontal diameter presents. If the head C. The head is extended." is hyperextended, the largest diameter will D. "The head is hyperextended." present. 20. Upon palpation, Nurse Thelma finds out that A. Only the first statement is correct. the fetus is in a transverse presentation. B. Only the second statement is correct. Ultrasound of the abdomen indicates that the C. Both statements are correct fetus is smaller than usual, Nurse Thelma's D. Both statements are incorrect. priority action is to: 16. Nurse Amy emphasizes that a fetus' A. administer 2L/min of oxygen via nasal prong. appropriate size and advantageous position and B. Inform the physician of the findings. presentation play a vital role in labor and C. perform an external fetal version. delivery. She identifies this component of labor: D. prepare the mother for cesarean section A. Passage 21. Further assessment reveals that the fetus is B. Passenger in occipitoposterior position. To facilitate the C. Power change of fetal position to an occipitoanterior yellow highlight = answer position, Nurse Thelma encourages Perry to 25. Nurse Eiko recalls the factors that may position on: initiate spontaneous labor. These would include