PPA II SI: Exam 2 Review PDF

PPA II SI: Exam 2 Review Chris Cavaliere and David Flynn 3.1 Module 3.1 Select the correctly matched answer choice: A. Epinephrine: Intracellular receptors: Fast transmission B. Testosterone: Intracellular receptors: Slow transmission C. Cortisol: Intracellular receptors: Slow transmission D. Glucagon: Extracellular receptors: Fast transmission Module 3.1 Select the correctly matched answer choice: A. Epinephrine: Intracellular receptors: Fast transmission B. Testosterone: Intracellular receptors: Slow transmission C. Cortisol: Intracellular receptors: Slow transmission D. Glucagon: Extracellular receptors: Fast transmission Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: A, C A (Correct): Epinephrine acts via G-protein-coupled intracellular receptors. B (Incorrect): Insulin acts via an enzyme-linked extracellular receptors. C (Correct): Cortisol, a steroid hormone, acts through intracellular receptors. D (Incorrect): Glucagon transmission is relatively slow. Module 3.1 Which hormoneS are secreted by the posterior pituitary? Which hormoneS are secreted by the anterior pituitary? A. Growth hormone (GH) B. Oxytocin C. ACTH D. Prolactin E. AVP Module 3.1 Which hormoneS are secreted by the posterior pituitary? Which hormoneS are secreted by the anterior pituitary? A. Growth hormone (GH) - Anterior pituitary B. Oxytocin - Posterior pituitary C. ACTH - Anterior pituitary D. Prolactin - Anterior pituitary E. AVP - Posterior pituitary Module 3.1 Which of the following hormones is hydrophilic? A. Testosterone B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. Estradiol Module 3.1 Which of the following hormones is hydrophilic? A. Testosterone B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. Estradiol Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Testosterone is lipophilic. B (Correct): Insulin is a peptide hormone and hydrophilic. C (Incorrect): Cortisol is a lipophilic steroid hormone. D (Incorrect): Estradiol is a lipophilic steroid hormone. Module 3.1 What is the primary mechanism of steroid hormone action? A. Binding to cell surface receptors B. Binding to nuclear receptors C. Activating G-protein coupled receptors D. Opening ion channels STOP HERE FOR LIVE REVIEW Module 3.1 What is the primary mechanism of steroid hormone action? A. Binding to cell surface receptors B. Binding to nuclear receptors C. Activating G-protein coupled receptors D. Opening ion channels Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Steroid hormones do not bind to cell surface receptors. B (Correct): Steroid hormones bind intracellular nuclear receptors to regulate gene expression. C (Incorrect): Steroid hormones do not use GPCRs. D (Incorrect): Ion channel activation is not their mechanism. Module 3.1 Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A. Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. T3 Module 3.1 Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A. Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. T3 Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Epinephrine is from the adrenal medulla. B (Correct): Insulin is secreted by the pancreas. C (Incorrect): Cortisol is from the adrenal cortex. D (Incorrect): T3 is from the thyroid gland. Module 3.1 Which hormone is transported by SHBG? A. Insulin B. Testosterone C. Cortisol D. Aldosterone Module 3.1 Which hormone is transported by SHBG? A. Insulin B. Testosterone C. Cortisol D. Aldosterone Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Insulin is not transported by SHBG. B (Correct): Testosterone binds to sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). C (Incorrect): Cortisol binds to CBG. D (Incorrect): Aldosterone does not use SHBG Module 3.1 What is the function of gastrin? A. Stimulates bile secretion B. Stimulates gastric acid secretion C. Inhibits gastric motility D. Stimulates insulin secretion Module 3.1 What is the function of gastrin? A. Stimulates bile secretion B. Stimulates gastric acid secretion C. Inhibits gastric motility D. Stimulates insulin secretion Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Gastrin does not stimulate bile. B (Correct): Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion. C (Incorrect): It increases gastric motility. D (Incorrect): Gastrin does not stimulate insulin Module 3.1 Which hormone is released from the anterior pituitary? A. ACTH B. Oxytocin C. ADH D. Epinephrine Module 3.1 Which hormone is released from the anterior pituitary? A. ACTH B. Oxytocin C. ADH D. Epinephrine 3.2 Module 3.2 What hormone is stimulated by CRH from the hypothalamus? A. ACTH B. TSH C. Prolactin D. LH Module 3.2 What hormone is stimulated by CRH from the hypothalamus? A. ACTH B. TSH C. Prolactin D. LH Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: A A (Correct): CRH stimulates ACTH secretion, which in turn regulates cortisol production. B (Incorrect): TSH is stimulated by TRH, not CRH. C (Incorrect): Prolactin is primarily inhibited by dopamine. D (Incorrect): LH is stimulated by GnRH. Module 3.2 Which pituitary hormone has a structure similar to LH and FSH? A. ACTH B. Prolactin C. TSH D. GH Module 3.2 Which pituitary hormone has a structure similar to LH and FSH? A. ACTH B. Prolactin C. TSH D. GH Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: C A (Incorrect): ACTH is a peptide hormone, structurally different from LH and FSH. B (Incorrect): Prolactin does not share structural similarities. C (Correct): TSH shares the same α-subunit as LH and FSH. D (Incorrect): GH is a protein hormone. Module 3.2 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A. ACTH increasing cortisol secretion B. High cortisol levels suppressing ACTH release C. High glucose stimulating insulin secretion D. LH surge stimulating ovulation Module 3.2 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A. ACTH increasing cortisol secretion B. High cortisol levels suppressing ACTH release C. High glucose stimulating insulin secretion D. LH surge stimulating ovulation Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): ACTH stimulating cortisol is a direct action, not feedback. B (Correct): High cortisol levels inhibit ACTH secretion, a classic negative feedback loop. C (Incorrect): This is an example of product regulation, not feedback. D (Incorrect): This is an example of positive feedback Module 3.2 Which condition is caused by primary hyposecretion of a hormone? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Addison’s disease C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Gigantism STOP HERE FOR LIVE REVIEW Module 3.2 Which condition is caused by primary hyposecretion of a hormone? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Addison’s disease C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Gigantism Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: B A (Incorrect): Type 2 diabetes is due to insulin resistance, not hyposecretion. B (Correct): Primary hyposecretion of cortisol leads to Addison’s disease. C (Incorrect): Cushing’s syndrome is due to excess cortisol. D (Incorrect): Gigantism is caused by excess GH. Module 3.2 Which hormone is an example of product regulation? A. Insulin B. ACTH C. LH D. TRH Module 3.2 Which hormone is an example of product regulation? A. Insulin B. ACTH C. LH D. TRH Explanation of prior question Correct Answer: A A (Correct): Insulin is regulated by blood glucose levels, an example of product regulation. B (Incorrect): ACTH follows feedback control, not product regulation. C (Incorrect): LH is regulated by GnRH. D (Incorrect): TRH regulates TSH secretion. Module 3.2 Which anterior pituitary hormone is unique in that its secretion is primarily inhibited rather than stimulated? A. TSH B. ACTH C. GH D. Prolactin Module 3.2 Which anterior pituitary hormone is unique in that its secretion is primarily inhibited rather than stimulated? A. TSH B. ACTH C. GH D. Prolactin Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): TSH is stimulated by TRH. B (Incorrect): ACTH is stimulated by CRH. C (Incorrect): GH is stimulated by GHRH, though it has inhibitory control from somatostatin. D (Correct): Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion, making it unique among pituitary hormones. Module 3.2 Which hormone is most directly responsible for negative feedback inhibition of GnRH? A. Testosterone B. Inhibin C. LH D. Cortisol Module 3.2 Which hormone is most directly responsible for negative feedback inhibition of GnRH? A. Testosterone B. Inhibin C. LH D. Cortisol Explanation of prior question A (Correct): Testosterone inhibits GnRH and LH/FSH secretion. B (Incorrect): Inhibin mainly inhibits FSH, not GnRH. C (Incorrect): LH is regulated by GnRH, not the other way around. D (Incorrect): Cortisol is part of the HPA axis, not the HPG axis. Module 3.2 A patient with excessive GH secretion due to a pituitary tumor is most likely to experience which of the following? A. Increased IGF-1 levels B. Decreased glucose production C. Decreased bone growth D. Increased sensitivity to insulin Module 3.2 A patient with excessive GH secretion due to a pituitary tumor is most likely to experience which of the following? A. Increased IGF-1 levels B. Decreased glucose production C. Decreased bone growth D. Increased sensitivity to insulin Explanation of prior question A (Correct): GH stimulates IGF-1 production from the liver, promoting growth. B (Incorrect): GH increases glucose production (gluconeogenesis). C (Incorrect): GH promotes bone growth. D (Incorrect): GH induces insulin resistance, not increased sensitivity. Module 3.2 What effect would a tumor that secretes excess prolactin have on gonadal function? A. Increased testosterone secretion B. Increased LH and FSH secretion C. Decreased GnRH release D. Increased spermatogenesis Module 3.2 What effect would a tumor that secretes excess prolactin have on gonadal function? A. Increased testosterone secretion B. Increased LH and FSH secretion C. Decreased GnRH release D. Increased spermatogenesis Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Prolactin suppresses GnRH, reducing testosterone. B (Incorrect): GnRH suppression decreases LH and FSH. C (Correct): High prolactin inhibits GnRH, leading to low LH/FSH and reduced gonadal function. D (Incorrect): Lower LH/FSH leads to decreased spermatogenesis. Module 3.2 Patient case questions… Module 3.2 A 45-year-old male presents with progressive fatigue, muscle weakness, and unintentional weight loss over the past six months. Physical examination reveals hyperpigmentation of the skin, particularly on the elbows and oral mucosa. Laboratory tests show low cortisol, high ACTH, and hyponatremia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing’s Syndrome B. Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency C. Addison’s Disease D. Hyperaldosteronism Module 3.2 A 45-year-old male presents with progressive fatigue, muscle weakness, and unintentional weight loss over the past six months. Physical examination reveals hyperpigmentation of the skin, particularly on the elbows and oral mucosa. Laboratory tests show low cortisol, high ACTH, and hyponatremia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing’s Syndrome B. Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency C. Addison’s Disease D. Hyperaldosteronism Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Cushing’s syndrome presents with excess cortisol, not low cortisol and hyperpigmentation. B (Incorrect): Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by low ACTH, whereas this patient has high ACTH. C (Correct): Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) causes low cortisol, high ACTH, skin hyperpigmentation, and hyponatremia due to aldosterone deficiency. D (Incorrect): Hyperaldosteronism typically presents with hypertension and hypokalemia, not hyponatremia and hyperpigmentation. Module 3.2 A 33-year-old female presents with weight gain, thinning of the skin, easy bruising, and proximal muscle weakness. Physical examination reveals facial rounding (moon facies) and a dorsocervical fat pad (buffalo hump). Her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg. Laboratory tests show elevated cortisol and ACTH levels. What is the most likely cause of her condition? A. Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s Disease) B. Adrenal adenoma C. Long-term corticosteroid use D. Addison’s disease Module 3.2 A 33-year-old female presents with weight gain, thinning of the skin, easy bruising, and proximal muscle weakness. Physical examination reveals facial rounding (moon facies) and a dorsocervical fat pad (buffalo hump). Her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg. Laboratory tests show elevated cortisol and ACTH levels. What is the most likely cause of her condition? A. Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s Disease) B. Adrenal adenoma C. Long-term corticosteroid use D. Addison’s disease Explanation of prior question A (Correct): A pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s Disease) secretes excess ACTH, causing bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and excess cortisol production. B (Incorrect): An adrenal adenoma would cause low ACTH due to negative feedback. C (Incorrect): Exogenous corticosteroid use causes low ACTH, not high ACTH. D (Incorrect): Addison’s disease is associated with low cortisol and high ACTH, but does not cause weight gain or hypertension. Module 3.2 A 27-year-old male presents with infertility and decreased libido. On examination, he has gynecomastia and decreased testicular size. His laboratory results show low testosterone, low LH and FSH, and elevated prolactin. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? A. Primary hypogonadism B. Prolactinoma (prolactin secreting tumor) C. Klinefelter syndrome D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome Module 3.2 A 27-year-old male presents with infertility and decreased libido. On examination, he has gynecomastia and decreased testicular size. His laboratory results show low testosterone, low LH and FSH, and elevated prolactin. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? A. Primary hypogonadism B. Prolactinoma (prolactin secreting tumor) C. Klinefelter syndrome D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Primary hypogonadism would result in high LH and FSH due to loss of negative feedback, whereas this patient has low levels. B (Correct): A prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma) suppresses GnRH, leading to low LH, FSH, and testosterone, causing infertility, gynecomastia, and testicular atrophy. C (Incorrect): Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder (47,XXY) that typically presents with primary testicular failure and high FSH/LH, not low. D (Incorrect): Androgen insensitivity syndrome presents with female external genitalia despite a 46,XY karyotype. Module 3.2 A 58-year-old woman with osteoporosis is being evaluated for an underlying endocrine disorder. She has a history of multiple vertebral fractures and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal low calcium, low PTH, and normal vitamin D levels. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Osteomalacia Module 3.2 A 58-year-old woman with osteoporosis is being evaluated for an underlying endocrine disorder. She has a history of multiple vertebral fractures and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal low calcium, low PTH, and normal vitamin D levels. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Osteomalacia Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Primary hyperparathyroidism would present with high calcium and high PTH, not low levels. B (Incorrect): Secondary hyperparathyroidism (e.g., due to chronic kidney disease) would have high PTH in response to low calcium. C (Correct): Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low PTH and low calcium, often due to surgical removal of the parathyroid glands or autoimmune disease. D (Incorrect): Osteomalacia results from vitamin D deficiency, but this patient has normal vitamin D levels. Module 3.2 A 52-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and frequent urination. His blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg, and laboratory results show hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and low renin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Addison’s disease B. Primary hyperaldosteronism C. Cushing’s disease D. Pheochromocytoma Module 3.2 A 52-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and frequent urination. His blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg, and laboratory results show hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and low renin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Addison’s disease B. Primary hyperaldosteronism C. Cushing’s disease D. Pheochromocytoma Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Addison’s disease presents with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low blood pressure, the opposite of this patient’s findings. B (Correct): Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s Syndrome) results in hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and low renin due to autonomous aldosterone secretion. C (Incorrect): Cushing’s disease causes hypertension but is more associated with hyperglycemia and weight gain, not hypokalemia. D (Incorrect): Pheochromocytoma presents with episodic hypertension, palpitations, and sweating, not hypokalemia. 3.3 Module 3.3 Which of the following would be expected in a male taking exogenous anabolic steroids for bodybuilding? A. Increased LH and FSH secretion B. Increased sperm production C. Decreased testicular size D. Increased endogenous testosterone synthesis Module 3.3 Which of the following would be expected in a male taking exogenous anabolic steroids for bodybuilding? A. Increased LH and FSH secretion B. Increased sperm production C. Decreased testicular size D. Increased endogenous testosterone synthesis Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Exogenous testosterone suppresses LH and FSH due to negative feedback. B (Incorrect): Suppressed FSH levels lead to reduced sperm production. C (Correct): Low LH/FSH reduces intratesticular testosterone, causing testicular atrophy. D (Incorrect): Endogenous testosterone production decreases due to suppression of GnRH and LH. Module 3.3 Which of the following is a major function of Leydig cells? A. Providing structural support for developing sperm B. Producing androgens in response to LH C. Secreting inhibin to regulate FSH D. Converting testosterone to DHT Module 3.3 Which of the following is a major function of Leydig cells? A. Providing structural support for developing sperm B. Producing androgens in response to LH C. Secreting inhibin to regulate FSH D. Converting testosterone to DHT Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Sertoli cells provide structural support. B (Correct): Leydig cells synthesize testosterone in response to LH stimulation. C (Incorrect): Inhibin is secreted by Sertoli cells, not Leydig cells. D (Incorrect): DHT is produced via 5α-reductase in target tissues, not in Leydig cells. Module 3.3 A patient has low testosterone levels but normal levels of LH and FSH. Where is the likely site of dysfunction? A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Testes D. Adrenal cortex Module 3.3 A patient has low testosterone levels but normal levels of LH and FSH. Where is the likely site of dysfunction? A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Testes D. Adrenal cortex Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Hypothalamic dysfunction would lead to low GnRH and low LH/FSH. B (Incorrect): Pituitary dysfunction would cause low LH/FSH, not normal levels. C (Correct): Testicular failure leads to low testosterone despite normal LH/FSH. D (Incorrect): The adrenal cortex produces some androgens, but its dysfunction wouldn't be the primary cause of low testosterone. Module 3.3 Which of the following is an expected metabolic effect of testosterone? A. Increased HDL levels B. Increased erythropoiesis C. Increased insulin sensitivity D. Decreased muscle mass STOP HERE FOR LIVE REVIEW Module 3.3 Which of the following is an expected metabolic effect of testosterone? A. Increased HDL levels B. Increased erythropoiesis C. Increased insulin sensitivity D. Decreased muscle mass Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Testosterone decreases HDL and increases LDL. B (Correct): Testosterone stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production). C (Incorrect): Excess androgens are linked to insulin resistance, not increased sensitivity. D (Incorrect): Testosterone increases muscle mass. Module 3.3 Which of the following best explains why testosterone therapy can cause infertility? A. Directly inhibits sperm motility B. Suppresses LH and FSH, reducing intratesticular testosterone C. Reduces GnRH pulsatility but increases sperm count D. Stimulates Sertoli cells, leading to sperm overproduction Module 3.3 Which of the following best explains why testosterone therapy can cause infertility? A. Directly inhibits sperm motility B. Suppresses LH and FSH, reducing intratesticular testosterone C. Reduces GnRH pulsatility but increases sperm count D. Stimulates Sertoli cells, leading to sperm overproduction Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Exogenous testosterone does not directly inhibit sperm motility. B (Correct): High testosterone suppresses GnRH, lowering LH and FSH, which reduces intratesticular testosterone, impairing spermatogenesis. C (Incorrect): Suppression of GnRH leads to decreased sperm count, not increased. D (Incorrect): Sertoli cells require FSH for spermatogenesis, and FSH is reduced by exogenous testosterone. 3.4 Module 3.4 What is the primary function of FSH in the early follicular phase? A. Stimulate ovulation B. Induce progesterone synthesis C. Promote follicle growth and estrogen production D. Trigger atresia of developing follicles Module 3.4 What is the primary function of FSH in the early follicular phase? A. Stimulate ovulation B. Induce progesterone synthesis C. Promote follicle growth and estrogen production D. Trigger atresia of developing follicles Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Ovulation is triggered by the LH surge, not FSH. B (Incorrect): Progesterone synthesis occurs post-ovulation from the corpus luteum. C (Correct): FSH stimulates granulosa cell proliferation, leading to estrogen production and follicular growth. D (Incorrect): High estradiol and inhibin cause follicular atresia, not FSH. Module 3.4 Which event occurs immediately after the LH surge? A. Ovarian follicle atresia B. Ovulation C. Decreased estradiol levels to zero D. Corpus luteum degeneration Module 3.4 Which event occurs immediately after the LH surge? A. Ovarian follicle atresia B. Ovulation C. Decreased estradiol levels to zero D. Corpus luteum degeneration Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Follicle atresia occurs in non-dominant follicles before ovulation. B (Correct): The LH surge directly triggers ovulation, releasing the oocyte from the dominant follicle. C (Incorrect): Estradiol initially drops slightly but remains high in the luteal phase. D (Incorrect): The corpus luteum forms after ovulation, not before. Module 3.4 What role does LH play in the luteal phase? A. Stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone B. Inhibits granulosa cell function C. Causes follicular atresia D. Directly triggers menstruation SKIP FROM HERE ON IN LIVE REVIEW FOR 3.4 Module 3.4 What role does LH play in the luteal phase? A. Stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone B. Inhibits granulosa cell function C. Causes follicular atresia D. Directly triggers menstruation Explanation of prior question A (Correct): LH maintains corpus luteum function, allowing progesterone secretion. B (Incorrect): LH does not inhibit granulosa cells in the luteal phase. C (Incorrect): Follicular atresia occurs in non-dominant follicles before ovulation. D (Incorrect): Menstruation occurs after LH and progesterone levels fall. Module 3.4 Which of the following correctly describes estrogen's effect on gonadotropin secretion during the menstrual cycle? A. Low estrogen stimulates FSH release, but high estrogen inhibits it B. High estrogen stimulates LH and FSH secretion through negative feedback C. Estrogen does not regulate gonadotropin secretion D. Estrogen prevents GnRH release throughout the cycle Module 3.4 Which of the following correctly describes estrogen's effect on gonadotropin secretion during the menstrual cycle? A. Low estrogen stimulates FSH release, but high estrogen inhibits it B. High estrogen stimulates LH and FSH secretion through negative feedback C. Estrogen does not regulate gonadotropin secretion D. Estrogen prevents GnRH release throughout the cycle Explanation of prior question A (Correct): Early in the follicular phase, low estrogen allows FSH secretion. As estrogen rises, it switches to negative feedback, suppressing FSH. B (Incorrect): High estrogen only stimulates LH (not FSH) in positive feedback at midcycle. C (Incorrect): Estrogen strongly regulates gonadotropins via both positive and negative feedback. D (Incorrect): Estrogen’s effects on GnRH depend on concentration and cycle phase. Module 3.4 Why does the corpus luteum regress if fertilization does not occur? A. It runs out of stored cholesterol B. LH secretion declines, reducing support for the corpus luteum C. Progesterone feedback causes GnRH suppression D. The dominant follicle produces estradiol to inhibit the corpus luteum Module 3.4 Why does the corpus luteum regress if fertilization does not occur? A. It runs out of stored cholesterol B. LH secretion declines, reducing support for the corpus luteum C. Progesterone feedback causes GnRH suppression D. The dominant follicle produces estradiol to inhibit the corpus luteum Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): The corpus luteum does not "run out" of cholesterol; it requires LH to survive. B (Correct): LH levels drop in the luteal phase due to progesterone negative feedback, causing corpus luteum regression. C (Incorrect): Progesterone does suppress GnRH, but it is LH decline that causes luteal regression. D (Incorrect): The dominant follicle has already ruptured post-ovulation. Module 3.4 Which phase of the uterine cycle is characterized by endometrial gland secretion and thick cervical mucus production? A. Follicular phase B. Proliferative phase C. Secretory phase D. Menstrual phase Module 3.4 Which phase of the uterine cycle is characterized by endometrial gland secretion and thick cervical mucus production? A. Follicular phase B. Proliferative phase C. Secretory phase D. Menstrual phase Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): The follicular phase refers to the ovarian cycle and does not describe endometrial secretion. B (Incorrect): The proliferative phase is characterized by growth of the endometrium, not secretion. C (Correct): The secretory phase occurs in the luteal phase and is driven by progesterone, stimulating gland secretion and thick cervical mucus. D (Incorrect): The menstrual phase results from loss of hormonal stimulation, not gland secretion. Module 3.4 What hormonal change is responsible for triggering menstruation? A. Decrease in estrogen and progesterone B. LH surge C. Increase in FSH D. Increase in estradiol Module 3.4 What hormonal change is responsible for triggering menstruation? A. Decrease in estrogen and progesterone B. LH surge C. Increase in FSH D. Increase in estradiol Explanation of prior question A (Correct): Menstruation occurs when the corpus luteum regresses, leading to a drop in progesterone and estrogen. B (Incorrect): The LH surge triggers ovulation, not menstruation. C (Incorrect): FSH rises after menstruation begins, but does not trigger it. D (Incorrect): Estrogen levels decline before menstruation due to corpus luteum regression. Module 3.4 What is the dominant hormone in the follicular phase that stimulates endometrial proliferation? A. Progesterone B. Estradiol C. LH D. Inhibin Module 3.4 What is the dominant hormone in the follicular phase that stimulates endometrial proliferation? A. Progesterone B. Estradiol C. LH D. Inhibin Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Progesterone is dominant in the luteal phase, not follicular. B (Correct): Estradiol stimulates growth of the endometrium and vasculature in the proliferative phase. C (Incorrect): LH plays a role in ovulation, but does not stimulate the endometrium. D (Incorrect): Inhibin inhibits FSH but does not regulate endometrial proliferation. Module 3.4 What hormonal shift leads to the increased secretion of LH and FSH in menopause? A. Increased progesterone secretion B. Increased estrogen production C. Decreased negative feedback from estrogen and progesterone D. Increased secretion of inhibin Module 3.4 What hormonal shift leads to the increased secretion of LH and FSH in menopause? A. Increased progesterone secretion B. Increased estrogen production C. Decreased negative feedback from estrogen and progesterone D. Increased secretion of inhibin Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Progesterone decreases in menopause, not increases. B (Incorrect): Estrogen production declines due to ovarian failure. C (Correct): Loss of estrogen and progesterone removes negative feedback, causing increased LH and FSH secretion. D (Incorrect): Inhibin levels fall, but the primary driver of LH/FSH increase is loss of estrogen and progesterone. Module 3.4 What is a key non-reproductive effect of estrogen in the cardiovascular system? A. Increases blood pressure by stimulating vasoconstriction B. Decreases LDL and increases HDL C. Increases angiotensinogen production, reducing vasodilation D. Reduces risk of blood clots Module 3.4 What is a key non-reproductive effect of estrogen in the cardiovascular system? A. Increases blood pressure by stimulating vasoconstriction B. Decreases LDL and increases HDL C. Increases angiotensinogen production, reducing vasodilation D. Reduces risk of blood clots Explanation of prior question A (Incorrect): Estrogen lowers blood pressure through vasodilation. B (Correct): Estrogen has a protective effect by decreasing LDL and increasing HDL. C (Incorrect): While estrogen increases angiotensinogen, its dominant effect is vasodilation, especially in uterine blood flow. D (Incorrect): Estrogen increases risk of clot formation by altering coagulation factors. 3.5 Module 3.6 Which of the following is a metabolic effect of pregnancy with a correctly attributed consequence? A. Decreased fat deposition leading to malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins B. Increased insulin resistance leading to potential glucose intolerance C. Decreased fat deposition leading to an increased volume of distribution of water soluble vitamins, creating imbalances. D. Increased insulin resistance leading to the development of type-2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and hypoglycemia. Module 3.6 Which of the following is a metabolic effect of pregnancy with a correctly attributed consequence? A. Decreased fat deposition leading to malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins B. Increased insulin resistance leading to potential glucose intolerance C. Decreased fat deposition leading to an increased volume of distribution of water soluble vitamins, creating imbalances. D. Increased insulin resistance leading to the development of type-2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and hypoglycemia. Module 3.6 During pregnancy, which of the following best describes the mammary glands and milk production? A. Mammary glands develop, and milk production begins following prolactin stimulation B. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by insulin until birth C. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by prolactin until birth D. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by estrogen until birth Module 3.6 Lec 3.5 Slide 9 During pregnancy, which of the following best describes the mammary glands and milk production? A. Mammary glands develop, and milk production begins following prolactin stimulation B. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by insulin until birth C. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by prolactin until birth D. Mammary glands develop, and milk production is inhibited by estrogen until birth 3.6 Module 3.6 Which organ is primarily responsible for activating vitamin D? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Small intestine D. Pancreas Module 3.6 Which organ is primarily responsible for activating vitamin D? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Small intestine D. Pancreas Module 3.6 What is the preferred diagnostic tool for osteoporosis? A. X-ray B. MRI C. Bone biopsy D. DXA Module 3.6 What is the preferred diagnostic tool for osteoporosis? A. X-ray B. MRI C. Bone biopsy D. DXA Module 3.6 At what T-score value is osteoporosis diagnosed? A. Above -1 B. Between -1 and -2.4 C. At or below -2.5 D. At or below -3.0 Module 3.6 At what T-score value is osteoporosis diagnosed? A. Above -1 B. Between -1 and -2.4 C. At or below -2.5 D. At or below -3.0 Module 3.6 Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis? A. High BMI B. Vitamin D deﬁciency C. Low bone turnover D. Increased estrogen Module 3.6 Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis? A. High BMI B. Vitamin D deﬁciency C. Low bone turnover D. Increased estrogen Module 3.6 What is the main cause of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women? A. High calcium intake B. Low physical activity C. Estrogen deﬁciency D. High protein diet Module 3.6 What is the main cause of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women? A. High calcium intake B. Low physical activity C. Estrogen deﬁciency D. High protein diet 3.7 Module 3.7 What symptom is NOT associated with hyperthyroidism? A. Heat intolerance B. Weight loss C. Bradycardia D. Finger Clubbing Module 3.7 What symptom is NOT associated with hyperthyroidism? A. Heat intolerance B. Weight loss C. Bradycardia D. Finger Clubbing Module 3.7 What is the half-life of free T4? A. 1 hour B. 1 day C. 1 week D. 1 month Module 3.7 What is the half-life of free T4? A. 1 hour B. 1 day C. 1 week D. 1 month Module 3.7 Which treatment is NOT typically used for hyperthyroidism? A. Antithyroid medications B. Radioactive iodine C. Levothyroxine D. Thyroidectomy Module 3.7 Which treatment is NOT typically used for hyperthyroidism? A. Antithyroid medications B. Radioactive iodine C. Levothyroxine No Levothyroxine, more for Hypothyroidism D. Thyroidectomy Module 3.7 Which lab test is the most sensitive index for diagnosing thyroid disorders? A. Total T3 B. Free T3 C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D. Reverse T3 Module 3.7 Which lab test is the most sensitive index for diagnosing thyroid disorders? A. Total T3 B. Free T3 C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D. Reverse T3 Module 3.7 What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues? A. Thyroid peroxidase B. Deiodinase C. Na+/I− symporter D. Pendrin Module 3.7 What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues? A. Thyroid peroxidase B. Deiodinase C. Na+/I− symporter D. Pendrin 3.8 Module 3.8 Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin? A. Stimulating glycogen synthesis B. Promoting lipolysis C. Increasing glucose uptake D. Enhancing protein synthesis Module 3.8 Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin? A. Stimulating glycogen synthesis B. Promoting lipolysis C. Increasing glucose uptake D. Enhancing protein synthesis Module 3.8 Which hormone is secreted from pancreatic alpha cells? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. Amylin Module 3.8 Which hormone is secreted from pancreatic alpha cells? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Somatostatin D. Amylin Module 3.8 What is the primary role of glucagon in metabolism? A. Stimulating glucose uptake B. Increasing glucose production C. Inhibiting lipid breakdown D. Enhancing protein synthesis Module 3.8 What is the primary role of glucagon in metabolism? A. Stimulating glucose uptake B. Increasing glucose production C. Inhibiting lipid breakdown D. Enhancing protein synthesis Module 3.8 Proteinase cleavage of _______ to produce insulin and _______. Secreted insulin composed of 2 polypeptide chains (A chain and B chain) linked by _______ bonds. A. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Disulﬁde B. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Trisulﬁde C. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Disulﬁde D. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Trisulﬁde Module 3.8 Proteinase cleavage of _______ to produce insulin and _______. Secreted insulin composed of 2 polypeptide chains (A chain and B chain) linked by _______ bonds. A. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Disulﬁde B. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Trisulﬁde C. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Disulﬁde D. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Trisulﬁde Module 3.8 Proteinase cleavage of _______ to produce insulin and _______. Secreted insulin composed of 2 polypeptide chains (A chain and B chain) linked by _______ bonds. A. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Disulﬁde B. Proinsulin; D-peptide; Trisulﬁde C. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Disulﬁde D. Proinsulin; C-peptide; Trisulﬁde Module 3.8 Insulin Effects: A. Increase glucose uptake in the ____ for synthesis of glycogen. B. Increase ______ storage in adipose tissue. C. Stimulate protein synthesis from ____ ___ in skeletal muscle. Module 3.8 Insulin Effects: A. Increase glucose uptake in the liver for synthesis of glycogen. B. Increase triglyceride storage in adipose tissue. C. Stimulate protein synthesis from amino acids in skeletal muscle. 3.9 Module 3.9 Which hormone stimulates the production of IGF-1? A. Cortisol B. Epinephrine C. Growth Hormone D. Glucagon Module 3.9 Which hormone stimulates the production of IGF-1? A. Cortisol B. Epinephrine C. Growth Hormone D. Glucagon Module 3.9 Which hormone primarily affects the liver and fat tissue but has minimal effects on skeletal muscle? A. Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Growth Hormone D. Glucagon Module 3.9 Which hormone primarily affects the liver and fat tissue but has minimal effects on skeletal muscle? A. Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Growth Hormone D. Glucagon Module 3.9 What enzyme does glucagon activate in fat tissue to promote lipolysis? A. Glycogen synthase B. Hormone-sensitive lipase C. Lipoprotein lipase D. Phosphofructokinase Module 3.9 What enzyme does glucagon activate in fat tissue to promote lipolysis? A. Glycogen synthase B. Hormone-sensitive lipase C. Lipoprotein lipase D. Phosphofructokinase Module 3.9 Know this, it's easy points Module 3.9 How does epinephrine affect glucose metabolism? A. Stimulates glycogen breakdown B. Increases insulin secretion C. Enhances glucose uptake D. Decreases gluconeogenesis Module 3.9 How does epinephrine affect glucose metabolism? A. Stimulates glycogen breakdown B. Increases insulin secretion C. Enhances glucose uptake D. Decreases gluconeogenesis Module 3.9 What is a key symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome? A. Hypoglycemia B. Protein wasting C. Low blood pressure D. Weight loss Module 3.9 What is a key symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome? A. Hypoglycemia B. Protein wasting C. Low blood pressure D. Weight loss 3.10 Module 3.10 Which of the following best describes the insulin levels in early Type 2 Diabetes? A. Absent B. Low C. Normal or high D. Always requiring exogenous insulin Module 3.10 Which of the following best describes the insulin levels in early Type 2 Diabetes? A. Absent B. Low C. Normal or high D. Always requiring exogenous insulin Module 3.10 What percentage of Type 2 Diabetes patients are overweight or obese? A. 0-19% B. 20-39% C. 40-59% D. 60-80% Module 3.10 What percentage of Type 2 Diabetes patients are overweight or obese? A. 0-19% B. 20-39% C. 40-59% D. 60-80% Module 3.10 What metabolic condition is most commonly associated with untreated Type 1 Diabetes? A. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) B. Lactic acidosis C. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) D. Hypoglycemia Module 3.10 What metabolic condition is most commonly associated with untreated Type 1 Diabetes? A. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) B. Lactic acidosis C. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) D. Hypoglycemia Module 3.10 Which of the following is a common symptom of Type 1 Diabetes? A. Hyperinsulinemia B. Obesity C. Urinary Ketones D. Asymptomatic presentation Module 3.10 Which of the following is a common symptom of Type 1 Diabetes? A. Hyperinsulinemia B. Obesity C. Urinary ketones D. Asymptomatic presentation Module 3.10 Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing diabetes? A. A1C ≥ 6.0% B. 2h PG ≥ 200 mg/dL during an OGTT C. FPG ≥ 100 mg/dL D. Random plasma glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL with symptoms Module 3.10 Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing diabetes? A. A1C ≥ 6.0% B. 2h PG ≥ 200 mg/dL during an OGTT C. FPG ≥ 100 mg/dL D. Random plasma glucose ≥ 180 mg/dL with symptoms 3.11 Module 3.11 What is a risk factor for gestational diabetes? A. Low BMI B. Caucasian ethnicity C. Family history of type 2 diabetes D. Male gender Module 3.11 What is a risk factor for gestational diabetes? A. Low BMI B. Caucasian ethnicity C. Family history of type 2 diabetes D. Male gender Module 3.11 What happens when the insulin-to-glucagon ratio is high? A. Increased glucose production B. Increased ketogenesis C. Net anabolism D. Increased protein breakdown Module 3.11 What happens when the insulin-to-glucagon ratio is high? A. Increased glucose production B. Increased ketogenesis C. Net anabolism - GLUCOSE STORAGE D. Increased protein breakdown Module 3.11 What is a classic symptom of diabetes? A. Hypoglycemia B. Weight gain C. Polyuria D. Decreased thirst Module 3.11 What is a classic symptom of diabetes? A. Hypoglycemia B. Weight gain C. Polyuria D. Decreased thirst Module 3.11 What is the main metabolic consequence of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. Decreased ketone production B. Increased insulin action C. Metabolic acidosis D. Increased glycogen synthesis Module 3.11 What is the main metabolic consequence of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. Decreased ketone production B. Increased insulin action C. Metabolic acidosis D. Increased glycogen synthesis Module 3.11 A diabetic patient experiences anxiety, sweating, and shakiness after binge drinking at grog. What is the likely cause? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Heart attack D. Dehydration Module 3.11 A diabetic patient experiences anxiety, sweating, and shakiness after binge drinking at grog. What is the likely cause? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Heart attack D. Dehydration Thank you for coming ccavaliere1@uﬂ.edu | david.ﬂynn@uﬂ.edu Main idea charts we recommend you understand

PPA II SI: Exam 2 Review PDF

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