Drug Therapeutics Multiple Choice Questions PDF

**Which of the following drugs is commonly used as an antiemetic in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Omeprazole\ b) Maropitant\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Famotidine\ **Answer: b) Maropitant** **What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?**\ a) Proton pump inhibition\ b) H2 receptor blockade\ c) Dopamin...

**Which of the following drugs is commonly used as an antiemetic in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Omeprazole\ b) Maropitant\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Famotidine\ **Answer: b) Maropitant** **What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?**\ a) Proton pump inhibition\ b) H2 receptor blockade\ c) Dopamine receptor antagonism\ d) Inhibition of bacterial DNA synthesis\ **Answer: c) Dopamine receptor antagonism** **Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce gastric acid secretion in animals?**\ a) Sucralfate\ b) Ranitidine\ c) Omeprazole\ d) Misoprostol\ **Answer: c) Omeprazole** **Which of the following is used to protect the gastric mucosa by forming a physical barrier?**\ a) Sucralfate\ b) Cisapride\ c) Ondansetron\ d) Bismuth subsalicylate\ **Answer: a) Sucralfate** **What is the primary use of loperamide in veterinary medicine?**\ a) To promote gastric emptying\ b) To treat diarrhea\ c) To stimulate appetite\ d) To reduce nausea\ **Answer: b) To treat diarrhea** **Which drug is a motility modifier used to treat ileus and promote gastrointestinal motility?**\ a) Maropitant\ b) Metoclopramide\ c) Cisapride\ d) Sucralfate\ **Answer: c) Cisapride** **Which of the following drugs is a synthetic prostaglandin used to prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers?**\ a) Omeprazole\ b) Misoprostol\ c) Sucralfate\ d) Metronidazole\ **Answer: b) Misoprostol** **Which antimicrobial is often used to treat Giardia infections in veterinary patients?**\ a) Amoxicillin\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Enrofloxacin\ d) Tylosin\ **Answer: b) Metronidazole** **Which of these drugs is an H2 receptor antagonist that reduces gastric acid secretion?**\ a) Famotidine\ b) Omeprazole\ c) Misoprostol\ d) Sucralfate\ **Answer: a) Famotidine** **What is the primary action of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy in veterinary patients?**\ a) Reduces intestinal motility\ b) Acidifies colonic contents to trap ammonia\ c) Inhibits bacterial overgrowth\ d) Promotes bile secretion\ **Answer: b) Acidifies colonic contents to trap ammonia** 11. **Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat constipation in cats by softening stools?**\ a) Cisapride\ b) Lactulose\ c) Sucralfate\ d) Famotidine\ **Answer: b) Lactulose** 12. **What is the primary use of bismuth subsalicylate in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Anti-inflammatory and antidiarrheal\ b) Antacid and appetite stimulant\ c) Antibiotic and antinausea agent\ d) Gastric motility promoter\ **Answer: a) Anti-inflammatory and antidiarrheal** 13. **Which drug is an NK-1 receptor antagonist that prevents nausea and vomiting in dogs and cats?**\ a) Ondansetron\ b) Maropitant\ c) Metoclopramide\ d) Misoprostol\ **Answer: b) Maropitant** 14. **Which of these drugs is most effective against Helicobacter infections in animals?**\ a) Ranitidine\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Both b and c\ **Answer: d) Both b and c** 15. **Which drug is used as an antidiarrheal and has a narcotic effect on the gut?**\ a) Loperamide\ b) Metoclopramide\ c) Cisapride\ d) Maropitant\ **Answer: a) Loperamide** 16. **Which of the following drugs stimulates appetite in cats and is often used off-label?**\ a) Metoclopramide\ b) Mirtazapine\ c) Omeprazole\ d) Ondansetron\ **Answer: b) Mirtazapine** 17. **Which of these drugs is classified as an antiemetic and a serotonin receptor (5-HT3) antagonist?**\ a) Ondansetron\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Famotidine\ d) Cisapride\ **Answer: a) Ondansetron** 18. **Which drug is a mucosal protectant and binds to ulcerated areas of the gastrointestinal lining?**\ a) Sucralfate\ b) Ranitidine\ c) Omeprazole\ d) Misoprostol\ **Answer: a) Sucralfate** 19. **What is the primary action of kaolin-pectin in gastrointestinal therapy?**\ a) Antiemetic\ b) Adsorbent and soothing agent for diarrhea\ c) Acid reducer\ d) Antibacterial\ **Answer: b) Adsorbent and soothing agent for diarrhea** 20. **Which of the following is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs that may require gastrointestinal therapy?**\ a) Diarrhea\ b) Gastric ulcers\ c) Constipation\ d) Vomiting\ **Answer: b) Gastric ulcers** 21. **What is the mechanism of action of cisapride in gastrointestinal therapy?**\ a) Enhances acetylcholine release to promote gut motility\ b) Blocks serotonin receptors to reduce nausea\ c) Forms a protective barrier over ulcers\ d) Reduces intestinal inflammation\ **Answer: a) Enhances acetylcholine release to promote gut motility** 22. **Which of the following is a locally acting antibiotic commonly used for small intestinal bacterial overgrowth?**\ a) Enrofloxacin\ b) Tylosin\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Doxycycline\ **Answer: b) Tylosin** 23. **Which drug is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that can stimulate motility in the gastrointestinal tract?**\ a) Mirtazapine\ b) Cisapride\ c) Metoclopramide\ d) Ondansetron\ **Answer: b) Cisapride** 24. **What is the main role of probiotics in veterinary gastrointestinal therapy?**\ a) Reduce intestinal motility\ b) Promote growth of beneficial gut bacteria\ c) Suppress gastric acid production\ d) Act as an anti-inflammatory agent\ **Answer: b) Promote growth of beneficial gut bacteria** 25. **Which drug is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist used to treat acid reflux and gastritis?**\ a) Omeprazole\ b) Famotidine\ c) Sucralfate\ d) Cisapride\ **Answer: b) Famotidine** 26. **What is the primary use of metronidazole in gastrointestinal therapy?**\ a) Antacid\ b) Antibacterial and antiprotozoal agent\ c) Motility promoter\ d) Antiemetic\ **Answer: b) Antibacterial and antiprotozoal agent** 27. **Which drug can be used to treat exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) in dogs?**\ a) Omeprazole\ b) Pancrelipase\ c) Cisapride\ d) Sucralfate\ **Answer: b) Pancrelipase** **Multiple Choice Questions: Veterinary Antimicrobials** 1. **Which of the following is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Amoxicillin\ b) Gentamicin\ c) Penicillin G\ d) Polymyxin B\ **Answer: a) Amoxicillin** 2. **Which of these is classified as a fluoroquinolone antibiotic?**\ a) Amikacin\ b) Ciprofloxacin\ c) Clindamycin\ d) Doxycycline\ **Answer: b) Ciprofloxacin** 3. **What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins?**\ a) Inhibition of DNA synthesis\ b) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis\ c) Disruption of protein synthesis\ d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability\ **Answer: b) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis** 4. **Which antibiotic is primarily effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa?**\ a) Enrofloxacin\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Amoxicillin-clavulanate\ d) Doxycycline\ **Answer: b) Metronidazole** 5. **Which class of antimicrobials is known for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity as common side effects?**\ a) Fluoroquinolones\ b) Aminoglycosides\ c) Macrolides\ d) Sulfonamides\ **Answer: b) Aminoglycosides** 6. **Which of the following is a beta-lactamase inhibitor often combined with amoxicillin?**\ a) Tetracycline\ b) Clavulanic acid\ c) Rifampin\ d) Polymyxin B\ **Answer: b) Clavulanic acid** 7. **Which of these antimicrobials targets bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?**\ a) Amoxicillin\ b) Gentamicin\ c) Chloramphenicol\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: b) Gentamicin** 8. **Which antimicrobial is classified as a macrolide?**\ a) Doxycycline\ b) Erythromycin\ c) Enrofloxacin\ d) Trimethoprim\ **Answer: b) Erythromycin** 9. **What is the primary use of sulfonamides in combination with trimethoprim?**\ a) Antifungal therapy\ b) Broad-spectrum antibacterial therapy\ c) Antiviral treatment\ d) Mycoplasma infections\ **Answer: b) Broad-spectrum antibacterial therapy** 10. **Which of the following is a primary mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicillins?**\ a) Efflux pumps\ b) Production of beta-lactamase enzymes\ c) Altered ribosomal binding sites\ d) Decreased membrane permeability\ **Answer: b) Production of beta-lactamase enzymes** 11. **Which tetracycline antibiotic is commonly used to treat tick-borne diseases in dogs?**\ a) Oxytetracycline\ b) Doxycycline\ c) Tylosin\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: b) Doxycycline** 12. **Which of the following antibiotics is bactericidal?**\ a) Chloramphenicol\ b) Tetracycline\ c) Amoxicillin\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: c) Amoxicillin** 13. **Which antimicrobial is used to treat dermatophyte infections in veterinary patients?**\ a) Itraconazole\ b) Fluconazole\ c) Griseofulvin\ d) Clindamycin\ **Answer: c) Griseofulvin** 14. **What is the spectrum of activity for enrofloxacin?**\ a) Gram-positive bacteria only\ b) Gram-negative bacteria only\ c) Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria\ d) Anaerobic bacteria only\ **Answer: c) Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria** 15. **Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase?**\ a) Tylosin\ b) Ciprofloxacin\ c) Doxycycline\ d) Amikacin\ **Answer: b) Ciprofloxacin** 16. **Which antimicrobial is used for the treatment of coccidiosis in poultry and livestock?**\ a) Tylosin\ b) Sulfamethoxazole\ c) Amoxicillin\ d) Monensin\ **Answer: d) Monensin** 17. **Which of these antimicrobials can cause fatal aplastic anemia in humans and should be used cautiously?**\ a) Chloramphenicol\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Gentamicin\ d) Amikacin\ **Answer: a) Chloramphenicol** 18. **Which antimicrobial is used to treat bovine respiratory disease caused by *Mannheimia haemolytica*?**\ a) Florfenicol\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Gentamicin\ d) Enrofloxacin\ **Answer: a) Florfenicol** 19. **Which of the following is a key concern when using fluoroquinolones in young animals?**\ a) Renal toxicity\ b) Cartilage damage\ c) Neurological side effects\ d) Hepatotoxicity\ **Answer: b) Cartilage damage** 20. **Which antimicrobial is effective against *Mycoplasma* infections in poultry?**\ a) Oxytetracycline\ b) Erythromycin\ c) Tylosin\ d) Rifampin\ **Answer: c) Tylosin** 21. **Which of the following antibiotics should not be used in horses due to the risk of fatal colitis?**\ a) Enrofloxacin\ b) Clindamycin\ c) Erythromycin\ d) Penicillin G\ **Answer: b) Clindamycin** 22. **Which aminoglycoside is commonly used to treat serious gram-negative infections?**\ a) Gentamicin\ b) Tylosin\ c) Rifampin\ d) Amoxicillin\ **Answer: a) Gentamicin** 23. **Which of the following antibiotics is primarily used topically due to its nephrotoxicity?**\ a) Vancomycin\ b) Polymyxin B\ c) Cefazolin\ d) Chloramphenicol\ **Answer: b) Polymyxin B** 24. **Which of the following is an example of a first-generation cephalosporin?**\ a) Cefazolin\ b) Cefotaxime\ c) Ceftriaxone\ d) Ceftiofur\ **Answer: a) Cefazolin** 25. **Which antimicrobial is contraindicated in food animals due to public health concerns?**\ a) Metronidazole\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Gentamicin\ d) Tylosin\ **Answer: a) Metronidazole** **More Multiple Choice Questions: Veterinary Antimicrobials** 26. **Which antimicrobial class works by inhibiting bacterial folic acid synthesis?**\ a) Sulfonamides\ b) Tetracyclines\ c) Aminoglycosides\ d) Macrolides\ **Answer: a) Sulfonamides** 27. **Which of the following antibiotics is known to cause staining of developing teeth in young animals?**\ a) Amoxicillin\ b) Tetracycline\ c) Enrofloxacin\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: b) Tetracycline** 28. **Which macrolide antibiotic is commonly used in swine medicine to treat respiratory infections?**\ a) Oxytetracycline\ b) Tulathromycin\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Amikacin\ **Answer: b) Tulathromycin** 29. **What is the main mechanism of action of rifampin?**\ a) Inhibition of RNA synthesis\ b) Inhibition of protein synthesis\ c) Disruption of cell membrane integrity\ d) Inhibition of DNA synthesis\ **Answer: a) Inhibition of RNA synthesis** 30. **Which of the following is a key adverse effect of chloramphenicol in animals?**\ a) Hepatotoxicity\ b) Bone marrow suppression\ c) Nephrotoxicity\ d) Neuropathy\ **Answer: b) Bone marrow suppression** 31. **Which antimicrobial is primarily used for treating *Rhodococcus equi* infections in foals?**\ a) Gentamicin\ b) Rifampin\ c) Amoxicillin\ d) Tylosin\ **Answer: b) Rifampin** 32. **Which of the following drugs is effective against *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* infections?**\ a) Enrofloxacin\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Tylosin\ **Answer: a) Enrofloxacin** 33. **What is the primary concern when using aminoglycosides in animals with compromised renal function?**\ a) Hepatotoxicity\ b) Nephrotoxicity\ c) Neurotoxicity\ d) Bone marrow suppression\ **Answer: b) Nephrotoxicity** 34. **Which antibiotic combination is synergistic and commonly used for broad-spectrum activity?**\ a) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid\ b) Enrofloxacin and rifampin\ c) Metronidazole and tylosin\ d) Chloramphenicol and gentamicin\ **Answer: a) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid** 35. **Which antimicrobial is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections in small animals?**\ a) Nitrofurantoin\ b) Amoxicillin-clavulanate\ c) Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim\ d) All of the above\ **Answer: d) All of the above** 36. **Which antimicrobial can be toxic to cats due to their limited ability to conjugate glucuronides?**\ a) Acetaminophen\ b) Chloramphenicol\ c) Polymyxin B\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: b) Chloramphenicol** 37. **Which antibiotic is contraindicated in food animals due to its potential to cause aplastic anemia in humans?**\ a) Chloramphenicol\ b) Gentamicin\ c) Rifampin\ d) Enrofloxacin\ **Answer: a) Chloramphenicol** 38. **Which cephalosporin is approved for use in large animals and effective against respiratory pathogens?**\ a) Cefpodoxime\ b) Ceftiofur\ c) Cefazolin\ d) Cefotaxime\ **Answer: b) Ceftiofur** 39. **Which of the following antibiotics is effective against *Clostridium difficile* infections in small animals?**\ a) Metronidazole\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Ciprofloxacin\ d) Polymyxin B\ **Answer: a) Metronidazole** 40. **Which antimicrobial class is known for being bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal?**\ a) Fluoroquinolones\ b) Aminoglycosides\ c) Tetracyclines\ d) Beta-lactams\ **Answer: c) Tetracyclines** 41. **Which antibiotic is effective against gram-negative bacteria and used in topical formulations?**\ a) Polymyxin B\ b) Gentamicin\ c) Ciprofloxacin\ d) All of the above\ **Answer: d) All of the above** 42. **Which of the following antimicrobials is commonly used to treat bovine mastitis?**\ a) Penicillin G\ b) Ceftiofur\ c) Tylosin\ d) Oxytetracycline\ **Answer: b) Ceftiofur** 43. **Which of the following antibiotics is approved for intramammary infusion in dairy cattle?**\ a) Cloxacillin\ b) Enrofloxacin\ c) Erythromycin\ d) Tylosin\ **Answer: a) Cloxacillin** 44. **What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?**\ a) Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV\ b) Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at the ribosome\ c) Disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis\ d) Alters bacterial cell membrane permeability\ **Answer: a) Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV** 45. **Which antimicrobial is effective against rickettsial diseases such as ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis?**\ a) Doxycycline\ b) Gentamicin\ c) Tylosin\ d) Amoxicillin\ **Answer: a) Doxycycline** 46. **Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat leptospirosis in dogs?**\ a) Amoxicillin\ b) Doxycycline\ c) Enrofloxacin\ d) Erythromycin\ **Answer: b) Doxycycline** 47. **Which of the following antimicrobials is prohibited for use in food-producing animals in many countries?**\ a) Enrofloxacin\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Tylosin\ d) Oxytetracycline\ **Answer: b) Metronidazole** 48. **Which antibiotic has a prolonged post-antibiotic effect, allowing for once-daily dosing?**\ a) Doxycycline\ b) Enrofloxacin\ c) Tylosin\ d) Amikacin\ **Answer: b) Enrofloxacin** 49. **Which antimicrobial class should be avoided in pregnant animals due to the risk of teratogenic effects?**\ a) Tetracyclines\ b) Beta-lactams\ c) Aminoglycosides\ d) Macrolides\ **Answer: a) Tetracyclines** 50. **Which antimicrobial is commonly used in combination with erythromycin for the treatment of *Rhodococcus equi* in foals?**\ a) Rifampin\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Gentamicin\ d) Amoxicillin\ **Answer: a) Rifampin** 51. **Which of the following is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used in dogs for osteoarthritis?**\ a) Meloxicam\ b) Prednisone\ c) Tramadol\ d) Amantadine\ **Answer: a) Meloxicam** 52. **Which class of drugs is most commonly used to treat inflammation in the musculoskeletal system?**\ a) Antibiotics\ b) NSAIDs\ c) Anticonvulsants\ d) Antifungals\ **Answer: b) NSAIDs** 53. **What is the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids in musculoskeletal therapy?**\ a) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis\ b) Suppression of the immune response and inflammation\ c) Promotion of cartilage regeneration\ d) Blockage of voltage-gated sodium channels\ **Answer: b) Suppression of the immune response and inflammation** 54. **Which drug is a COX-2 selective NSAID often used in horses?**\ a) Flunixin meglumine\ b) Phenylbutazone\ c) Firocoxib\ d) Aspirin\ **Answer: c) Firocoxib** 55. **Which medication is commonly used as an adjunct for pain management in animals with chronic arthritis?**\ a) Gabapentin\ b) Amoxicillin\ c) Metronidazole\ d) Enrofloxacin\ **Answer: a) Gabapentin** 56. **Which of the following is an opioid analgesic sometimes prescribed for acute musculoskeletal pain in dogs?**\ a) Tramadol\ b) Ketoprofen\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Carprofen\ **Answer: a) Tramadol** 57. **Which NSAID is commonly used in cattle for its anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects?**\ a) Flunixin meglumine\ b) Meloxicam\ c) Phenylbutazone\ d) Aspirin\ **Answer: a) Flunixin meglumine** 58. **Which of the following is a disease-modifying osteoarthritis drug (DMOAD)?**\ a) Pentosan polysulfate\ b) Prednisolone\ c) Ketoprofen\ d) Lidocaine\ **Answer: a) Pentosan polysulfate** 59. **What is the main mechanism of action of bisphosphonates in musculoskeletal disorders?**\ a) Inhibiting osteoclast activity and bone resorption\ b) Reducing inflammation by blocking COX enzymes\ c) Stimulating cartilage regeneration\ d) Blocking voltage-gated calcium channels\ **Answer: a) Inhibiting osteoclast activity and bone resorption** 60. **Which corticosteroid is commonly used for intra-articular injection in horses with joint disease?**\ a) Dexamethasone\ b) Flunixin meglumine\ c) Meloxicam\ d) Aspirin\ **Answer: a) Dexamethasone** 61. **Which supplement is often used to support joint health in dogs and cats?**\ a) Glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate\ b) Calcium carbonate\ c) Vitamin D3\ d) Magnesium sulfate\ **Answer: a) Glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate** 62. **Which of the following drugs is a COX-1 and COX-2 nonselective NSAID?**\ a) Phenylbutazone\ b) Firocoxib\ c) Meloxicam\ d) Robenacoxib\ **Answer: a) Phenylbutazone** 63. **What is the primary use of methocarbamol in veterinary musculoskeletal therapy?**\ a) Muscle relaxant\ b) Anti-inflammatory\ c) Bone growth stimulant\ d) Painkiller\ **Answer: a) Muscle relaxant** 64. **Which of the following is a side effect commonly associated with long-term NSAID use?**\ a) Gastrointestinal ulceration\ b) Hyperglycemia\ c) Muscle tremors\ d) Increased bone density\ **Answer: a) Gastrointestinal ulceration** 65. **Which NSAID is FDA-approved for the management of osteoarthritis pain in cats?**\ a) Robenacoxib\ b) Phenylbutazone\ c) Ketoprofen\ d) Aspirin\ **Answer: a) Robenacoxib** 66. **Which of the following is a local anesthetic commonly used for regional musculoskeletal pain management?**\ a) Lidocaine\ b) Ketamine\ c) Tramadol\ d) Flunixin meglumine\ **Answer: a) Lidocaine** 67. **What is the primary use of hyaluronic acid in veterinary musculoskeletal therapy?**\ a) Lubrication of joints\ b) Muscle relaxation\ c) Pain suppression\ d) Bone remodeling\ **Answer: a) Lubrication of joints** 68. **Which drug is commonly used to treat navicular disease in horses?**\ a) Isoxsuprine\ b) Gabapentin\ c) Flunixin meglumine\ d) Carprofen\ **Answer: a) Isoxsuprine** 69. **Which class of drugs is most effective at reducing severe inflammation in musculoskeletal disorders?**\ a) Corticosteroids\ b) Opioids\ c) Antibiotics\ d) Bisphosphonates\ **Answer: a) Corticosteroids** 70. **What is a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy in musculoskeletal treatment?**\ a) Immunosuppression\ b) Increased joint lubrication\ c) Enhanced bone density\ d) Muscle hypertrophy\ **Answer: a) Immunosuppression** 71. **Which NSAID is often used for postoperative pain in small animals?**\ a) Carprofen\ b) Isoxsuprine\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Methocarbamol\ **Answer: a) Carprofen** 72. **What is the mechanism of action of polysulfated glycosaminoglycans (PSGAGs)?**\ a) Inhibiting enzymes that degrade cartilage\ b) Blocking COX enzymes to reduce inflammation\ c) Promoting bone remodeling\ d) Acting as a local anesthetic\ **Answer: a) Inhibiting enzymes that degrade cartilage** 73. **Which drug is commonly used to manage neuropathic pain associated with musculoskeletal disorders?**\ a) Gabapentin\ b) Phenylbutazone\ c) Prednisone\ d) Flunixin meglumine\ **Answer: a) Gabapentin** 74. **What is the primary use of amantadine in musculoskeletal therapy?**\ a) NMDA receptor antagonist to enhance pain control\ b) Muscle relaxant for spasms\ c) Anti-inflammatory for acute injuries\ d) Antibiotic for secondary infections\ **Answer: a) NMDA receptor antagonist to enhance pain control** 75. **Which NSAID is commonly used for pain and inflammation associated with laminitis in horses?**\ a) Phenylbutazone\ b) Robenacoxib\ c) Gabapentin\ d) Dexamethasone\ **Answer: a) Phenylbutazone** 1. **Which of the following drugs is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for sedation in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Acepromazine\ b) Dexmedetomidine\ c) Atropine\ d) Ketamine\ **Answer: b) Dexmedetomidine** 2. **What is the primary purpose of premedication before anesthesia?**\ a) To reduce surgical time\ b) To reduce anxiety and provide analgesia\ c) To enhance wound healing\ d) To increase blood pressure\ **Answer: b) To reduce anxiety and provide analgesia** 3. **Which of the following is a phenothiazine tranquilizer commonly used in veterinary premedication?**\ a) Diazepam\ b) Acepromazine\ c) Xylazine\ d) Propofol\ **Answer: b) Acepromazine** 4. **Which drug is an opioid commonly used in premedication protocols?**\ a) Butorphanol\ b) Atropine\ c) Lidocaine\ d) Alfaxalone\ **Answer: a) Butorphanol** 5. **Which of the following drugs is an anticholinergic commonly used to reduce salivation and prevent bradycardia during anesthesia?**\ a) Atropine\ b) Acepromazine\ c) Xylazine\ d) Propofol\ **Answer: a) Atropine** 6. **Which sedative provides both sedation and significant analgesia?**\ a) Midazolam\ b) Dexmedetomidine\ c) Acepromazine\ d) Propofol\ **Answer: b) Dexmedetomidine** 7. **What is the reversal agent for dexmedetomidine?**\ a) Atropine\ b) Flumazenil\ c) Atipamezole\ d) Naloxone\ **Answer: c) Atipamezole** 8. **Which benzodiazepine is commonly used for muscle relaxation and premedication in small animals?**\ a) Diazepam\ b) Xylazine\ c) Butorphanol\ d) Propofol\ **Answer: a) Diazepam** 9. **Which premedication drug should be avoided in animals prone to seizures due to its pro-convulsant potential?**\ a) Acepromazine\ b) Atropine\ c) Midazolam\ d) Ketamine\ **Answer: d) Ketamine** 10. **Which of the following is a partial opioid agonist?**\ a) Morphine\ b) Buprenorphine\ c) Fentanyl\ d) Hydromorphone\ **Answer: b) Buprenorphine** #### Inhalation Agents 11. **Which inhalation anesthetic agent has the fastest induction and recovery times?**\ a) Isoflurane\ b) Halothane\ c) Sevoflurane\ d) Methoxyflurane\ **Answer: c) Sevoflurane** 12. **Which inhalation agent is most commonly used in veterinary anesthesia?**\ a) Nitrous oxide\ b) Isoflurane\ c) Desflurane\ d) Halothane\ **Answer: b) Isoflurane** 13. **What is the primary mechanism of action of inhalation anesthetics?**\ a) Inhibition of sodium channels\ b) Potentiation of GABA receptors\ c) Stimulation of NMDA receptors\ d) Activation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors\ **Answer: b) Potentiation of GABA receptors** 14. **Which inhalation anesthetic has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient, resulting in rapid onset and recovery?**\ a) Sevoflurane\ b) Isoflurane\ c) Halothane\ d) Methoxyflurane\ **Answer: a) Sevoflurane** 15. **Which inhalation anesthetic is associated with the highest risk of arrhythmias?**\ a) Halothane\ b) Isoflurane\ c) Sevoflurane\ d) Desflurane\ **Answer: a) Halothane** 16. **Which inhalation agent is known for its ability to maintain cardiovascular stability?**\ a) Isoflurane\ b) Halothane\ c) Nitrous oxide\ d) Methoxyflurane\ **Answer: a) Isoflurane** 17. **What is the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalant anesthetic?**\ a) The amount of drug needed to cause respiratory arrest\ b) The concentration required to prevent movement in 50% of patients exposed to a painful stimulus\ c) The maximum dose tolerated without side effects\ d) The dose required to induce anesthesia in all patients\ **Answer: b) The concentration required to prevent movement in 50% of patients exposed to a painful stimulus** 18. **Which inhalation anesthetic agent is least likely to cause hepatic toxicity?**\ a) Halothane\ b) Isoflurane\ c) Methoxyflurane\ d) Enflurane\ **Answer: b) Isoflurane** 19. **What is the main purpose of using nitrous oxide in veterinary anesthesia?**\ a) It provides muscle relaxation\ b) It increases MAC of other inhalants\ c) It provides analgesia and reduces the dose of other agents\ d) It prevents hypotension\ **Answer: c) It provides analgesia and reduces the dose of other agents** 20. **Which of the following inhalation anesthetics has a pungent odor that can cause patient resistance during mask induction?**\ a) Isoflurane\ b) Sevoflurane\ c) Halothane\ d) Desflurane\ **Answer: d) Desflurane** #### Injectable Anesthetic Agents 21. **Which injectable anesthetic is an NMDA receptor antagonist?**\ a) Ketamine\ b) Propofol\ c) Thiopental\ d) Alfaxalone\ **Answer: a) Ketamine** 22. **Which of the following injectable anesthetics is associated with a smooth induction and recovery?**\ a) Thiopental\ b) Alfaxalone\ c) Etomidate\ d) Ketamine\ **Answer: b) Alfaxalone** 23. **Which injectable anesthetic is commonly used in patients with cardiovascular instability?**\ a) Propofol\ b) Ketamine\ c) Etomidate\ d) Thiopental\ **Answer: c) Etomidate** 24. **What is the primary adverse effect of propofol?**\ a) Respiratory depression\ b) Hypertension\ c) Increased salivation\ d) Bradycardia\ **Answer: a) Respiratory depression** 25. **Which injectable anesthetic has significant analgesic properties?**\ a) Propofol\ b) Ketamine\ c) Alfaxalone\ d) Etomidate\ **Answer: b) Ketamine** 26. **Which drug can cause adrenal suppression when used for anesthesia?**\ a) Etomidate\ b) Ketamine\ c) Propofol\ d) Alfaxalone\ **Answer: a) Etomidate** 27. **Which injectable anesthetic is most suitable for use in sighthounds due to its rapid clearance?**\ a) Alfaxalone\ b) Thiopental\ c) Ketamine\ d) Etomidate\ **Answer: a) Alfaxalone** 28. **Which drug is a barbiturate commonly used for short procedures in veterinary medicine?**\ a) Thiopental\ b) Alfaxalone\ c) Propofol\ d) Ketamine\ **Answer: a) Thiopental** 29. **Which injectable anesthetic is known for its potential to cause myoclonus or muscle rigidity during induction?**\ a) Ketamine\ b) Propofol\ c) Alfaxalone\ d) Etomidate\ **Answer: d) Etomidate** 30. **Which of the following is a key benefit of alfaxalone compared to propofol?**\ a) Provides significant analgesia\ b) Can be used safely in cats and dogs with hypoproteinemia\ c) Does not cause apnea on rapid administration\ d) Has a higher potency\ **Answer: b) Can be used safely in cats and dogs with hypoproteinemia** 1. **Which of the following is a commonly used diuretic in veterinary medicine for the management of congestive heart failure (CHF)?**\ a) Enalapril\ b) Furosemide\ c) Amlodipine\ d) Spironolactone\ **Answer: b) Furosemide** 2. **Which class of drug is commonly used to treat arrhythmias in dogs with heart disease?**\ a) Beta-blockers\ b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors\ c) Diuretics\ d) Calcium channel blockers\ **Answer: a) Beta-blockers** 3. **What is the primary purpose of ACE inhibitors in the treatment of heart failure?**\ a) To decrease the heart rate\ b) To reduce fluid accumulation and decrease blood pressure\ c) To increase the strength of heart contractions\ d) To prevent arrhythmias\ **Answer: b) To reduce fluid accumulation and decrease blood pressure** 4. **Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension in cats with hyperthyroidism?**\ a) Amlodipine\ b) Hydralazine\ c) Enalapril\ d) Spironolactone\ **Answer: a) Amlodipine** 5. **Which drug is a positive inotrope commonly used in the treatment of heart failure?**\ a) Digoxin\ b) Furosemide\ c) Pimobendan\ d) Atenolol\ **Answer: c) Pimobendan** 6. **Which of the following drugs is used to treat atrial fibrillation in dogs?**\ a) Diltiazem\ b) Furosemide\ c) Enalapril\ d) Spironolactone\ **Answer: a) Diltiazem** 7. **Which of the following medications is a potassium-sparing diuretic often used in combination with other diuretics in heart failure treatment?**\ a) Spironolactone\ b) Furosemide\ c) Hydrochlorothiazide\ d) Torsemide\ **Answer: a) Spironolactone** 8. **Which of the following drugs is a vasodilator that is often used to treat chronic heart failure in dogs?**\ a) Nitroglycerin\ b) Enalapril\ c) Furosemide\ d) Pimobendan\ **Answer: b) Enalapril** 9. **What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors like enalapril or benazepril?**\ a) Hypertension\ b) Hyperkalemia\ c) Diarrhea\ d) Liver toxicity\ **Answer: b) Hyperkalemia** 10. **Which drug is often used to treat hypotension caused by shock or low cardiac output?**\ a) Dopamine\ b) Furosemide\ c) Amlodipine\ d) Enalapril\ **Answer: a) Dopamine** #### Respiratory Disease 11. **Which drug is commonly used to treat chronic bronchitis in dogs?**\ a) Prednisone\ b) Theophylline\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Amlodipine\ **Answer: b) Theophylline** 12. **What is the primary function of bronchodilators in the treatment of respiratory diseases?**\ a) To reduce mucus production\ b) To dilate the airways and improve airflow\ c) To reduce lung inflammation\ d) To stimulate the cough reflex\ **Answer: b) To dilate the airways and improve airflow** 13. **Which of the following corticosteroids is commonly used for the management of asthma in cats?**\ a) Hydrocortisone\ b) Prednisolone\ c) Methylprednisolone\ d) Fluticasone\ **Answer: b) Prednisolone** 14. **Which drug is used to treat kennel cough in dogs caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica?**\ a) Doxycycline\ b) Metronidazole\ c) Amoxicillin\ d) Furosemide\ **Answer: a) Doxycycline** 15. **Which of the following drugs is used as a mucolytic agent in the treatment of respiratory disease in dogs and cats?**\ a) Acetylcysteine\ b) Albuterol\ c) Theophylline\ d) Fluticasone\ **Answer: a) Acetylcysteine** 16. **Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat airway inflammation and reduce bronchoconstriction in asthma?**\ a) Bronchodilators\ b) Corticosteroids\ c) Mucolytics\ d) Antihistamines\ **Answer: b) Corticosteroids** 17. **What is the mechanism of action of theophylline in treating respiratory diseases?**\ a) It relaxes bronchial smooth muscles by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.\ b) It increases the production of surfactant.\ c) It reduces inflammation by inhibiting histamine release.\ d) It decreases mucus production.\ **Answer: a) It relaxes bronchial smooth muscles by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.** 18. **Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the emergency treatment of acute respiratory distress due to bronchospasm in dogs?**\ a) Albuterol\ b) Methadone\ c) Prednisone\ d) Theophylline\ **Answer: a) Albuterol** 19. **Which of the following drugs is typically used in the treatment of feline asthma?**\ a) Theophylline\ b) Furosemide\ c) Prednisolone or inhaled corticosteroids\ d) Doxycycline\ **Answer: c) Prednisolone or inhaled corticosteroids** 20. **Which of the following treatments is commonly used for hypoxemia associated with severe respiratory disease?**\ a) Oxygen therapy\ b) Antihistamines\ c) Decongestants\ d) Beta-blockers\ **Answer: a) Oxygen therapy** 21. **Which bronchodilator is commonly used for both acute and chronic treatment of bronchospasm in small animals?**\ a) Albuterol\ b) Methadone\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Furosemide\ **Answer: a) Albuterol** 22. **What is the role of diuretics such as furosemide in treating respiratory disease?**\ a) They dilate the airways.\ b) They reduce airway inflammation.\ c) They reduce pulmonary edema.\ d) They increase mucus production.\ **Answer: c) They reduce pulmonary edema.** 23. **Which drug is used to treat pulmonary hypertension in dogs?**\ a) Sildenafil\ b) Amiodarone\ c) Digoxin\ d) Clopidogrel\ **Answer: a) Sildenafil** 24. **Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat bacterial pneumonia in dogs?**\ a) Amoxicillin-clavulanate\ b) Prednisolone\ c) Theophylline\ d) Fluticasone\ **Answer: a) Amoxicillin-clavulanate** 25. **Which of the following is a side effect commonly seen with the long-term use of corticosteroids in respiratory disease treatment?**\ a) Hyperglycemia\ b) Tachycardia\ c) Hypotension\ d) Anemia\ **Answer: a) Hyperglycemia** Let me know if you\'d like more questions or further clarification on any topic! 4o mini ##### You said: more please ###### ChatGPT said: ChatGPT ### More Multiple Choice Questions: Therapeutics of Cardiovascular and Respiratory Disease in Veterinary Medicine #### Cardiovascular Disease 26. **Which of the following is a common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide in the treatment of heart failure?**\ a) Hyperkalemia\ b) Hypokalemia\ c) Hypercalcemia\ d) Hypoglycemia\ **Answer: b) Hypokalemia** 27. **Which drug is often used as a vasodilator in the treatment of acute heart failure in dogs?**\ a) Nitroglycerin\ b) Amlodipine\ c) Pimobendan\ d) Enalapril\ **Answer: a) Nitroglycerin** 28. **Which of the following drugs is a selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker commonly used in dogs with arrhythmias?**\ a) Metoprolol\ b) Amlodipine\ c) Digoxin\ d) Spironolactone\ **Answer: a) Metoprolol** 29. **Which of the following is a common clinical indication for the use of enalapril in dogs?**\ a) Hypertension\ b) Acute ventricular arrhythmias\ c) Chronic kidney disease and heart failure\ d) Hyperthyroidism\ **Answer: c) Chronic kidney disease and heart failure** 30. **Which of the following drugs is used as a positive inotrope for the treatment of heart failure?**\ a) Carvedilol\ b) Pimobendan\ c) Diltiazem\ d) Hydralazine\ **Answer: b) Pimobendan** 31. **What is the effect of furosemide in patients with heart failure?**\ a) It causes vasodilation to decrease blood pressure.\ b) It increases the strength of the heart\'s contraction.\ c) It reduces fluid buildup by increasing urine output.\ d) It increases blood flow to the kidneys.\ **Answer: c) It reduces fluid buildup by increasing urine output.** 32. **Which of the following drugs is often used to treat atrial fibrillation in dogs?**\ a) Procainamide\ b) Furosemide\ c) Atenolol\ d) Enalapril\ **Answer: a) Procainamide** 33. **Which of the following is a benefit of using pimobendan in dogs with heart failure?**\ a) It reduces myocardial oxygen demand.\ b) It reduces blood pressure significantly.\ c) It increases myocardial contractility and dilates blood vessels.\ d) It lowers heart rate.\ **Answer: c) It increases myocardial contractility and dilates blood vessels.** 34. **What is the primary benefit of using spironolactone in heart failure management?**\ a) It acts as a potassium-sparing diuretic.\ b) It helps reduce heart rate.\ c) It increases the force of myocardial contraction.\ d) It prevents arrhythmias.\ **Answer: a) It acts as a potassium-sparing diuretic.** #### Respiratory Disease 35. **Which of the following bronchodilators is used for the emergency management of acute bronchospasm in cats with asthma?**\ a) Albuterol\ b) Hydrocodone\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Prednisolone\ **Answer: a) Albuterol** 36. **Which drug is typically used as an anti-inflammatory treatment in dogs with chronic bronchitis?**\ a) Furosemide\ b) Prednisone\ c) Albuterol\ d) Theophylline\ **Answer: b) Prednisone** 37. **Which of the following medications is used to suppress coughing in dogs with respiratory disease?**\ a) Hydrocodone\ b) Amlodipine\ c) Theophylline\ d) Terbutaline\ **Answer: a) Hydrocodone** 38. **Which of the following treatments is most commonly used to treat bacterial pneumonia in dogs?**\ a) Corticosteroids\ b) Bronchodilators\ c) Antibiotics such as amoxicillin-clavulanate\ d) Oxygen therapy\ **Answer: c) Antibiotics such as amoxicillin-clavulanate** 39. **What is the primary purpose of using corticosteroids in the treatment of feline asthma?**\ a) To increase bronchial smooth muscle relaxation\ b) To reduce airway inflammation\ c) To stimulate respiratory drive\ d) To increase the production of surfactant\ **Answer: b) To reduce airway inflammation** 40. **Which of the following drugs is commonly used as an adjunct therapy in the treatment of respiratory disease to help reduce coughing in dogs?**\ a) Hydrocodone\ b) Albuterol\ c) Prednisolone\ d) Furosemide\ **Answer: a) Hydrocodone** 41. **What is the mechanism of action of theophylline in treating respiratory diseases like bronchitis in dogs?**\ a) It inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells.\ b) It relaxes smooth muscles and dilates the airways.\ c) It reduces inflammation in the lungs.\ d) It increases mucus production in the respiratory tract.\ **Answer: b) It relaxes smooth muscles and dilates the airways.** 42. **Which of the following is a primary use of acetylcysteine in respiratory disease management in veterinary patients?**\ a) To reduce airway inflammation\ b) To act as a bronchodilator\ c) To reduce mucus viscosity and facilitate its removal\ d) To suppress coughing\ **Answer: c) To reduce mucus viscosity and facilitate its removal** 43. **Which of the following respiratory drugs is used to treat pulmonary edema associated with left-sided heart failure?**\ a) Furosemide\ b) Prednisolone\ c) Doxycycline\ d) Hydrocodone\ **Answer: a) Furosemide** 44. **What is the primary action of bronchodilators such as albuterol in the treatment of asthma in dogs and cats?**\ a) They reduce inflammation of the airways.\ b) They increase mucus production.\ c) They relax bronchial smooth muscle and open the airways.\ d) They stimulate the cough reflex to clear the airways.\ **Answer: c) They relax bronchial smooth muscle and open the airways.** 45. **Which medication is commonly used in veterinary medicine as a decongestant in respiratory conditions?**\ a) Albuterol\ b) Pseudoephedrine\ c) Dexamethasone\ d) Theophylline\ **Answer: b) Pseudoephedrine** 46. **Which of the following is a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy in treating respiratory diseases?**\ a) Diarrhea\ b) Hyperglycemia\ c) Hypotension\ d) Bradycardia\ **Answer: b) Hyperglycemia** 47. **Which bronchodilator is often used to treat both acute and chronic symptoms of canine bronchitis?**\ a) Prednisolone\ b) Theophylline\ c) Albuterol\ d) Dexamethasone\ **Answer: b) Theophylline** 48. **What is the main goal in the treatment of canine pulmonary hypertension?**\ a) To decrease oxygen consumption\ b) To increase pulmonary vasodilation and improve oxygenation\ c) To increase blood viscosity\ d) To reduce the heart rate\ **Answer: b) To increase pulmonary vasodilation and improve oxygenation** 49. **Which of the following is a major treatment for cats with asthma to reduce airway inflammation?**\ a) Bronchodilators\ b) Mucolytics\ c) Antihistamines\ d) Inhaled corticosteroids\ **Answer: d) Inhaled corticosteroids** 50. **Which of the following is commonly used as a first-line treatment for bacterial respiratory infections in dogs?**\ a) Penicillin\ b) Doxycycline\ c) Prednisolone\ d) Theophylline\ **Answer: b) Doxycycline**