Human Body Introduction to the Human Body PDF

Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy an...

Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 01: Introduction to the Human Body Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: D 2. Which word comes from the Greek word meaning “to dissect”? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: A 3. Which of the following is a higher order of organization? a. Molecule b. Cell c. Organ d. Tissue ANS: C 4. The head is located to the chest. a. anterior b. inferior c. deep d. superior ANS: D 5. The foot is located to the leg. a. proximal b. superior c. superficial d. distal ANS: D 6. The leg is to the thigh. a. distal b. proximal c. superior d. deep ANS: A Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 7. The thigh is to the foot. a. distal b. proximal c. inferior d. deep ANS: B 8. The thoracic cavity is to the abdominopelvic cavity. a. deep b. distal c. anterior d. superior ANS: D 9. The kneecap is located distal to the a. leg. b. thigh. c. foot. d. toes. ANS: B 10. Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Lung d. Spinal cord ANS: C 11. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity? a. Lung b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain ANS: C 12. Which organ is located in the dorsal cavity? a. Liver b. Brain c. Heart d. Urinary bladder ANS: B 13. Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs? a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum ANS: C 14. Which cavity is divided into quadrants? a. Thoracic b. Abdominopelvic c. Dorsal d. Cranial ANS: B 15. Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? a. Umbilical b. Hypogastric c. Right iliac d. Right hypochondriac ANS: D 16. Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)? a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. Left iliac ANS: D 17. Which of the following refers to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Armpit c. Navel d. Patellar ANS: C 18. Which of the following refers to the lower back region? a. Groin b. Axillary c. Umbilical d. Lumbar ANS: D 19. Which of the following refers to the groin region? a. Axillary b. Lumbar c. Cranial d. Inguinal ANS: D 20. Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow? Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Antecubital d. Popliteal ANS: C 21. Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body? a. Popliteal b. Umbilical c. Lumbar d. Occipital ANS: B 22. Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body? a. Gluteal b. Patellar c. Umbilical d. Sternal ANS: A 23. Which area is inferior to the diaphragm? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Occipital d. Cervical ANS: B 24. What is another name for the frontal plane? a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane ANS: D 25. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Frontal ANS: A 26. In which cavity is the mediastinum located? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Thoracic d. Abdominal Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: C 27. Which organ is located within the mediastinum? a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Liver d. Heart ANS: D 28. In which cavity is the heart not located? a. Mediastinum b. Thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity d. Dorsal cavity ANS: D 29. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum? a. Lung b. Liver c. Stomach d. Heart ANS: A 30. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain ANS: C 31. Which group is incorrect? a. Cavities: dorsal, ventral b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic c. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory, brain d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, liver ANS: C 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial c. Dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral d. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory ANS: B 33. The distal humerus (arm bone) is a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow. b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. distal to the wrist. d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area. ANS: D 34. The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is a. distal to the knee. b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area. c. distal to the pedal area. d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area. ANS: D 35. The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head? a. Inferior b. Deep c. Anterior d. Superior ANS: A 36. Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Popliteal area c. Sternal area d. Pelvic cavity ANS: C 37. The heart is located in all the following except the a. mediastinum. b. ventral cavity. c. cranial cavity. d. thoracic cavity. ANS: C 38. The lungs are located in all the following except the a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. ventral cavity. d. pleural cavity. ANS: B 39. Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity? a. It contains the mediastinum. b. It contains the brain and spinal cord. c. It contains the thoracic cavity. d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity. ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 40. The sternal area is a. superior to the cervical region. b. the breastbone area. c. deep to the mediastinum. d. inferior to the thoracic cavity. ANS: B 41. Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum? a. Thoracic cavity b. Dorsal cavity c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. RUQ ANS: A 42. The sagittal plane a. is also called the coronal plane. b. splits the body into a top and bottom. c. splits the body into front and back. d. splits the body into right and left. ANS: D 43. Which of the following is least descriptive of the occipital area? a. Cranial b. Midepigastric c. Posterior head d. Superior to the cervical area ANS: B 44. A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which of the following indicates the site of pain? a. Lower back b. Both knees c. Neck d. RUQ ANS: C 45. The LUQ is a. inferior to the sternal area. b. inferior to the epigastric region. c. inferior to the umbilical region. d. located in the groin. ANS: A 46. Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade? a. Cervical b. Lumbar Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Flank pain d. Subscapular ANS: D 47. Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region? a. Scapular b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Gluteal ANS: A 48. A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the following areas is involved surgically? a. RUQ b. Umbilical region c. Right iliac region d. Right hypochondriac region ANS: C 49. Refer to the previous question. On the first postoperative day, the patient is most likely to experience pain when he a. brushes his teeth. b. eats breakfast. c. walks. d. speaks on the phone. ANS: C 50. A physician has diagnosed a patient as having an enlarged liver. According to the patient’s chart, his liver is measured as being two fingers below the costal margin of the rib cage. Where was the physician palpating (feeling) to get this measurement? a. Umbilical region b. LUQ c. Hypogastric region d. RUQ ANS: D 51. A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient’s pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a restatement of this description? a. The pain is sharp and is associated with nausea and vomiting. b. The pain is indicative of an inguinal hernia. c. The pain begins in the chest and radiates to the left flank and medial thigh. d. The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area. ANS: D 52. A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to the right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain? Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin b. Crushing chest pain c. Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder d. High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area ANS: D 53. Which plane preserves an upper and lower half of the body? a. Transverse plane b. Coronal plane c. Frontal plane d. Midsagittal ANS: A 54. Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pleural cavities c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. All of the above ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true? a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee. d. The distal tibia (shin bone) is closed to the knee than to the ankle ANS: C 56. Which of the following is true? a. The distal thigh bone (femur) is closer to the hip than to the knee. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The distal shin bone (tibia) is closer to the ankle than to the knee. d. The lateral thigh is closer to the midline of the body than is the medial thigh. ANS: C 57. The medial thigh is located a. along the plantar surface of the foot. b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity. c. on the inner thigh region. d. distal to the popliteal region. ANS: C 58. Which term refers to “beneath the ribs”? a. Iliac b. Inguinal c. Hypochondriac d. RLQ Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: C 59. The term viscera refers to a. the organs of the body. b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity. c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity. d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity. ANS: A 60. The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the is the posterior cavity. a. thoracic cavity b. dorsal cavity c. pleural cavity d. mediastinum ANS: B 61. The caudal part of the spinal cord is a. superior to the thoracic part of the spinal cord. b. located near the tailbone. c. interior to the cervical spinal cord. d. located near the brain. ANS: B 62. Which of the following includes the right iliac region? a. RUQ b. Epigastric region c. Umbilical region d. RLQ ANS: D 63. The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is a. located near the nose. b. located near the ear. c. superior to the eyebrow. d. inferior to the eyelid. ANS: A 64. The plantar region is a. located in the upper extremities. b. the bottom of the foot. c. proximal to the knee. d. the groin. ANS: B 65. Which two words are directional “opposites”? a. Proximal, femoral b. Caudal, cephalic Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Distal, peripheral d. Anterior, superficial ANS: B 66. Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to a. lower extremities areas. b. arm. c. toes. d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap. ANS: A 67. Which of the following terms refers to the area along the lateral trunk between the ribs and the hip bones? a. Inguinal b. Visceral c. Flank d. Gluteal ANS: C 68. Buccal, oral, and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the a. neck. b. head. c. flank. d. inguinal area. ANS: B 69. With which word is lower back pain associated? a. Flank b. Inguinal c. Lumbar d. Popliteal ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 02: Basic Chemistry Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus? a. Isotopes b. Protons c. Electrons d. Neutrons ANS: C 2. Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]? a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Isotope d. pH ANS: D 3. The sharing of electrons is referred to as a. covalent bonding. b. ionic bonding. c. radioactive decay. d. isotope formation. ANS: A 4. Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic? a. Iodine b. Iron c. Carbon d. Calcium ANS: C 5. A cation is a(n) a. positively charged ion. b. electrolyte. c. isotope. d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2. ANS: A 6. Which of the following is an anion? a. Sodium ion b. Potassium ion c. Chloride ion d. Calcium ion ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 7. What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits? a. Cation b. Electrolyte c. Acid d. Anion ANS: D 8. Which of the following is true of an anion? a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes. b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15. c. An anion carries a negative charge. d. A hydrogen ion is an anion. ANS: C 9. NaCl, table salt, is called a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. cation. d. ion. ANS: B 10. Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na+ and Cl–? a. Radioactivity b. Ionization c. Covalent bonding d. Hydrogen bonding ANS: B 11. Which of the following is descriptive of the chemical reaction in the previous question? a. Cation + anion → electrolyte b. Electrolyte → cation + anion c. Electrolyte + anion → cation d. Neutralization of an acid by a base ANS: B 12. Which of the following is an anion? a. NaCl b. KCl c. H2SO4 d. HCO3– ANS: D 13. Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid–base regulation? a. HCl Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Ca(OH)2 c. HCO3– d. KCl ANS: C 14. Which compound is the universal solvent? a. Carbon dioxide b. Oxygen c. ATP d. Water ANS: D 15. [H+] refers to a. an isotope of hydrogen. b. heavy hydrogen. c. hydrogen bonding. d. hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: D 16. Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Catalyst d. ATP ANS: B 17. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction? a. An isotope b. A cation c. A catalyst d. ATP ANS: C 18. What is the energy-transferring molecule? a. H+ b. ATP c. Ca2+ d. NaCl ANS: B 19. Which of the following acts as a catalyst? a. An acid b. An enzyme c. A buffer d. ATP Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: B 20. Fe2+ is formed when iron a. gains 2 protons. b. gains 2 electrons. c. loses 2 protons. d. loses 2 electrons. ANS: D 21. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. It is an anion. b. It is an electrolyte. c. It bonds ionically with Ca2+. d. It is a cation. ANS: D 22. Which of the following carries no net electrical charge? a. An anion b. A cation c. A polar molecule d. An ion ANS: C 23. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity? a. NaCl → Na+ + Cl– b. HCl → H+ + Cl– c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O d. KCl → K+ + Cl– ANS: C 24. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all a. trace elements. b. compounds. c. radioactive. d. isotopes of hydrogen. ANS: A 25. Iron can be a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. acid. d. cation. ANS: D 26. Which of the following is described by this statement? One atom of oxygen bonds covalently with two atoms of hydrogen. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. Carbon dioxide b. A tincture c. Water d. Neutralization of an acid with a base ANS: C 27. A solution that has a pH of 6.8 a. has a neutral pH. b. is alkaline. c. is basic. d. is acidic. ANS: D 28. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0. ANS: C 29. Which pH is considered neutral? a. 7.35 b. 7.45 c. 7.00 d. 14.0 ANS: C 30. Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore a. is acidic. b. is three to four times more viscous (thicker) than water. c. has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents. d. is alkaline. ANS: D 31. In which of the following is the number of hydrogen ions greater? a. An alkaline solution b. A basic solution c. Blood d. A solution with a pH of 6.2 ANS: D 32. An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic a. number of 6. b. mass of 2. c. mass of 4. d. number of 4. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: C 33. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons. b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons. c. 1 proton and 1 neutron. d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons. ANS: C 34. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation? a. Add 1 neutron. b. Add 1 proton. c. Lose 1 electron. d. Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron. ANS: C 35. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form of energy? a. Thermal b. Radiant c. Mechanical d. Nuclear ANS: C 36. Which of the following best describes a solution in which water is the solvent? a. Colloidal suspension b. Aqueous solution c. Tincture d. Isotope ANS: B 37. Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent? a. Tincture b. Alkaline c. Acid d. Aqueous ANS: A 38. A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n) a. mixture. b. colloidal suspension. c. tincture. d. isotope. ANS: A 39. Which of the following can neutralize H+? a. Ca2+ Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Na+ c. OH– d. H2O ANS: C 40. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Mixtures: suspension, colloidal suspension, solution b. Ions: Na+, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ c. Electrolytes: NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, HCO 3– d. Cations: Na+, Ca2+, K+, H+ ANS: C 41. The ionization of salt (NaCl) a. produces an acid and a base. b. produces an electrolyte. c. lowers pH. d. produces a cation and an anion. ANS: D 42. Which of the following is true of iodine and radioactive iodine? a. Both have the same atomic numbers. b. Both have the same atomic masses. c. Neither has electrons in its orbit. d. Both create radiation hazards. ANS: A 43. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. Called the sodium ion b. Has fewer protons than electrons c. Called an anion d. Lowers pH ANS: A 44. Which of the following is true of Cl–? a. Is an electrolyte b. Is an anion c. Increases pH d. Decreases pH ANS: B 45. Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl? a. Is called bicarbonate b. Is an acid c. Raises pH d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl– ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 46. Water is a(n) a. molecule. b. aqueous solvent. c. compound. d. All of the above. ANS: D 47. An atom that has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons a. has an atomic mass of 7. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic number of 4. d. has an atomic number of 10. ANS: A 48. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons, 3 neutrons, and 3 electrons. Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms? a. Mixture b. Cation c. Electrolyte d. Isotope ANS: D 49. An atom has 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. It a. has an atomic number of 8. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic mass of 12. d. has an atomic mass of 8. ANS: D 50. ATP a. is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. b. is an energy transfer molecule. c. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. d. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH. ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nucleus of the atom? a. Contents determine the atomic number b. Contents determine the atomic mass c. “Home” of the protons d. All of the above ANS: D 52. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent? a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Types of bonding d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced ANS: C 53. An electrolyte a. dissociates into ions. b. yields only cations. c. always yields H+ and lowers pH. d. always removes H+ and increases pH. ANS: A 54. A catalyst a. is an H+-yielding molecule. b. is an acid. c. is an alkali. d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction. ANS: D 55. Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Catalyst d. pH ANS: C 56. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28 a. has an excess of H+. b. has a blood pH that is within normal limits. c. is alkalotic. d. has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid. ANS: A 57. A solution with a pH of 8 a. is more acidic than blood. b. is more acidic than stomach contents. c. has more H+ than urine. d. is more alkaline than blood. ANS: D 58. The pH of urine a. is always more alkaline than blood. b. is always acidic. c. can be acidic or alkaline. d. is more acidic than stomach contents. ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 59. The addition of H+ to blood a. increases blood pH. b. makes the blood more acidic. c. makes the blood more alkaline. d. changes the blood pH from 7.4 to 7.8. ANS: B 60. Blood is called a colloidal suspension because a. it has a pH of 7.4. b. it is alkaline. c. it consists of the suspended plasma proteins. d. it consists of the sodium and chloride ions. ANS: C 61. Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl  Na+ + Cl–? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Anabolic d. Irreversible ANS: B 62. An atom of oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore a. it can share electrons with another identical atom. b. it can share electrons with another oxygen atom. c. it can form O2. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D 63. An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby a. forming an acid. b. ionizing. c. forming a molecule of water. d. forming an anion and cation. ANS: C 64. A molecule of water has a (+) charge at one and a (–) charge at the other end of the molecule. What is the best description? a. Radioactive b. Tincture c. Polar molecule d. Ionization ANS: C 65. Intestinal secretions are alkaline. What can decrease its pH? a. The addition of H+ in the form of HCl b. Drinking baking soda (NaHCO3) Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Neutralization of gastric (stomach) HCl d. Drinking lots of water ANS: A 66. What do the following have in common: Pb, plumbism, and plumber? All terms refer to a. persons who work with pipes. b. toxic effects of a trace element. c. toxic cations. d. lead. ANS: D 67. Which group is correct? a. Subatomic particles lo+ cate+ d within– the n+ucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons b. Common cations: Na , K , HCO , NH 3 4 c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3–, HCl ANS: C 68. Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical reaction? a. Acid b. Base c. Solid d. Solution ANS: C 69. In the reaction HCl → H+ + Cl– a. HCl ionizes, thereby yielding the cation (H+) and anion (Cl–). b. hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation. c. HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D 70. Which group is correct? a. Blood pH 7.50, alkaline, turns litmus paper pink b. Blood pH 7.2, acidosis, turns litmus paper pink c. Blood pH 7.35, normal blood pH, turns litmus paper blue d. More than one of the above are true. ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 03: Cells Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Nucleus c. Lysosome d. Centriole ANS: B 2. The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because within the mitochondrion. a. most of the ATP is produced b. all protein synthesis occurs c. all DNA is located d. all ribosomes are located ANS: A 3. Which of the following is (are) found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Ribosomes b. Cilia c. Lysosomes d. DNA ANS: A 4. The rough ER is the site of a. fatty acid and steroid synthesis. b. Krebs cycle activity. c. protein synthesis. d. intracellular water storage. ANS: C 5. Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome? a. ATP production b. Intracellular housecleaning c. Glycogen storage d. Protein synthesis ANS: D 6. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that “pulls” water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water? a. Filtration b. Endocytosis c. An ATP-driven pump Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Osmosis ANS: D 7. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a pressure difference as its driving force? a. Facilitated diffusion b. An ATP-driven pump c. Diffusion d. Filtration ANS: D 8. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl–. Initially, a. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Na+ diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: D 9. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in both compartments A and B will be equal. c. concentration of compartment A will decrease. d. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. ANS: D 10. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl–. Initially, a. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment B to compartment A. b. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment A to compartment B. d. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B and Cl– diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A 11. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. c. concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments. d. concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: C 12. What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes c. Cilia d. Centrioles ANS: C 13. What is the extensive internal membrane system that forms channels and is concerned with the synthesis of protein and steroids? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. DNA ANS: C 14. Lysosomes are filled with a. powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens. b. cilia. c. DNA. d. blood. ANS: A 15. Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport? a. ATP b. Pressure c. DNA d. H+ ANS: A 16. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration? a. Osmosis b. An ATP-driven pump c. Filtration d. Facilitated diffusion ANS: D 17. What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein–containing vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Phagocytosis ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 18. Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Endocytosis c. Filtration d. Exocytosis ANS: B 19. Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”? a. Endocytosis b. Hemolysis c. Crenation d. Catalyst ANS: B 20. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will a. crenate. b. shrink. c. swell and burst. d. differentiate. ANS: C 21. Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells? a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic c. Hypertonic d. Water ANS: C 22. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are phases of a. active transport. b. mitosis. c. differentiation. d. pinocytosis. ANS: B 23. G1, G2, the S phase, and the M phase are phases of a. the cell cycle. b. mitosis. c. protein synthesis. d. the cell cycle that is specific to cancer cells. ANS: A 24. Pinocytosis a. is a passive process. b. requires a pressure gradient as its driving force. c. refers to cellular drinking. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. is a form of exocytosis. ANS: C 25. Which of the following best describes normal saline? a. Radioactive b. Hemolytic to red blood cells c. Isotonic d. Crenating to red blood cells ANS: C 26. Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome? a. Differentiation b. Phagocytosis c. Meiosis d. Hemolysis ANS: B 27. In which structure is most DNA found? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondrion c. Lysosome d. Golgi apparatus ANS: A 28. Which structure is is described as rough or smooth? a. Ribosome b. Mitochondrion c. Cilia d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D 29. Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell but outside the nucleus? a. Nucleoplasm b. Isotonic saline c. Cytoplasm d. Lysosomal enzymes ANS: C 30. Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion? a. ATP-driven b. Passive transport c. Requires a pressure or pushing force d. Causes solute to move uphill ANS: B 31. The skunk makes his presence known by Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. filtration. b. osmosis. c. active transport. d. diffusion. ANS: D 32. Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in response to a. filtration. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. endocytosis. ANS: C 33. Which process describes the pushing of water across the capillary (blood vessel) membrane? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Osmosis c. Filtration d. Pinocytosis ANS: C 34. Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. Lysosome d. Nucleolus ANS: B 35. Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like sandpaper? a. Ribosomes b. Globs of cytoplasm c. ATP d. Fragments of DNA ANS: A 36. Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer? a. Lysosome b. Mitochondrion c. Ribosome d. Cell membrane ANS: D 37. The selectively permeable membrane a. is a result of its composition; it is tough connective tissue, much like a ligament. b. determines which substances enter and leave the cell. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. allows for the unrestricted movement of water and electrolytes across the cell membrane. d. permits diffusion but not osmosis. ANS: B 38. Which of the following is least true of mitochondria? a. Found only within liver cells b. Make most of the body’s ATP c. Contain enzymes that function aerobically d. Located within the cytoplasm ANS: A 39. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Most ATP is produced in the mitochondria. b. Mitochondria contain potent enzymes that digest cellular waste and debris. c. Most DNA is located within the mitochondria. d. The RER is concerned with phagocytosis. ANS: A 40. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable to the salt and water. At equilibrium, a. the volume in CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. the volume in CA is less than the volume in CB. c. the volume is the same in both compartments. d. all water accumulates in CB. ANS: C 41. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable only to water. At equilibrium, the volume in a. CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. CA is less than the volume in CB. c. CB is less than the volume in CA. d. CA is the same as the volume in CB. ANS: B 42. Most K+ is located in the cells, with little K+ in the tissue spaces. What accounts for the movement of additional K+ into the cells? a. K+ in the tissue fluid diffuses into the cell. b. K+ enters the cell in response to facilitated diffusion. c. K+ is actively pumped into the cell. d. K+ enters the cell because of pinocytosis. ANS: C 43. A child has experienced a blow to the head causing a slow bleed. Although the bleeding has stopped, the blood clot continues to expand because Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. brain tissue grows into the blood clot. b. plasma protein is used by the brain to make additional nerve tissue to replace what was damaged. c. the particles of the blood clot are osmotically active and draw water into the clot. d. pieces of the blood clot dissolve and are carried by the blood to the other side of the brain. ANS: C 44. What is the primary difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion? a. One is active and the other is passive. b. One requires ATP and the other does not. c. Diffusion involves the movement of a substance from high concentration to a lower concentration. Facilitated diffusion moves a substance from a lower concentration to a higher concentration. d. Facilitated diffusion uses a “helper” molecule to move a substance passively. ANS: D 45. What is the effect of an intravenous infusion of pure water? a. It is the same response as to the infusion of isotonic saline. b. It is the same response as to the infusion of Ringer’s solution. c. The RBCs burst. d. The RBCs shrink (crenation). ANS: C 46. Which of the following describes the response of a red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an isotonic solution? a. The RBC swells and bursts. b. The RBC undergoes hemolysis. c. The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks. d. There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution. ANS: D 47. Plasma proteins determine a. plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure. b. capillary filtration pressure. c. the rate of diffusion out of the capillary. d. the size of the capillary pores. ANS: A 48. If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces, a. edema develops. b. the tissue space becomes dehydrated as excess tissue fluid enters the capillaries. c. blood volume expands as excess fluid is absorbed into the blood vessels (capillaries). d. All of the above occur. ANS: A Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 49. Mitosis a. occurs only within sex cells. b. produces two genetically identical cells. c. occurs only within red blood cells. d. causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number. ANS: B 50. The first gap phase (G1), second gap phase (G2), and synthesis phase (S) a. occur during interphase. b. include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. c. are stages of mitosis. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A 51. An anticancer drug that interferes only with mitosis a. is described as cell cycle M phase–specific. b. is cell cycle phase–nonspecific. c. is nontoxic. d. stimulates neoplastic cell growth. ANS: A 52. With regard to the cell cycle, a. the M phase is the same as interphase. b. cells cannot enter phase G0 when they complete the cycle. c. cell division occurs during the M phase. d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase occur during phase G1. ANS: C 53. A cell that “drops out” of the cell cycle a. enters G0. b. splits into two genetically identical cells. c. reduces its chromosome number by 50%. d. becomes a stem cell. ANS: A 54. Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic? a. Dehydrated b. Stem cell c. Undifferentiated d. Dead ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true of a benign neoplasm? a. Metastatic lesion b. Secondary tumor site c. Cancerous d. Noncancerous tumor Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: D 56. A cervical Pap smear indicates well-differentiated cells. You would interpret this as a. a normal cellular appearance. b. evidence of edema. c. evidence of necrosis. d. evidence of cancer. ANS: A 57. This cytoplasmic organelle contains the enzymes of the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain and is primarily concerned with the formation of ATP: a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondrium d. Centriole ANS: C 58. What programmed sequence of events helps rid the body of old, unnecessary, and unhealthy cells? a. apoptosis b. necrosis c. transcytosis d. differentiation ANS: A 59. Which of the following is common to the ribosomes, rough ER, and Golgi apparatus? a. ATP-producing organelles b. Protein synthesis c. Ammonia producing d. Glycogen storage ANS: B 60. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase a. are stages of cytokinesis. b. occur during G1. c. are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes. d. are stages of mitosis. ANS: D 61. Telophase and cytokinesis a. mark the beginning of mitosis. b. complete the splitting of a single cell into two identical cells. c. are called the “resting” phases. d. occur only within sex cells. ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 62. Methotrexate, an anticancer drug that interferes with cell replication, is most effective when the cancer cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following best describes methotrexate? a. Cell cycle phase–specific b. Stem cell stimulator c. Anaplastic d. Keratinized ANS: A 63. A stem cell develops into a muscle cell. Which of the following most accurately describes this process? a. Differentiation b. Malignant c. Neoplastic d. Necrotic ANS: A 64. Compartment A contains a 5% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A 65. Compartment A contains a 25% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: A 66. At equilibrium the volume in compartment B is greater than the volume in compartment A. In which initial situation would this be achieved? a. There is a 5% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is impermeable to the solute and permeable to the solvent. b. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water and impermeable to glucose. c. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. d. There is a 25% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to solvent but impermeable to glucose. ANS: A 67. The capillary filtration pressure (arterial end of the capillary) is 30 mm Hg and 7 mm Hg at the venous end. The capillary oncotic pressure is 15 mm Hg. Which of the following is true? a. Most water is filtered out of the capillary into the interstitium at the arterial end of the capillary. b. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the movement of water from the capillary into the interstitium. c. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the flow of blood from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary. d. A decline in capillary oncotic pressure causes excess water to be reabsorbed from the interstitium. ANS: A 68. Most body potassium (K+) is located intracellularly. Through what transport mechanism would additional K+ move from the extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment? a. Osmosis b. Active transport pump c. Facilitated diffusion d. Filtration ANS: B 69. A red blood cell (RBC) is immersed in hypertonic saline. Which of the following describes the consequence? The RBC will a. replicate by mitosis. b. actively pump water into the cell. c. undergo hemolysis and burst. d. shrink. ANS: D 70. Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen a. is a storage form of glucose. b. is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach thereby forming a triglyceride. c. helps in the regulation of blood glucose. d. is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle. ANS: B 71. This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: D 72. Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance? a. Steroids b. Vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Prostaglandins d. Ammonia ANS: D 73. Which group is correct? a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ANS: D Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 04: Cell Metabolism Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a nitrogen-containing waste product? a. Glucose b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Carbon dioxide d. Urea ANS: D 2. Which of the following is a waste product of the aerobic glucose metabolism? a. ATP b. CO2 c. Urea d. Glycogen ANS: B 3. Glucose is usually broken down to a. make carbon dioxide. b. provide energy (ATP) for the working cells. c. use up urea. d. make glycogen. ANS: B 4. Which of the following are building blocks of protein? a. Monosaccharides b. Glucose, fructose, and galactose c. Amino acids d. Cellulose and glycogen ANS: C 5. Which of the following is true of glycogen? a. It is an end-product of fatty acid catabolism. b. It is stored in adipose tissue. c. It is the storage form of glucose. d. It is an essential amino acid. ANS: C 6. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are classified as a. enzymes. b. disaccharides. c. peptides. d. nucleotides. ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 7. Which of the following are joined together by peptide bonds? a. Amino acids b. Monosaccharides c. Lipids d. Steroids ANS: A 8. Cholesterol is a. an essential amino acid. b. stored as glycogen. c. degraded to sucrose, lactose, and maltose. d. used to synthesize steroids. ANS: D 9. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate term? a. Glycogen b. Monosaccharide c. Glycerol d. Sucrose, maltose, and lactose ANS: C 10. Starch is classified as a(n) a. lipid. b. fatty acid. c. amino acid. d. polysaccharide. ANS: D 11. Which of the following describes the breakdown of glucose to lactic acid? a. Aerobic b. Krebs cycle c. Glycolysis d. Gluconeogenesis ANS: C 12. Which of the following delivers cholesterol to non-hepatic tissue? a. HDL b. LDL c. VLDL d. Fatty acids ANS: B 13. The best method for decreasing blood cholesterol level is to a. decrease dietary intake of cholesterol. b. decrease dietary intake of saturated fat. c. increase protein intake. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. increase carbohydrate intake. ANS: B 14. Which of the following is most related to glycolysis? a. Krebs cycle b. Mitochondria c. Lactic acid d. Aerobic ANS: C 15. In the absence of oxygen, glucose is catabolized to a. lactic acid. b. carbon dioxide and water. c. urea. d. fatty acid. ANS: A 16. Which of the following is least related to lactic acid? a. Glycolysis b. Krebs cycle c. Anaerobic d. Cytoplasm ANS: B 17. Which of the following is most descriptive of glucose? a. Disaccharide b. Peptide c. Glycerol d. Carbohydrate ANS: D 18. Starches, amylases, and disaccharidases are related to a. carbohydrates. b. steroids. c. enzymes. d. peptides. ANS: A 19. Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose? a. Steroids b. Lipids c. Sugars d. Disaccharides ANS: C 20. Which of the following processes forms the most ATP? Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. Glycolysis b. Conversion of glucose to glycogen c. Aerobic catabolism of glucose d. Catabolism of glucose to lactic acid ANS: C 21. An –NH2 group and a –COOH group are most characteristic of a(n) a. fatty acid. b. amino acid. c. monosaccharide. d. ketoacid. ANS: B 22. DNA a. is double stranded and stores the genetic code. b. contains ribose as its sugar. c. is located within the cytoplasm. d. contains the following bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil. ANS: A 23. Which of the following is true of base sequencing? a. Occurs within the mitochondrion b. Occurs along the ribosome c. Stores the genetic code d. Is a function of the Krebs cycle ANS: C 24. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are a. bases of DNA. b. sugars used to synthesize nucleotides. c. intermediates of the Krebs cycle. d. amino acids. ANS: A 25. Adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine are a. sugars used to synthesize nucleotides. b. bases of RNA. c. nonessential amino acids. d. ketone bodies. ANS: B 26. Which of the following is a double-stranded nucleic acid that is called the blueprint for life? a. Urea b. DNA c. Gene d. RNA Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: B 27. With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved? a. Transcription b. Translation c. Glycolysis d. ATP production ANS: A 28. Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein? a. DNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. ATP ANS: B 29. With which base can adenine pair? a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Ribose d. Uracil ANS: D 30. tRNA reads the genetic code stored in a. DNA. b. ribosomes. c. mRNA. d. nuclear membrane. ANS: C 31. mRNA “gets” the genetic code from a. DNA. b. tRNA. c. the ribosomes on the ER. d. centrioles. ANS: A 32. Which of the following is least related to urea? a. Hepatic synthesis b. Nitrogenous waste c. Chemical formula is NH 4+ d. Excreted in the urine ANS: C 33. Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by increasing blood levels of a. ammonia. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. urea. c. nitrogen. d. lactic acid. ANS: A 34. Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes a. glucose from glycogen. b. glucose from protein. c. protein from glucose. d. protein from fat. ANS: B 35. Gluconeogenesis a. increases blood cholesterol. b. increases urea synthesis. c. increases blood glucose. d. causes hypoglycemia. ANS: C 36. Which of the following is descriptive of monosaccharides? a. They are fatty acids. b. They are stored as glycogen. c. They are joined together by peptide bonds. d. The most important is trypsin. ANS: B 37. Glycogen is a(n) a. alcohol, an end-product of fat digestion. b. indigestible polysaccharide also called cellulose. c. polysaccharide that is the storage form of glucose. d. plant starch. ANS: C 38. Dietary cellulose a. is absorbed from the digestive tract and converted to glucose and fuels the cells. b. is converted to protein by the process of gluconeogenesis. c. is catabolized by the liver to ketone bodies. d. cannot be metabolized but is beneficial because it provides fiber and bulk. ANS: D 39. Lactic acidosis a. is caused only by rapid and incomplete catabolism of fatty acids. b. is accompanied by the formation of large amounts of ATP. c. develops in response to prolonged anaerobic catabolism. d. is caused only by extreme exercise characterized by muscle soreness. ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 40. The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain enzymes a. are located within the mitochondria. b. function under anaerobic conditions. c. generate lactic acid. d. are responsible for glycolysis. ANS: A 41. What does the following describe: Three long-chain fatty acids that are attached to a glycerol molecule? a. Steroid b. Polysaccharide c. Pyrimidine d. Triglyceride ANS: D 42. What does the following describe: Alanine–leucine– cysteine–phenylalanine–proline–arginine? a. Fatty acid b. Peptide c. Disaccharide d. Nucleotide ANS: B 43. Which of the following is descriptive of cholesterol? a. Protein b. Functions as an enzyme c. Can be synthesized by the liver d. Primary sequence and peptide bonds ANS: C 44. Which of the following is characteristic of glycolysis? a. Occurs within the cytoplasm b. Functions aerobically c. Converts protein to glucose d. Completely metabolizes glucose to CO2, H2O, and ATP ANS: A 45. Translation involves a. ribose and deoxyribose. b. thymine and uracil. c. DNA and mRNA. d. mRNA and tRNA. ANS: D 46. Which of the following is descriptive of mitochondrial function? a. Lactic acid production Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Glycolysis c. Aerobic catabolism d. Protein synthesis ANS: C 47. Which of the following is characteristic of urea? a. Formed in the kidneys and excreted by the liver into bile b. Nitrogen-containing waste formed in the liver c. Characterized as an essential amino acid d. Classified as a disaccharide ANS: B 48. Amino acids are a. joined together by peptide bonds. b. the building blocks of protein. c. characterized as essential and nonessential. d. All of the above. ANS: D 49. Which of the following is most descriptive of ammonia? a. Nitrogen containing and brain toxic b. A catalyst c. An essential amino acid d. Derived from glycogen catabolism ANS: A 50. Monosaccharides a. include glucose, fructose, and galactose. b. include sucrose, lactose, and maltose. c. are classified as saturated and unsaturated. d. are carbohydrate-splitting enzymes. ANS: A 51. Which of the following represents a strand of DNA complementary to TTT CGC GGG TCG? a. UUU GCG AAA UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC c. AAA GCG CCC AGC d. AAA GCG CCC UGC ANS: C 52. Which of the following represents a complementary strand of mRNA: TTT CGC GGG TCG? a. UUU GCG CCC UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC c. AAA GCG CCC AGC d. AAA GCG CCC UGC ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 53. Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU? a. UUU b. AAA c. TTT d. CCC ANS: B 54. Transcription produces a. tRNA. b. a complementary strand of DNA. c. deoxyribose. d. mRNA. ANS: D 55. Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen a. is a storage form of glucose. b. is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach, thereby forming a triglyceride. c. helps in the regulation of blood glucose. d. is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle. ANS: B 56. Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is measured as the “blood sugar”? a. Glycerol b. Glycogen c. Glucose d. Lactose ANS: C 57. This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride ANS: D 58. Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance? a. Steroids b. Vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Prostaglandins d. Ammonia ANS: D 59. Which group is correct? a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ANS: D 60. Gluconeogenesis converts a. glucose to amino acids for protein synthesis. b. glucose to fatty acids for storage of excess sugar as fat. c. body protein to glucose in an insulin-deficient state. d. ammonia to urea for excretion into the urine. ANS: C 61. Which of the following occurs first? a. Reading the mRNA code by tRNA b. mRNA leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores c. Transcription d. Translation ANS: C 62. Which of the following is least related to the aerobic metabolism of glucose? a. Intramitochondrial b. Ketones c. CO2 + H2O + ATP d. Oxygen ANS: B 63. The reaction of –COOH and –NH2 a. forms urea. b. creates a peptide bond. c. forms glycogen. d. forms a ketone body. ANS: B 64. Which of the following is (are) necessary for the synthesis of urea? a. Ketone bodies b. Insulin c. Glycogen d. Liver enzymes ANS: D 65. Which of the following is true of urea? Urea is a. nitrogen containing. b. produced by hepatic cells. c. eliminated in the urine. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D 66. Which of the following is characteristic of RNA but not DNA? Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. Deoxyribose b. Adenine and thymine c. Double stranded d. Uracil and adenine ANS: D 67. Transcription a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and mRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. Both A and B are true. ANS: D 68. Translation a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and tRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. refers to the production of a complementary strand of DNA. ANS: C 69. A strand of DNA reads ATTCGCAGG. A strand of mRNA reads a. TAGGCGTCC. b. UUGGCGCUC. c. UTTCGCTCC. d. UAAGCGUCC. ANS: D 70. Which of the following represents base pairing? a. CCGTTACTG b. Sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate c. Ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose d. A–T, T–A, C–G, A–U ANS: D Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 05: Microbiology Basics Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism? a. Normal flora b. Pathogen c. Arthropod d. Parasite ANS: B 2. Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary? a. Immune b. Symptomatic c. Carrier d. Fomite ANS: C 3. Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a pathogen? a. Syndrome b. Allergy c. Infection d. Immunity ANS: C 4. Influenza is best described as a(n) a. localized infection. b. allergic reaction. c. bacterial infection. d. systemic infection. ANS: D 5. Cocci, bacilli, and curved rods are classified as a. viruses. b. pathogens. c. bacteria. d. parasites. ANS: C 6. Bacteria a. include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods. b. are not part of the normal flora of the intestines. c. cause mycotic infections. d. include mold and yeast. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: A 7. An abscess is a. an example of a systemic infection. b. always viral in origin. c. an example of a mycotic infection. d. an example of a localized infection. ANS: D 8. Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci? a. Grapelike arrangement b. Bacterial c. Gram-positive d. Underlying cause of rheumatic fever ANS: D 9. Rickettsiae are a. classified as fungi. b. viruses. c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. d. arthropod vectors. ANS: C 10. Streptococci and staphylococci are a. viruses. b. gram-positive bacteria. c. arthropods. d. parasites. ANS: B 11. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. arthropods. d. bacilli. ANS: B 12. Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Yeast ANS: B 13. Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans? a. Causative organism of impetigo Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Fungal infection c. Yeast infection d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection ANS: A 14. Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are a. staphylococcal infections. b. caused by a spirochete. c. localized infections. d. bacterial infections. ANS: D 15. Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Bacillus d. Spirillum ANS: D 16. Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile a. are gram-negative bacilli. b. are anaerobic. c. are always pathogenic. d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm. ANS: B 17. Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum? a. Causes syphilis b. Classified as a bacterium c. Is most often spread by the fecal–oral route d. Is a spirochete ANS: C 18. What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics. b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. c. increases its reproductive activity. d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease. ANS: B 19. Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence? a. Arthropod b. Pathogen c. Parasite d. Bacterium ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 20. Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella typhi c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium tetani ANS: C 21. A mycotic infection is caused by a(n) a. parasite. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. arthropod. ANS: C 22. With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as a. parasites. b. causative organisms of disease. c. vectors. d. fomites. ANS: C 23. Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito? a. Typhoid fever b. Tetanus c. Malaria d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ANS: C 24. Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as a. systemic. b. mycotic. c. parasitic. d. bacterial. ANS: B 25. Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas? a. Bacilli b. Arthropods c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: D 26. Which “bad air” disease is caused by a plasmodium? a. Measles b. Tinea c. Tetanus Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Malaria ANS: D 27. Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection? a. Clostridium b. Mycotic c. Viral d. Parasitic ANS: A 28. Tinea is most related to a. ringworm. b. tetanus. c. systemic infection. d. treatment with anthelmintics. ANS: A 29. A fomite is a a. worm. b. parasite. c. vector. d. host. ANS: C 30. A helminth is a(n) a. parasite. b. arthropod. c. worm. d. bacterium. ANS: C 31. Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are a. mycotic infections. b. caused by Salmonella. c. worm infestations. d. caused by protozoan parasites. ANS: D 32. The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the stool of the infected person? a. Worms b. Viruses c. Arthropods d. Spirochetes ANS: A Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 33. The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n) a. arthropod vector. b. causative organism. c. spirochete. d. fungus. ANS: A 34. The acid-fast bacillus is a. most often spread through droplet infection. b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin. c. pathogenic only in humans. d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture. ANS: A 35. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an drug. a. antiviral b. anthelmintic c. antibiotic d. antifungal ANS: C 36. Biting flies, fleas, and ticks a. most often cause systemic infections. b. are best described as ectoparasites. c. are classified as helminths d. cause mycotic infections. ANS: B 37. Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area, causing severe pruritus? a. Clostridium tetani b. Pinworms c. Salmonella typhi d. Candida albicans ANS: B 38. Ectoparasites are most likely to cause a. itching and discomfort. b. high fever. c. paralysis. d. loss of consciousness. ANS: A 39. Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be a. pathogenic. b. parasitic. c. fungal. d. communicable. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 40. Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod? a. Contaminated drinking glass b. Virus c. Worm d. Flea ANS: D 41. Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her a. urine (kidneys). b. respiratory secretions (lungs). c. nasal secretions (nose). d. bile (gallbladder). ANS: D 42. Herpes varicella-zoster a. is a fungus. b. generally causes an antibiotic-induced superinfection. c. causes chickenpox. d. responds well to antibiotics. ANS: C 43. A pox infection a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster. b. occurs only in humans. c. is a skin lesion. d. is communicable but never contagious. ANS: C 44. Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later life, it causes a. “the great pox.” b. shingles. c. tinea capitis. d. smallpox. ANS: B 45. The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as a. a localized infection. b. age-related degenerative disease. c. nosocomial infection. d. pandemic. ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 46. Which of the following is true of commensal organisms that populate the normal flora? a. They live harmoniously without harming the person. b. Unless they are destroyed with an antibiotic, the person develops an infection. c. The organisms are usually walled off as an abscess. d. All commensal organisms are confined to the large intestine (bowel). ANS: A 47. Iron deficiency anemia is endemic in low economic areas of a city, meaning a. most of the population has iron deficiency anemia. b. the iron deficiency anemia is untreatable. c. the iron deficiency anemia has been eradicated. d. the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community. ANS: D 48. Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector? a. Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another b. Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans c. Must be living d. Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite) ANS: C 49. Humans, other animals, contaminated soil and water, and fomites can serve as a continual source of infection. Which of the following terms best describes this observation? a. Normal flora b. Incubation period c. Nosocomial d. Reservoir of infection ANS: D 50. Penicillin exerts its antibiotic effect primarily through destruction of the cell wall of the pathogen. Which of the following are most apt to be affected by penicillin? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Worms d. Ectoparasites ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of syphilis? a. Is a luetic infection b. Caused by a virus c. Is a sexually transmitted disease d. Both A and B are correct ANS: D 52. Which group is correct? a. Ringworm, mycotic infection, treatment by anthelmintic drug b. Syphilis, lues, Treponema pallidum Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Gonorrhea, Neisseria, virus d. Trichinae, filariasis, helminthes, penicillin ANS: B 53. Identify the portal of exit and mechanism for most diseases that are spread by droplet infection. a. Urinary system by contaminated urine b. Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing c. Digestive system through contaminated feces d. Central nervous system through contaminated cerebrospinal fluid ANS: B 54. Tinea capitis, Tinea barbae, and Tinea pedis are a. commonly called athlete’s foot. b. ringworm. c. staphylococcus infections. d. manifestations of shingles. ANS: B 55. Rhinoviruses a. are sensitive to penicillin. b. are capable of causing infection only in an immunosuppressed individual. c. cause the common cold. d. are gram-positive. ANS: C 56. The Rubella virus a. is sensitive to penicillin. b. causes German measles. c. is teratogenic. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D 57. Which of the following refers to a process that destroys all living organisms? a. Nosocomial b. Commensal c. Sterilization d. Colonization ANS: C 58. Clostridia a. are viruses. b. cause botulism, gas gangrene, and lockjaw. c. are protozoa. d. respond therapeutically to anthelmintics. ANS: B Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 59. This bacillus forms a large part of the normal flora within the large intestines. It also causes septic shock, food poisoning, and local infections and is a leading cause of nosocomial infection. a. E. coli b. a plasmodium c. Herpes simplex d. mycobacterium ANS: A Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Chapter 06: Tissues and Membranes Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder)? a. Transitional epithelium b. Loose connective tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Simple squamous epithelium ANS: A 2. Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal? a. Astrocyte b. Glial cell c. Neuron d. Ependymal cell ANS: C 3. Which tissue type is the most abundant? a. Epithelial b. Muscular c. Connective d. Nervous ANS: C 4. In which of the following is intercellular matrix most abundant? a. Pseudostratified columnar b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Connective tissue d. Simple columnar epithelium ANS: C 5. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of tissue. a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous ANS: B 6. Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Muscle tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Stratified columnar epithelium ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 7. In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Adipose tissue c. Blood d. Cartilage ANS: C 8. Fascia and capsular tissue are most similar to a. tendons and ligaments. b. fat. c. epithelial lining of the alveoli. d. bone. ANS: A 9. Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs? a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral peritoneum c. Meninges d. Visceral pleura ANS: D 10. Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Cancer c. Pressure sore d. Bed sore ANS: B 11. Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body? a. Serous membrane b. Synovial membrane c. Mucous membrane d. Meninges ANS: C 12. Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Sarcoma c. Malignant neoplasm d. Metastatic ANS: A 13. Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane? a. Forms the dermis b. Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body c. Is also called the skin Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Is the same as the epidermis ANS: B 14. Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the body? a. Serous membrane b. Mucous membrane c. Synovial membrane d. Meninges ANS: A 15. Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured? a. Nervous b. Muscle c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: C 16. Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland? a. Made of connective tissue b. Secretes hormones c. Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface d. Secretes only sweat ANS: C 17. Which of the following is most related to bone? a. Epithelial tissue b. Plasma c. Adipose d. Hard intercellular matrix ANS: D 18. Which of the following is the culprit in obesity? a. Osseous tissue b. Adipose tissue c. Squamous epithelium d. Glia cells ANS: B 19. Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales? a. Striated b. Stratified c. Squamous d. Glia ANS: C Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 20. Stratified means a. flat and shiny. b. layered. c. striped. d. hard. ANS: B 21. Which type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to the blood? a. Osseous b. Fascia c. Simple squamous epithelium d. Synovial membrane ANS: C 22. A ligament is best described as a. malignant. b. glandular epithelium. c. tough band of connective tissue. d. squamous epithelium. ANS: C 23. Endocrine and exocrine glands are tissue. a. connective b. epithelial c. adipose d. glial ANS: B 24. Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intercellular matrix of tissue. a. squamous epithelial b. glandular c. connective d. nervous ANS: C 25. Chondrocytes and osteocytes form a. squamous epithelium. b. transitional epithelium. c. astrocytes and ependymal cells. d. cartilage and bone. ANS: D 26. Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor? a. Osseous tissue b. Fascia c. Ligaments Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Squamous epithelium ANS: D 27. The intercellular matrix of which tissue is the hardest of all connective tissue? a. Fibrocartilage b. Collagen c. Osseous tissue d. Muscle ANS: C 28. Which of the following is least descriptive of epithelial tissue? a. Squamous b. Glial c. Cuboidal d. Columnar ANS: B 29. Osseous tissue is a. also called bone tissue. b. formed from chondrocytes. c. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. d. classified as skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. ANS: A 30. The pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum are a. confined to the thoracic cavity. b. confined to the abdominopelvic cavity. c. serous membranes. d. mucous membranes. ANS: C 31. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa b. Types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth c. Types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue d. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous ANS: A 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Appearance of muscle: striated and smooth b. Types of cartilage: hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage c. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous d. Types of connective tissue: tendons, ligaments, fat, glia ANS: D 33. Transitional epithelial tissue Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder). b. contracts, causing movement. c. has a hard intercellular matrix. d. is nervous tissue. ANS: A 34. Intercellular matrix is a. most abundant in connective tissue. b. absent in blood and lymph. c. always hard. d. always elastic and stretchy. ANS: A 35. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are a. made of connective tissue. b. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. c. classified as simple and stratified. d. classified as smooth, skeletal, and cardiac. ANS: A 36. Which of the following is most descriptive of fascia? a. Contractile b. Fatty c. Tough and supportive d. Glandular ANS: C 37. Serous membranes a. line all cavities that open to the outside. b. cover the brain and spinal cord. c. are connective tissue membranes. d. line the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities. ANS: D 38. Meninges a. are connective tissue membranes. b. cover the brain and spinal cord. c. are located in cranial and vertebral cavities. d. are all of the above. ANS: D 39. The words visceral and parietal a. describe pleural and peritoneal membranes. b. describe two types of glands. c. refer to connective tissue membranes. d. are layers of meninges. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material ANS: A 40. The cutaneous membrane a. is a synovial membrane. b. is the skin. c. has a visceral and parietal layer. d. has three layers: squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. ANS: B 41. An exocrine gland a. is made of epithelial tissue. b. secretes hormones. c. is ductless. d. secretes only sweat. ANS: A 42. Squamous a. means striated or striped. b. means joint lining. c. refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales. d. refers to electrical conduction. ANS: C 43. Endocrine is least often described as a. hormone secreting. b. ductless. c. glandular epithelium. d. contractile. ANS: D 44. Stratified and squamous refer to a. layered and striped. b. solid and liquid. c. layered and flat. d. columnar and cube shaped. ANS: C 45. Simple squamous, pseudostratified, simple cuboidal, and stratified squamous a. form tendons and connect muscle to bone. b. form ligaments and connect bone to bone. c. form continuous sheets and function in secretion, transport, and protection. d. are types of nervous tissue. ANS: C 46. The epithelium is described as being avascular, meaning that it a. is single-layered. b. has no blood supply of its own. Downloaded by: Examsonline | [email protected] Want to earn $1.236 Distribution of this document is illegal extra per year?  Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. is colorless. d. contains