Anatomy 2 Final Practice Exam PDF

Endocrine/ Hormones 1. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior pituitary gland? A) Oxytocin B) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) C) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) D) Calcitonin 2. What is the primary function of glucagon? A) Lower blood sugar B...

Endocrine/ Hormones 1. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior pituitary gland? A) Oxytocin B) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) C) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) D) Calcitonin 2. What is the primary function of glucagon? A) Lower blood sugar B) Promote glucose uptake in cells C) Stimulate glycogen breakdown in the liver D) Inhibit insulin production 3. Which gland is known as the "master gland"? A) Adrenal gland B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Hypothalamus 4. Which of these hormones regulates sleep-wake cycles? A) Melatonin B) Cortisol C) Insulin D) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) 5. The hypothalamus communicates with the pituitary gland via: A) Axons and synapses B) Nerves and blood vessels C) Hormone diffusion D) Spinal cord tracts 6. Which hormone is secreted during times of stress to regulate metabolism and immune response? A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Thyroxine D) Prolactin 7. Which of the following represents a negative feedback mechanism? A) ADH secretion decreasing once hydration levels are normal B) Continuous secretion of oxytocin during labor C) Persistent insulin secretion despite normal blood glucose D) Overproduction of TSH in response to high thyroid hormones 8. What does the acronym "FLAT PEG" refer to? A) Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla B) Tropic and direct hormones of the anterior pituitary C) Types of paracrine signals D) A feedback loop involving the hypothalamus 9. What is the role of calcitonin? A) Increase calcium levels in the blood B) Decrease calcium levels in the blood C) Stimulate osteoclast activity D) Promote muscle contractions 10. Which of these hormones is responsible for water retention in the kidneys? A) Aldosterone B) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) C) Cortisol D) Epinephrine 11. What is the target tissue of glucagon? A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Adrenal medulla D) Muscle cells 12. Which hormone regulates metabolic rate and is produced by the thyroid gland? A) Cortisol B) Thyroxine (T4) C) Oxytocin D) Testosterone 13. The adrenal medulla secretes which hormones? A) Aldosterone and cortisol B) Epinephrine and norepinephrine C) Thyroxine and calcitonin D) Testosterone and estrogen 14. Where are the adrenal glands located? A) Above the kidneys B) Below the pancreas C) Near the thyroid gland D) In the brain 15. Which hormone is released in response to dehydration? A) Cortisol B) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)  C) Growth Hormone (GH) D) Prolactin 16. Which gland produces insulin? A) Adrenal gland B) Pancreas C) Thyroid gland D) Pituitary gland 17. Which of the following hormones stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth? A) Prolactin B) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) C) Oxytocin D) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) 18. What type of feedback loop is involved in regulating blood glucose levels? A) Positive feedback B) Negative feedback C) Cyclic feedback D) No feedback 19. Which hormone targets bone and kidney cells to increase calcium levels in the blood? A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) C) Thyroxine D) Aldosterone 20. Which of these is an example of a direct hormone? A) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) B) Prolactin C) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) D) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Blood 1. Which blood type is known as the universal donor? a) A+ b) AB+ c) O- d) B-  2. A person with type AB blood has which of the following? a) A and B antigens on their red blood cells and no antibodies in their plasma b) No antigens on their red blood cells and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma c) Only B antigens on their red blood cells and anti-A antibodies in their plasma d) Only A antigens on their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in their plasma 3. Rh incompatibility during pregnancy is most likely to occur if: a) Both parents are Rh-negative b) Both parents are Rh-positive c) The mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive d) The mother is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative 4. Which antigen is used to classify blood types under the Rh blood group system? a) A antigen b) B antigen c) O antigen d) D antigen 5. What is the risk of incompatible blood transfusions? a) High blood pressure b) Severe immune reactions like hemolysis c) Reduced oxygen delivery to tissues d) Dehydration Blood Composition and Functions 6. Which component of blood accounts for the majority of its volume? a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Plasma d) Platelets 7. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells? a) Immune response b) Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport c) Clot formation d) Temperature regulation 8. Which protein in plasma plays a key role in maintaining osmotic pressure? a) Fibrinogen b) Albumin c) Globulin d) Hemoglobin 9. Which blood component is responsible for clot formation? a) Plasma b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Red blood cells  10. A primary function of white blood cells is to: a) Transport nutrients b) Transport oxygen c) Protect against infections d) Maintain blood pressure Hemostasis and Clotting 11. What is the first step in hemostasis? a) Platelet plug formation b) Coagulation c) Fibrinolysis d) Vascular spasm 12. Platelets adhere to exposed collagen during hemostasis using which factor? a) Thrombin b) Prothrombin c) von Willebrand factor (vWF) d) Plasmin 13. Which pathway of blood clotting is triggered by external trauma? a) Intrinsic pathway b) Extrinsic pathway c) Coagulation cascade d) Fibrinolysis 14. What is the role of thrombin in coagulation? a) Initiates platelet plug formation b) Converts fibrinogen into fibrin c) Converts plasminogen into plasmin d) Activates von Willebrand factor 15. What is the final product of the clotting process? a) Platelet plug b) Fibrin clot c) Prothrombinase d) Thromboxane A2 Blood Disorders 16. A deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin results in: a) Leukemia b) Anemia c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hemophilia 17. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by: a) A lack of platelets in the fetus b) A mismatch in ABO blood types between the mother and fetus  c) Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive fetus d) A genetic deficiency of hemoglobin 18. Which condition is associated with an excessive number of white blood cells? a) Leukemia b) Anemia c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hemophilia 19. Which blood disorder involves difficulty in clotting due to a deficiency of clotting factors? a) Leukemia b) Anemia c) Hemophilia d) Thrombocytopenia 20. What is the major risk of untreated thrombocytopenia? a) Increased infection risk b) Severe bleeding c) High blood pressure d) Dehydration Circulatory Heart Structure and Blood Flow 1. Which blood vessel returns oxygen-poor blood from the body to the heart? a) Pulmonary vein b) Pulmonary artery c) Vena cava d) Aorta 2. The heart chamber that pumps oxygen-rich blood to the body is the: a) Right atrium b) Left atrium c) Right ventricle d) Left ventricle 3. The tricuspid valve is located between the: a) Left atrium and left ventricle b) Right atrium and right ventricle c) Right ventricle and pulmonary artery d) Left ventricle and aorta 4. The largest artery in the body is the: a) Pulmonary artery  b) Vena cava c) Coronary artery d) Aorta 5. The pulmonary veins carry: a) Oxygen-poor blood to the lungs b) Oxygen-poor blood to the heart c) Oxygen-rich blood to the lungs d) Oxygen-rich blood to the heart Heart Tissue Layers and Circulation 6. The outer protective layer of the heart is called the: a) Myocardium b) Pericardium c) Endocardium d) Epicardium 7. The layer of the heart responsible for contraction is the: a) Myocardium b) Pericardium c) Endocardium d) Tunica media 8. The coronary arteries supply blood to: a) The lungs b) The heart muscle (myocardium) c) The brain d) The systemic circulation Heart Cycle and Conduction 9. The "lub" sound of the heart is caused by the closure of which valves? a) Semilunar valves b) Atrioventricular valves c) Pulmonary and aortic valves d) Mitral and pulmonary valves 10. The pacemaker of the heart is the: a) AV node b) Purkinje fibers c) SA node d) Bundle of His 11. The bundle of His is responsible for: a) Depolarizing the atria  b) Delaying impulses between atria and ventricles c) Transmitting impulses through the interventricular septum d) Coordinating ventricular relaxation Blood Vessels 12. The blood vessel layer responsible for vasodilation and vasoconstriction is the: a) Tunica intima b) Tunica externa c) Tunica media d) Endothelium 13. Capillaries are specialized for: a) High-pressure blood flow b) Rapid blood movement c) Diffusion of nutrients and gases d) Preventing backflow 14. Which vessels are referred to as resistance vessels? a) Veins b) Capillaries c) Arterioles d) Arteries 15. The venous system prevents backflow using: a) Valves b) Smooth muscle c) Hydrostatic pressure d) Elastic fibers Fetal Circulation 16. The foramen ovale in fetal circulation allows blood to pass between the: a) Left and right ventricles b) Right atrium and right ventricle c) Left and right atria d) Pulmonary artery and aorta 17. In fetal circulation, the ductus arteriosus connects: a) The right atrium and right ventricle b) The pulmonary artery and aorta c) The left atrium and left ventricle d) The umbilical vein and inferior vena cava Blood and Clotting 18. Which protein is essential for forming blood clots? a) Hemoglobin b) Albumin c) Fibrinogen d) Globulin 19. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is facilitated by: a) Prothrombin b) Thrombin c) Platelets d) Collagen 20. Vitamin K is crucial for: a) Maintaining osmotic pressure b) Synthesis of clotting factors c) Oxygen transport d) Heart rate regulation Vasculature 1. Pulmonary vessels are responsible for: a) Transporting oxygenated blood to the body b) Transporting deoxygenated blood to the lungs and oxygenated blood to the heart c) Transporting hormones and enzymes to the body tissues d) Regulating blood pressure 2. Which is NOT a key function of the circulatory system? a) Exchange of nutrients, waste products, and gases b) Production of red blood cells c) Regulation of blood pressure d) Directing blood flow to tissues Structural Features of Blood Vessels 3. Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle and elastic fibers? a) Tunica intima b) Tunica media c) Tunica externa d) Endothelium 4. Vasoconstriction results in: a) Decreased blood pressure b) Increased blood flow c) Decreased blood flow d) Increased vessel diameter  5. The internal elastic membrane is found in which layer of blood vessels? a) Tunica intima b) Tunica media c) Tunica externa d) Basement membrane Pulmonary and Systemic Circulation 6. In pulmonary circulation, oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the: a) Pulmonary trunk b) Pulmonary veins c) Pulmonary arteries d) Aorta 7. The descending aorta in systemic circulation is divided into which two parts? a) Ascending and thoracic b) Thoracic and abdominal c) Abdominal and common iliac d) Common carotid and subclavian 8. Portal veins differ from other veins because they: a) Transport oxygenated blood b) Connect capillary networks without passing through the heart c) Lack valves d) Have the thinnest walls of all veins Dynamics of Blood Circulation 9. Blood flow is defined as: a) The resistance encountered by blood in vessels b) The volume of blood passing a point per unit of time c) The force exerted by blood on vessel walls d) The diameter of the blood vessels 10. As vessel diameter decreases, total cross-sectional area: a) Decreases, and velocity of blood flow increases b) Decreases, and velocity of blood flow decreases c) Increases, and velocity of blood flow decreases d) Increases, and velocity of blood flow increases 11. Resistance to blood flow is most influenced by: a) Blood viscosity and vessel length b) Vessel diameter and viscosity c) Vessel elasticity and blood pressure d) Cardiac output and stroke volume Control of Blood Flow 12. Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood flow during stress? a) Insulin b) Epinephrine c) Aldosterone d) Oxytocin 13. The baroreceptor reflex helps regulate blood pressure by: a) Controlling blood oxygen levels b) Adjusting heart rate and stroke volume c) Activating stress responses d) Maintaining metabolic activity 14. Chemoreceptor reflexes are triggered by changes in: a) Blood volume b) Vessel elasticity c) Blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels d) Blood viscosity 15. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism primarily affects: a) Cardiac output b) Vessel diameter c) Blood volume and pressure d) Pulmonary circulation Regulation of Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) 16. What is the primary role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in blood pressure regulation? a) Increasing blood vessel elasticity b) Decreasing heart rate c) Regulating blood volume and pressure by reducing urine output d) Enhancing capillary exchange 17. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) decreases blood pressure by: a) Reducing blood volume b) Constricting blood vessels c) Increasing heart rate d) Blocking baroreceptor reflexes 18. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is influenced most by: a) Stroke volume and vessel resistance b) Blood viscosity and vessel length c) Cross-sectional area and pulse pressure d) Systolic and diastolic blood pressure Aging and the Vasculature 19. Arteriosclerosis refers to: a) Plaque deposition on artery walls b) Degenerative changes making arteries less elastic c) Increased blood flow to tissues d) Thickening of vein walls 20. Atherosclerosis is characterized by: a) Elasticity loss in small veins b) Plaque deposition on medium and large artery walls c) Blockage of capillary networks d) Widening of arterial walls Hemodynamics Basic Principles of Hemodynamics 1. Hemodynamics is the study of: a) Blood vessel elasticity b) Blood flow dynamics in the cardiovascular system c) Heart rhythms and electrical impulses d) The anatomy of blood vessels 2. Blood flow is measured as: a) Pressure difference per unit of resistance b) Volume passing through a vessel per unit of time c) The force of blood against vessel walls d) The elasticity of the blood vessels 3. What is compliance in the context of blood vessels? a) Ability of vessels to withstand high pressure b) Capacity of vessels to expand and contract with pressure changes c) Total blood volume in circulation d) The diameter of blood vessels 4. Resistance in blood flow is primarily influenced by: a) Vessel diameter and blood viscosity b) Heart rate and stroke volume c) Vessel length and cardiac output d) Arterial pulse pressure Systole, Diastole, and Blood Pressure  5. Systole is defined as: a) The phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart relaxes b) The phase when the heart contracts and pumps blood c) The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure d) The average pressure during one cardiac cycle 6. Pulse pressure is calculated as: a) Diastolic pressure minus systolic pressure b) Mean arterial pressure divided by total resistance c) Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure d) Cardiac output multiplied by resistance 7. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is calculated using the formula: a) MAP = systolic pressure - pulse pressure b) MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3(pulse pressure) c) MAP = cardiac output x resistance d) MAP = heart rate x stroke volume Factors Affecting Blood Pressure 8. An increase in cardiac output has what effect on blood pressure? a) Decreases blood pressure b) Increases blood pressure c) Has no effect on blood pressure d) Reduces resistance 9. Stroke volume directly influences blood pressure by: a) Increasing cardiac output b) Decreasing venous return c) Reducing total peripheral resistance d) Enhancing vessel elasticity 10. Increased blood volume results in: a) Lower blood pressure b) Higher blood pressure c) Increased resistance but unchanged pressure d) Decreased stroke volume Resistance and Vascular Dynamics 11. Vasodilation affects blood pressure by: a) Increasing resistance and raising blood pressure b) Decreasing resistance and lowering blood pressure c) Increasing stroke volume d) Decreasing cardiac output  12. Blood viscosity increases resistance, leading to: a) Lower cardiac output b) Higher blood pressure c) Reduced venous return d) Widened vessel diameter 13. A longer vessel length increases resistance by: a) Enhancing blood viscosity b) Increasing the friction blood encounters c) Reducing cardiac output d) Lowering arterial pressure Regulation of Blood Flow 14. Local control of blood flow involves: a) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation b) Hormonal changes regulating vasoconstriction c) Tissue-specific mechanisms based on metabolic demand d) Baroreceptor reflex activation 15. Autoregulation differs from local control because it: a) Maintains constant blood flow despite pressure changes b) Relies on hormonal signals c) Affects blood flow only during stress d) Alters vessel length 16. Hormones like epinephrine regulate blood pressure by: a) Promoting vasodilation only b) Stimulating vasoconstriction and increasing cardiac output c) Reducing blood viscosity d) Decreasing heart rate Nervous and Endocrine Regulation 17. The baroreceptor reflex adjusts blood pressure by: a) Triggering vasodilation during low blood pressure b) Regulating vessel diameter and heart rate in response to pressure changes c) Releasing epinephrine to reduce pressure d) Stimulating cardiac output during rest 18. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) primarily: a) Lowers blood pressure during stress b) Decreases stroke volume c) Increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction and sodium retention d) Promotes fluid excretion  19. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates blood pressure by: a) Increasing urine output to lower blood volume b) Promoting water reabsorption to increase blood volume and pressure c) Blocking epinephrine release during stress d) Enhancing vessel elasticity 20. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) decreases blood pressure by: a) Increasing heart rate b) Stimulating vasoconstriction c) Promoting sodium and water excretion d) Reducing stroke volume Immunity 1. What is the primary function of the 1st line of defense in the immune system? A) To target specific pathogens B) To provide general barriers against pathogens C) To activate immune cells D) To destroy infected cells 2. Which of the following is part of the 1st line of defense? A) T-cells B) Skin C) Cytokines D) Plasma cells 3. What is the role of lysosomes in the 1st line of defense? A) To destroy pathogens in the bloodstream B) To digest pathogens in phagocytes C) To produce antibodies D) To activate complement proteins 4. What does the 2nd line of defense primarily involve? A) Activation of T-cells B) Inflammatory and immune responses C) Phagocytosis of pathogens D) Antibody production 5. Which immune response is associated with the release of leukotrienes and prostaglandins? A) Inflammation B) Fever C) Opsonization D) Apoptosis 6. What is the role of the membrane attack complex (MAC)? A) To stimulate phagocytosis B) To create holes in the pathogen’s membrane  C) To activate B-cells D) To produce cytokines 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of interferons? A) They are only effective against bacteria B) They are activated during viral infections C) They stimulate antibody production D) They kill infected cells directly 8. Which immune system component is activated when a foreign antigen is detected? A) T-cells B) Natural killer cells C) Complement proteins D) Antibodies 9. What is the primary function of T-cells in the adaptive immune system? A) To produce antibodies B) To destroy infected cells directly C) To activate B-cells D) To present antigens to macrophages 10. Which of the following is a type of T-cell that secretes perforin to destroy pathogens? A) Helper T-cells B) Memory T-cells C) Cytotoxic T-cells D) Regulatory T-cells 11. What is the function of helper T-cells? A) To directly kill pathogens B) To activate other immune cells C) To produce antibodies D) To suppress immune responses 12. Memory T-cells are important for which of the following? A) Short-term immune response B) Long-term immunity after exposure to a pathogen C) Producing antibodies D) Directly killing infected cells 13. What is the basis of vaccination? A) Stimulating the production of interferons B) Memory T-cells remembering a specific pathogen C) Increasing the number of phagocytes D) Enhancing the ability of B-cells to produce antibodies 14. Which of the following is involved in the process of antigen presentation? A) T-cells B) Antibodies C) Macrophages D) Helper T-cells  15. Which type of cell is responsible for secreting antibodies in the immune system? A) Macrophages B) Plasma cells C) Memory cells D) T-cells 16. What is the structure of an antibody? A) Two heavy chains and two light chains B) A single polypeptide chain C) A lipid bilayer D) A long RNA molecule 17. Which type of immunoglobulin is the most common and found in blood and lymph? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) IgE 18. Which immunoglobulin plays a key role in preventing pathogens from entering the body? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgD 19. What is the process of opsonization in the immune response? A) Antibodies bind to antigens to neutralize them B) Pathogens are coated to enhance phagocytosis C) Immune cells are activated by complement proteins D) Antibodies promote inflammation 20. Which immune response involves the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that activate a cascade of plasma proteins? A) Complement activation B) Phagocytosis C) Cytotoxic T-cell activation D) Memory cell formation Respiratory 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A) Deliver oxygen to the cells B) Remove carbon dioxide from the body C) Produce red blood cells D) Filter particles from the air 2. What is the primary function of the nasal cavity? A) To store oxygen B) To produce sound C) To filter, moisten, and warm air D) To absorb carbon dioxide 3. The larynx is primarily responsible for: A) Gas exchange B) Producing sound C) Filtering air D) Regulating breathing rate 4. Which part of the respiratory system divides the upper and lower respiratory tracts? A) Trachea B) Bronchi C) Larynx D) Diaphragm 5. What is the function of the epiglottis? A) To produce sound B) To cover the esophagus during swallowing C) To transport air to the lungs D) To help filter dust from the air 6. Why is the trachea made of flexible cartilage rather than bone? A) To allow for breathing flexibility B) To prevent the trachea from collapsing C) To allow it to expand when swallowing D) All of the above 7. Which of the following is true about the alveoli? A) They are large air sacs for storing oxygen B) They are covered with capillaries for gas exchange C) They help in filtering dust from the air D) They produce mucus 8. What happens during gas exchange in the alveoli? A) Oxygen diffuses from the capillaries to the alveoli B) Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli to the blood C) Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the capillaries D) Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the alveoli 9. The bronchus is divided into: A) Primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi, and bronchioles B) Nasal, oral, and pharyngeal bronchi C) Bronchioles and alveoli only D) Right and left primary bronchi only 10. Why does the right lung have 3 lobes and the left lung only 2? A) To accommodate the location of the heart B) To increase the surface area for gas exchange C) The left lung is smaller due to injury D) There is no significant difference in lung structure 11. What is the function of mucus in the nasal cavity? A) To absorb oxygen B) To trap dust, dirt, and bacteria C) To help in the breakdown of oxygen D) To transport oxygen to the lungs 12. Which of the following structures connects the pharynx to the larynx? A) Nasopharynx B) Trachea C) Bronchi D) Epiglottis 13. What is the role of the diaphragm in respiration? A) To filter the air B) To regulate gas exchange C) To help in the expansion and contraction of the lungs D) To move the vocal cords 14. What does COPD stand for? A) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease B) Chronic Oxygated Pulmonary Disorder C) Complex Oxygenated Pulmonary Disease D) Central Oxygen Pathway Disorder 15. Which of the following is a common cause of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? A) Exposure to tobacco smoke B) Exposure to high altitudes C) High physical activity D) Excessive oxygen intake 16. What is the main purpose of the respiratory membrane? A) To absorb oxygen and carbon dioxide B) To filter bacteria from the air C) To facilitate the diffusion of gases between alveoli and capillaries D) To store oxygen for later use 17. What is the primary function of the bronchioles? A) To transport air to the lungs B) To store oxygen C) To exchange gases with the blood D) To increase surface area for gas exchange 18. Which part of the respiratory system is directly involved in sound production? A) Trachea B) Alveoli C) Larynx D) Diaphragm 19. What is the medical term for inflammation of the larynx? A) Bronchitis B) Laryngitis C) Pneumonia D) Pharyngitis 20. What is a tracheostomy? A) A surgical procedure to insert a tube into the lungs B) An incision made into the trachea during emergencies C) A procedure to remove the epiglottis D) A treatment for sinus infections Urinary 1. Which of the following is a primary function of the kidneys? a) Produce red blood cells b) Filter blood to remove waste c) Pump blood throughout the body d) Store excess water 2. What substance do the kidneys primarily excrete? a) Oxygen b) Urea c) Glucose d) Carbon dioxide 3. Which organ filters waste products like urea, excess salts, and water from the blood? a) Lungs b) Heart c) Kidneys d) Liver 4. Where does most filtration occur in the kidney? a) Renal medulla b) Glomerulus c) Renal cortex d) Bowman’s capsule 5. Which of the following is NOT a substance filtered by the kidneys? a) Water b) Red blood cells c) Urea d) Salts 6. What is the role of the renal artery in kidney function? a) To carry filtered blood away from the kidney b) To bring waste products to the kidneys c) To supply blood to the kidneys for filtration d) To transport urine from the kidneys 7. What part of the kidney produces urine by filtering blood? a) Renal cortex b) Nephrons c) Renal pelvis d) Renal vein 8. How do kidney stones form? a) When urine becomes too dilute b) When solid crystals in urine stick together c) When there is an excess of water in the kidneys d) When blood pressure is too high 9. What is the main component of most kidney stones? a) Calcium carbonate b) Uric acid c) Calcium oxalate d) Ammonium chloride 10. What happens if reabsorption in the kidneys does not occur? a) The body retains too much water b) You would lose 10 times the amount of bodily fluids c) The kidneys stop producing urine d) Blood pressure increases drastically 11. Which of the following substances is reabsorbed by the kidneys? a) Urea b) Glucose c) Creatinine d) Drugs 12. What is the function of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in kidney function? a) To increase urine output b) To decrease salt reabsorption c) To increase water retention d) To decrease glucose levels 13. What is the fluid that enters the nephron for filtration called? a) Plasma b) Interstitial fluid c) Filtrate d) Urine 14. What is the role of the glomerulus in the kidney? a) To reabsorb nutrients b) To secrete waste products into urine c) To filter the blood into the Bowman’s capsule d) To store urine 15. Which of the following describes the function of secretion in the kidneys? a) Water and solutes are removed from the filtrate b) Waste products are added to the nephron from the bloodstream c) Solutes like glucose and water are absorbed into the bloodstream d) Blood is filtered and returned to circulation 16. What does the color of urine indicate? a) Blood pressure levels b) Kidney efficiency c) Hydration levels d) Protein levels in the blood 17. Which of the following is the most common cause of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? a) Viral infection b) Bacteria sticking to the bladder lining c) Excessive dehydration d) Kidney failure 18. What is the role of dialysis in kidney failure? a) To perform the function of the kidneys by filtering blood b) To remove waste through the skin c) To replace lost electrolytes d) To increase urine production 19. What is a possible outcome if the kidneys do not filter waste properly? a) Increased production of red blood cells b) Build-up of toxins in the blood c) Increase in body weight d) Decrease in blood pressure 20. Which of the following would you expect to find in urine during a normal urinary test? a) White blood cells b) Glucose c) Urobilin d) Red blood cells Digestive Overview of Digestion 1. What is the primary purpose of digestion? A) To circulate blood throughout the body B) To convert food into absorbable nutrients C) To expel waste products D) To produce enzymes 2. What distinguishes extracellular digestion from intracellular digestion? A) Extracellular digestion occurs inside cells B) Extracellular digestion uses tissues and organs C) Intracellular digestion involves enzymes secreted by glands D) Intracellular digestion occurs only in multicellular organisms Human Digestive System 3. Where does mechanical digestion begin in humans? A) Stomach B) Small intestine  C) Mouth D) Esophagus 4. Which enzyme in the mouth starts the chemical digestion process? A) Trypsin B) Salivary amylase C) Pepsinogen D) Gastrin The Digestive Tract 5. What role does the pharynx play in digestion? A) Absorbs nutrients B) Prevents food from entering the lungs C) Begins protein digestion D) Produces digestive enzymes 6. How does the esophagus move food to the stomach? A) Gravity B) Muscle relaxation C) Peristalsis D) Acid secretion The Stomach 7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach? A) Churning food for mechanical digestion B) Producing chyme for nutrient absorption C) Releasing enzymes for chemical digestion D) Storing bile 8. What is the primary function of the cardiac sphincter? A) Regulate chyme entering the small intestine B) Prevent backflow into the esophagus C) Store digestive enzymes D) Produce bicarbonate 9. Which cells in the gastric pits secrete hydrochloric acid? A) Chief cells B) Goblet cells C) Parietal cells D) Mucous cells Small Intestine 10. What is the main function of the duodenum? A) Nutrient absorption B) Digestive enzyme production  C) Digestion of food components D) Water absorption 11. What substance do goblet cells secrete to protect the small intestine? A) Hydrochloric acid B) Mucus C) Enzymes D) Bile 12. Which hormone slows gastric emptying and stimulates the gallbladder? A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin (CCK) D) Amylase 13. Which enzyme digests carbohydrates in the small intestine? A) Trypsin B) Amylase C) Lipase D) Chymotrypsin 14. What is the role of bile in digestion? A) Neutralizes acidic chyme B) Emulsifies fats C) Breaks down carbohydrates D) Stimulates gastric acid release 15. Where are fatty acids and glycerols absorbed in the small intestine? A) Microvilli B) Lacteals C) Blood capillaries D) Goblet cells Large Intestine 16. What is a key function of the large intestine? A) Digesting proteins B) Water absorption C) Secreting bile D) Breaking down starch 17. What structure stores feces until defecation? A) Cecum B) Appendix C) Rectum D) Colon 18. What is the primary benefit of the gut microbiome? A) Produces hydrochloric acid B) Facilitates vitamin production and fiber fermentation C) Absorbs proteins D) Regulates sphincter activity Liver 19. Which liver function is described by the mnemonic "PUSH DoG"? A) Hormone detoxification B) Plasma protein synthesis C) Glucose metabolism D) Fat absorption 20. What is gluconeogenesis? A) Storage of glucose as glycogen B) Breakdown of glycogen into glucose C) Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources D) Absorption of glucose into lacteals Reproductive Station 1: Functions of the Reproductive System 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the reproductive system? A) To produce sex cells (gametes) B) To transport nutrients to the kidneys C) To nurture developing offspring D) To produce hormones for regulation 2. What is the term for the process of producing offspring? A) Gametogenesis B) Ovulation C) Fertilization D) Reproduction Station 2-3: Male Structures and Functions 3. What are the male gametes called? A) Ovum B) Sperm C) Zygote D) Testes 4. What is the primary function of the vas deferens? A) Produces testosterone  B) Transports sperm to the urethra C) Stores sperm for maturation D) Secretes fluids to nourish sperm 5. Which gland secretes a fluid that neutralizes the acidic environment of the vagina? A) Prostate gland B) Bulbourethral gland C) Seminal vesicle D) Pituitary gland Station 4-6: Sperm Production and Maturation 6. Where are sperm produced? A) Epididymis B) Vas deferens C) Seminiferous tubules D) Prostate gland 7. How long does it take for sperm to mature? A) 14 days B) 30 days C) 70 days D) 100 days 8. What is the function of the epididymis? A) Produces semen B) Stores and matures sperm C) Produces testosterone D) Secretes hormones Station 8-10: Male Reproductive Glands 9. What does the prostate gland produce? A) Fructose for energy B) Hormones to regulate sperm production C) A thin fluid that helps sperm move D) Fluids to neutralize the vaginal environment 10. What is the result of a vasectomy? A) The testes no longer produce sperm B) The vas deferens is removed C) Sperm are not present in the semen D) Testosterone production stops Station 11-12: The Penis and Hormones  11. What type of tissue allows the penis to become erect? A) Smooth muscle tissue B) Skeletal muscle tissue C) Corpus cavernosum and corpus spongiosum D) Connective tissue 12. Which hormone stimulates sperm production? A) Testosterone B) Progesterone C) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) D) Estrogen Station 13-14: Female Structures and Functions 13. What is the main function of the ovaries? A) Producing and storing eggs B) Transporting eggs to the uterus C) Producing milk D) Implantation of the embryo 14. Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive system? A) Ovaries B) Fallopian tubes C) Uterus D) Vagina 15. What structure separates the vagina from the uterus? A) Cervix B) Fallopian tube C) Endometrium D) Corpus luteum Station 15-17: Fallopian Tubes and Uterus 16. What helps move the egg along the Fallopian tubes? A) Flagella B) Cilia and peristaltic contractions C) Smooth muscle relaxation D) Gravity 17. What is the inner lining of the uterus called? A) Myometrium B) Endometrium C) Perimetrium D) Epithelium Station 18-22: Hormones and Menstrual Cycle 18. Which hormone is responsible for thickening the uterine lining? A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone 19. What event separates the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle? A) Fertilization B) Ovulation C) Implantation D) Menstruation 20. What happens to the egg if fertilization does not occur? A) It matures into another follicle B) It dissolves and is shed during menstruation C) It is stored in the uterus for the next cycle D) It triggers the release of more LH Fertilization Development Fertilization and Early Development 1. What is the role of the fimbriae during fertilization? ○ A. To release sperm into the uterus ○ B. To help guide the egg into the uterine tube ○ C. To produce hormones for implantation ○ D. To prevent polyspermy 2. What prevents polyspermy after fertilization? ○ A. The sperm’s tail detachment ○ B. The zona pellucida hardening ○ C. HCG secretion by the trophoblast ○ D. The uterine wall closing 3. At what stage does the zygote reach the uterus? ○ A. Day 1 ○ B. Day 3-4 as a morula ○ C. Day 5-6 as a blastocyst ○ D. Day 8-9 during implantation 4. What hormone signals the corpus luteum to maintain progesterone release? ○ A. Progesterone  ○ B. Estrogen ○ C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) ○ D. Oxytocin Pregnancy Changes 5. Why does blood pressure decrease during pregnancy despite increased blood flow? ○ A. Increased cardiac output ○ B. Smooth muscle relaxation by progesterone ○ C. Supine hypotensive syndrome ○ D. Blood vessel constriction 6. What is a solution to supine hypotensive syndrome? ○ A. Increase water intake ○ B. Sleep on the left side ○ C. Perform daily exercise ○ D. Avoid food high in sodium 7. What causes increased urinary frequency during pregnancy? ○ A. Increased renal filtration rates ○ B. Progesterone relaxing smooth muscles ○ C. Enlarged uterus pressing on the bladder ○ D. Both A and C 8. What is a key adaptation in the respiratory system during pregnancy? ○ A. Increased diaphragm rigidity ○ B. Decreased carbon dioxide exhalation ○ C. Increased oxygen demand and minute ventilation ○ D. Reduced chest wall mobility Fetal Development 9. At what week does the neural tube begin forming? ○ A. Week 2 ○ B. Week 6 ○ C. Week 8 ○ D. Week 16 10. What supplement is essential to prevent neural tube defects? A. Iron B. Calcium C. Folic acid D. Vitamin D 11. At what week can fetal sex be identified via ultrasound?  A. Week 8 B. Week 12 C. Week 16 D. Week 20 12. By the end of the first trimester, what is the approximate fetal weight? A. 1 ounce B. 2 ounces C. 4 ounces D. 8 ounces Labor and Delivery 13. What marks the beginning of labor? A. Braxton Hicks contractions B. Regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes C. Lightening (the drop) D. Loss of the mucus plug 14. During the active phase of labor, how much does the cervix dilate per hour in first-time mothers? A. 0.5 cm B. 1 cm C. 1.2 cm D. 1.5 cm 15. What is the main goal of Stage 1 of labor? A. Delivery of the baby B. Delivery of the placenta C. Cervical thinning and dilation to 10 cm D. Descent of the baby into the birth canal 16. Which stage of labor is referred to as the “pushing stage”? A. Latent phase B. Transition phase C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3 Risk Factors and Interventions 17. What is Cephalopelvic Disproportion (CPD)? A. A small fetal head causing slow labor B. A mismatch between the baby’s head size and the mother’s pelvis C. Failure of uterine contractions to progress D. A condition requiring prolonged bed rest  18. What intervention can address weak uterine contractions during labor? A. Epidural placement B. Oxytocin administration C. Cesarean section D. Position changes 19. What maternal position helps alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava during pregnancy? A. Supine B. Upright sitting C. Left lateral side D. Semi-Fowler’s 20. Why are pregnant women at increased risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs)? A. Decreased kidney filtration rates B. Hormonal changes reducing immunity C. Dilation of ureters causing urinary stasis D. Increased bladder capacity reducing urination frequency Pregnancy and Development Pregnancy and Development 1. What are the main stages of pregnancy and development? a) Germinal, Fetal, Embryonic, Labor b) Fertilization, Germinal, Embryonic, Fetal, Birth c) Conception, Gestational, Labor, Delivery d) Fertilization, Blastocyst, Embryo, Neonatal 2. Where does normal fertilization typically occur? a) Ovary b) Cervix c) Uterus d) Ampulla of the fallopian tube 3. How long can sperm survive in the female reproductive tract? a) 24 hours b) 3 days c) 5 days d) 7 days 4. What is capacitation? a) Formation of the blastocyst b) Changes in sperm enabling them to penetrate the egg  c) Process of fertilization in the uterus d) Implantation of the zygote into the uterine wall 5. What occurs during the acrosomal reaction? a) Sperm tail attaches to the egg b) Egg releases enzymes to trap sperm c) Enzymes from the sperm digest the zona pellucida d) Zygote divides into multiple cells Twinning 6. How do identical twins form? a) From two fertilized eggs b) From the splitting of one fertilized egg c) From fertilization by two different sperm d) From incomplete separation of the placenta 7. How do fraternal twins form? a) From a single fertilized egg b) From fertilization of one egg by two sperm c) From fertilization of two separate eggs by two separate sperm d) From cloning during cell division 8. What is a key genetic difference between identical and fraternal twins? a) Identical twins are genetically similar to siblings, fraternal are identical. b) Identical twins are genetically identical, fraternal share about 50% of DNA. c) Identical twins share 25% of DNA, fraternal share 50%. d) Identical twins and fraternal twins have identical DNA. Maternal Changes 9. What hormone increases significantly during the first trimester? a) Oxytocin b) Progesterone c) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) d) Estrogen 10. What is a notable physical change during the second trimester? a) Cervical dilation b) Quickening (fetal movements) c) Release of oxytocin d) Uterine contractions 11. What hormonal change in the third trimester helps prepare the pelvis for childbirth? a) Increase in progesterone  b) Increase in relaxin c) Decrease in estrogen d) Surge of hCG Prenatal Development 12. Which major event occurs during the germinal phase? a) Formation of germ layers b) Cleavage and blastocyst formation c) Neurulation d) Organogenesis 13. What is the duration of the embryonic phase? a) Weeks 1–2 b) Weeks 3–8 c) Weeks 9–12 d) Weeks 13–20 14. What major development occurs during the fetal phase? a) Neurulation b) Formation of germ layers c) Growth and organ maturation d) Fertilization Parturition 15. What physical change occurs during the first stage of parturition? a) Placental delivery b) Cervical dilation and effacement c) Delivery of the baby d) Uterine involution 16. How does oxytocin influence labor? a) Stimulates uterine contractions b) Relaxes the cervix c) Stops labor progression d) Prevents placental delivery 17. What happens during the third stage of parturition? a) Fetal development b) Cervical dilation c) Placental delivery d) Quickening Neonatal Changes 18. Which circulatory change occurs in the newborn after birth? a) Closure of the foramen ovale b) Initiation of lung development c) Formation of germ layers d) Neurulation 19. What is the role of brown fat in neonates? a) To support organ maturation b) To produce heat through thermogenesis c) To stimulate the respiratory system d) To close the ductus arteriosus 20. What respiratory change occurs in a newborn at birth? a) Closure of the foramen ovale b) Removal of lung fluid and initiation of breathing c) Maturation of the brainstem d) Formation of alveoli