VAJIRAM & RAVI PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test 01 (19-01-2025) PDF

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO VAJIRAM & RAVI PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01 (19-01-2025) TEST BOOKLET Time Allowed: Two Hour...

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO VAJIRAM & RAVI PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01 (19-01-2025) TEST BOOKLET Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take this Test Booklet with you. 9. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE QUESTIONS. i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO  VAJIRAM & RAVI 1. The promissory clause printed on the Indian 4. Consider the following statements: banknotes i.e., “I promise to pay the bearer the Statement-I: sum of Rupees...…” denotes: Revenue-based financing is increasingly becoming a preferred mode of raising capital for start-ups. (a) assurance given by the scheduled banks to Statement-II: exchange banknotes for gold on demand In revenue-based financing, only a fixed (b) guarantee given by the government to honor percentage of gross revenue of the start-ups is the currency value in case of a financial crisis paid to the investors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of (c) promise by all banks in India to exchange the above statements? soiled currencies from customers (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct (d) obligation on part of the Reserve Bank of and Statement–II explains Statement–I India to honor the value mentioned as legal (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are tender correct, but Statement–II does not explain Statement–I (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is 2. Consider the following methods of payment: incorrect (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is 1. Cash payments correct 2. Bank transfers 3. Cheques 5. With reference to the capital markets, the term “Wash Trading” means: 4. Card payments (a) a practice of buying and selling the same 5. Direct debits security to create misleading market information How many of the above are examples of push (b) a strategy where trading occurs at mutually payments? agreed predetermined prices (a) Only two (c) a practice of trading of stock by a broker who has insider knowledge of future transactions (b) Only three (d) a strategy aimed at placing fake stock orders (c) Only four at multiple price levels (d) All five 6. Consider the following: 1. Countering inflation 3. The Reserve Bank of India has recently introduced 2. Balancing foreign exchange reserves the ‘Secured Overnight Rupee Rate (SORR)’ as 3. Hedging against fiat currencies an instrument of: 4. Preventing fluctuations in stock market prices (a) Commodity market The Reserve Bank of India maintains gold reserves for how many of the above reasons? (b) Bond market (a) Only one (c) Money market (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) Forex market (d) All four Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 1 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 7. What does ‘fiscal glide path’ mean in the context 11. In India, which one of the following best reflects of India’s public finance? the ‘Principles of Natural Justice’? (a) A strategy to increase government spending (a) Supremacy of Constitution gradually (b) Integrated judiciary (b) A strategy to increase tax revenues (c) Due Process of Law under Article 21 of the (c) A strategy to gradually reduce the fiscal Constitution of India deficit over time (d) Procedure Established by Law (d) A strategy to reduce inflation by controlling money supply 12. Consider the following rights: 1. Right to be Silent 8. Which of the following fertilisers are covered 2. Flying the National Flag under the “reasonable pricing” control regime in 3. Right of Livelihood India? 4. Right to Information 1. Di-Ammonium Phosphate How many of the above are derived from Article 2. Muriate of Potash 19 of the Constitution of India? 3. Neem-coated Urea (a) Only one 4. Ammonium Sulphate (b) Only two (c) Only three Select the correct answer using the code given (d) All four below: (a) 1 and 2 only 13. What does ‘’Naming a Member” mean in the (b) 3 and 4 only context of parliamentary proceedings in India? (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) Passing a motion against the member who has (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 conducted a breach of Parliamentary etiquette (b) Announcing members’ name based on the 9. Liberal Constitutionalism means: order to be followed for participation in a (a) a State mandated to promote progressive House debate societal change (c) Nominating a member to a parliamentary (b) a State limited to interfere in the sphere of committee by the Presiding Officer of the House individual freedom (d) Drawing attention of the House by the (c) a State with absolute authority to ensure Speaker for pointing out a certain member for uniform societal progress disregarding the authority of chair (d) a State focussed on the promotion of collective rights over individual freedoms 14. With reference to chargesheet, consider the following statements: 10. Consider the following: 1. It is the final report filed by the police after 1. Part IV-A the completion of the investigation. 2. Part IX-A 2. It is accessible to the public. 3. Part IX-B 3. Once it is filed, the accused cannot apply for 4. Part XIV-A a statutory bail. How many of the above were added by the 42nd Which of the statements given above is/are Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976? correct? (a) Only one (a) 1 only (b) Only two (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3 2 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 15. The Drafting Committee for the Constitution of 19. Which one of the following examines that money India was appointed by: granted by Parliament has been spent by the (a) an executive order by the Governor General executive “within the scope of the demand”? of India (b) a cabinet resolution of the interim government (a) Committee on Public Undertaking (c) a resolution passed by the Constituent (b) Estimates Committee Assembly (d) the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission (c) Ethics Committee (d) Public Account Committee 16. Consider the following cases: 1. A. K. Gopalan vs State of Madras 2. Menaka Gandhi vs Union of India 20. In which of the following situations the Council 3. Aruna Shanbaug vs Union of India of Ministers have to resign? 4. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India How many of the above cases deal with the 1. Failure of the passing of the Motion of provisions of Article 21 of the Constitution of India? Thanks (a) Only one 2. Passing of the Privilege Motion (b) Only two (c) Only three 3. Passing of the Censure Motion (d) All four 4. Passing of the Cut Motion 17. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given In the case of contempt of Court, the Supreme below: Court can take action: (a) 1 and 4 only 1. Suo motu 2. On a petition made by Solicitor General (b) 2 and 3 only 3. On a petition made by any person (c) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 21. Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Greenhushing”? 18. Which of the following statements are correct (a) Manipulating environmental data of a project regarding the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha? in Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) 1. S/he cannot vote when the resolution for her/ his removal is under consideration. (b) Conveying a false impression that a 2. S/he cannot preside over a joint sitting of the company’s products are eco-friendly Parliament. (c) Withholding information about negative 3.  S/he cannot cast a vote in the case of a deadlock in the House. implications of a industry’s production Select the correct answer using the code given below: processes (a) 1 and 2 only (d) Strategically underreporting about the (b) 2 and 3 only environmental goals and achievements by a (c) 1 and 3 only firm (d) 1, 2 and 3 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 3 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 22. Consider the following statements: 25. Consider the following: Once an area is notified as a ‘Biosphere Reserve’ 1. Red sanders in India, then: 2. Myristica magnifica 1.  Other protected areas, like Wildlife 3. Dicliptera polymorpha Sanctuaries, falling within such areas are 4. Red Vanda denotified. How many of the above species are endemic to 2. The Government of India provides financial assistance for its management. Western Ghats? 3. A focus is made on improving the quality of life (a) Only one of indigenous communities living in such areas. (b) Only two How many of the statements given above are correct? (c) Only three (a) Only one (d) All four (b) Only two (c) All three 26. The ‘‘Fukuoka Technique’’ is well known for: (d) None (a) planting trees and shrubs close to one another 23. Consider the following: to accelerate their growth 1. Switchgrass (b) cultivation that requires no chemicals and 2. Sugarcane minimal human interventions 3. Jatropha (c) development of dense gardens using 4. Corn genetically modified flora How many of the above are considered as energy (d) growing plants using a water-based nutrient crops? solution rather than soil (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three 27. Consider the following: (d) All four 1. Cockroach 2. Sea Urchin 24. Consider the following statements: 3. Goblin Shark Statement-I: 4. Owl Atmospheric water vapour reached a record high Which of the above species are considered as in 2024. ‘living fossils’? Statement-II: Global warming exceeded 1.5°C above pre- (a) 1 and 2 only industrial levels for the first time in 2024. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Which one of the following is correct in respect of (c) 1 and 3 only the above statements? (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I 28. For which one of the following purposes diamond (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are dust is injected into the Earth’s upper atmosphere? correct, but Statement–II does not explain (a) To create artificial rains Statement–I (b) To prevent solar flares from reaching Earth (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect (c) To reduce ultraviolet radiation exposure on (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is Earth correct (d) To reduce the temperature of Earth 4 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 29. Consider the following pairs: 32. Consider the following: Pipeline Country/Region Statement-I: 1. Druzhba Russia-Belarus The arctic soils have high levels of organic matter. Statement-II: 2. TurkStream Kazakhstan-Turkey The rate of decomposition reduces with the 3. Yamal-Europe Russia-West Europe decrease of temperature. 4. West-East United States-Canada Statement-III: There is less vegetation in the arctic region due to How many of the pairs given above are correctly the shorter growing season. matched? Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) Only one pair the above statements ? (b) Only two pairs (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are (c) Only three pairs correct and both of them explain Statement-I (d) All four pairs (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains 30. Which one of the following best describes the Statement-I ‘irrigation intensity’? (c) Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I (a) The total quantity of water needed by a crop for optimal growth (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-lll is correct (b) The amount of agricultural output produced per unit of water used for irrigation (c) The proportion of agricultural land under 33. In which of the following ways, temperate rainfed conditions versus irrigated conditions cyclones is/are different from tropical cyclones? 1.  Unlike tropical cyclones, there is no (d) The percentage of net irrigated area compared requirement of minimum Sea Surface to the net sown area used for farming Temperature for temperate cyclones. 2. The movement of tropical cyclones is driven 31. Which of the following is the correct sequence of by prevailing winds whereas temperate the regions in West Asia based on their location cyclones move under the influence of local from North to South? circulations. (a) Gaza Strip - West Bank - Golan Heights - 3. Unlike tropical cyclones, temperate cyclones Aleppo do not cause convectional rainfall. (b) West Bank - Aleppo - Golan Heights - Gaza Select the correct answer using the code given Strip below: (c) Golan Heights - Aleppo - West Bank - Gaza (a) 1 and 2 only Strip (b) 3 only (d) Aleppo - Golan Heights - West Bank - Gaza (c) 1 and 3 only Strip (d) 1, 2 and 3 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 5 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 34. The Circum-equatorial Corridor, one of the most 37. Consider the following statements: important sea routes in the world, passes through Statement-I: which of the following? Analyzing X-ray polarization helps in examining geometry of celestial sources. 1. Bosphorus Strait Statement-II: 2. Strait of Malacca Each celestial process manifests its distinct polarization signature in appropriate energy 3. Suez Canal bands. 4. Panama Canal Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct below: and Statement–II explains Statement–I (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct, but Statement–II does not explain (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Statement–I (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is correct 35. Which one of the following is an odd one out? 38. Which one of the following technologies is used (a) Paracetamol in 3D glasses to create the illusion of depth during a movie experience? (b) Valium (a) Parallax (c) Serotonin (b) Stereoscopy (d) Barbituric acid (c) Interferometry (d) Triangulation 36. Which of the following animals naturally possess39. Consider the following statements: the ability to produce ultrasound? Statement-I: A geostationary orbit is ideal for satellites designed 1. Dolphins for high-resolution earth observation. 2. Bats Statement-II: Satellites in geostationary orbit fly with a speed 3. Porpoises exactly matching earth’s rotation. 4. Toothed Whales Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 5. Elephant (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct Select the correct answer using the code given and Statement–II explains Statement–I below: (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct but Statement–II does not explain (a) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement–I (b) 3 and 4 only (c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only correct 6 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 40. All matter has both wave-like and particle-like 43. Consider the following pairs: properties. When a particle encounters a potential Buddha Mudra Associated energy barrier, it can behave like a wave and Dhyani-Buddha spread out over the barrier. If the wave function 1. Abhaya Mudra Amoghasiddhi of the particle extends beyond the barrier, there is 2. Dharmachakra Vairochana a probability that the particle will be found on the Mudra other side of the barrier, even if its energy is lower 3. B h u m i s p a r s h a Akshobhya than the barrier’s height. This is the most likely Mudra description of: 4. Dhyana Mudra Amitabha (a) Quantum superposition How many of the pairs given above are correctly (b) Quantum interference matched? (c) Quantum entanglement (a) Only one pair (d) Quantum tunneling (b) Only two pairs (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs 41. Consider the following pairs: Element used in Application 44. The administrative post of ‘Vedor da Fazenda’ Biotechnology was associated with which one of the following 1. Bacillus thuringiensis Insecticide colonial powers in India? 2. Agrobacterium Gene transfer (a) Spain 3. β-carotene Food fortification (b) Portugal (c) France How many of the pairs given above are correctly (d) Denmark matched? (a) Only one pair 45. Consider the following rulers: (b) Only two pairs 1. Chandragupta (c) All three pairs 2. Ashoka (d) None 3. Skandagupta 4. Firuz Shah Tughlaq 5. Jahangir 42. In the context of the vedic period, the terms How many of the above have their inscriptions on ‘Priyangu’ and ‘Shyamaka’ refer to: the Allahabad-Kosam pillar at Prayagraj? (a) Metal Tools (a) Only two (b) Millets (b) Only three (c) Glazed Black Pottery (c) Only four (d) Jewellery (d) All five Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 7 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 46. Consider the following statements with reference 50. Consider the following pairs: to the Ajivika sect: Literature Author 1.  They believed in absolute determinism, 1. The Indian Subash Chandra Bose rejecting the concept of free will. Struggle 2. Vishwa Prem Chandra Shekhar Azad 2. Emperor Ashoka granted caves in Barabar 3. Sandhya Patrika Brahma Bandhab Upa- Hills to the Ajivikas. dhyay 3. They promoted karma theory as central to How many of the pairs given above are correctly their philosophy. matched? How many of the statements given above are (a) Only one pair correct? (b) Only two pairs (a) Only one (c) All three pairs (b) Only two (d) None (c) All three (d) None 51. If a country is placed under the ‘regular follow- up’ category of the Financial Action Task Force 47. In context to India’s architecture, the term ‘Yasti’ (FATF), it implies: is related to: (a) the country is facing economic sanctions (a) rock-cut caves from major economies due to its financial (b) stupas irregularities (c) vaishnavite temples (b) the country has significant deficiencies in (d) royal tombs tackling money laundering and terror funding (c) the country has to amend its domestic laws in conformity with FATF regulations otherwise 48. Consider the following legislations of colonial would likely to placed in the ‘grey list’ in India: near future 1. Act XV of 1856 (d) the country has taken positive measures 2. Anand Marriage Act, 1909 to tackle illicit finance including money 3. Brahmo Marriage Act, 1872 laundering and terror funding 4. Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 How many of the above facilitated widow 52. Consider the following statements regarding the remarriage in India? Minimum Support Prices (MSP) in India: (a) Only one 1.  The value of labour provided by family (b) Only two members is not considered as a production cost while determining MSP. (c) Only three 2. The Government of India announces MSPs (d) All four at a level of at least 1.5 times the A2+FL cost of production. 49. Who among the following founded the group Which of the statements given above is/are ‘Goodwill Fraternity’? correct? (a) Ananda Mohan Bose (a) 1 only (b) Dwijendranath Tagore (b) 2 only (c) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Keshab Chandra Sen (d) Neither 1 nor 2 8 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 53. What is ‘Blue Bond’? 56. The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in which of (a) An instrument to finance conservation of the following sectors require government approval forest biodiversity in India? (b) An insurance mechanism to protect ships 1. Telecom communication infrastructure against pirates in high seas 2. Print media 3. Critical pharmaceutical drugs (c) A debt instrument to finance marine and 4. Lotteries ocean-based projects 5. Real Estate (d) A viability gap funding to encourage private Select the correct answer using the code given below: sector in river linking projects (a) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 54. Consider the following statements: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only Statement-I: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 In 2024, India was the largest recipient of 57. With reference to Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN), remittances in the World. consider the following statements: Statement-II: 1. Its resources are raised through a ‘Universal There has been a recovery in the job markets of Access Levy’ (UAL) on telecom operators. the high-income countries. 2. It monitors and implements the Universal Statements-III: Service Obligation (USO) Fund projects. Net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows into 3. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India India increased considerably in 2024. (TRAI) Chairman acts as its ex-officio Which one of the following is correct in respect of administrator. the statements given above? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Both statement -II and statement -III are (a) 1 only correct and both of them explain statement -I (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (b) Both statement -II and statement -III are (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct, but only one of them explains statement -I 58. The gravity model of international trade states (c) Only one of the statements II and III is correct, that: and that explains statement -I (a) bilateral trade between two countries is (d) Neither Statement -II nor statement -III is proportional to their population sizes and correct inversely related to inflation differential between them 55. India is said to be at the inflection point of its (b) bilateral trade between two countries is demographic transition for which one of the proportional to their economic sizes and following reasons? inversely related to share of agriculture in (a) The proportion of the elderly is projected to their respective economic output stabilize (c) bilateral trade between two countries is proportional to their population sizes and (b) The fertility rate is expected to increase inversely related to trade barriers between significantly them (c) The proportion of youths in total population (d) bilateral trade between two countries is is projected to decline proportional to their economic sizes and (d) The proportion of the working-age population inversely related to the geographic distance is projected to increase between them Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 9 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 59. Which of the following statements regarding 62. Consider the following statements: the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Statement-I: Amendment Act, 2024 are correct? All “non-native species” are “invasive’’ in nature 1. It decriminalizes several minor offences for the host ecosystem. related to water pollution. Statement-II: 2. It empowers the Central Government to Introduction of “non-native species” can cause exempt certain industries from obtaining harm to the host ecosystem. prior consent for discharging sewage. Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3. The appointment and service conditions of the the above statements? Chairperson of State Pollution Control Board (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct is prescribed by the Central Government. and Statement–II explains Statement–I Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are below: correct, but Statement–II does not explain (a) 1 and 2 only Statement–I (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is (c) 1 and 3 only incorrect (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct 60. The terms ‘DUET and ENTICE’ are sometimes 63. With reference to the Wetland City Accreditation, seen in the news in the context of: consider the following statements: (a) Space exploration 1. It recognizes cities with the highest number (b) Energy transition of wetland sites in different countries. (c) Artificial intelligence 2. It considers both natural and human-made (d) Climate migration wetlands for accreditation. 3.  It is granted by Wetlands International in 61. Consider the following pairs: association with UN-Habitat. Polymer Type Common Use How many of the statements given above are 1. Polyethylene Food containers correct? Terephthalate (PET) (a) Only one 2. High-Density Shampoo bottles (b) Only two Polyethylene (HDPE) (c) All three 3. Polystyrene (PS) Disposable coffee (d) None cups 64. Which one of the following components is Which of the pairs given above are correctly commonly found in pink fire retardants used to matched? fight wildfires? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) Ammonium phosphate (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) 1 and 3 only (c) Potassium nitrate (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Calcium chloride 10 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 65. Consider the following: 68. Consider the following statements: 1. Steller’s sea cow Statement-I: 2. Manatee Herons are important ecological wetland health 3. Dugong indicators. How many of the above species are extinct? Statement-II: (a) Only one Herons are subject to bioaccumulation and biomagnification of toxic materials. (b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in respect of (c) All three the above statements? (d) None (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I 66. Consider the following statements: (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are Statement-I: correct, but Statement–II does not explain Monsoon rainfall generally improves ground Statement–I water quality by diluting salts. (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is Statement-II: incorrect Monsoon rainfall always leads to a reduction in (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is nitrate levels in groundwater. correct Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 69. Which one of the following correctly refers to (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct India’s ‘Nuclear Triad’? and Statement–II explains Statement–I (a) INS Arihant, Sagarika, Rafale (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are (b) Agni-V, INS Arihant, Rafale correct, but Statement–II does not explain (c) INS Arihant, Rafale, Mirage-2000H Statement–I (d) Agni-V, Prithvi, Akash (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect 70. With reference to Organs-on-chips (OoCs), (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is consider the following statements: correct 1. It is created through tissue engineering to mimic human physiology. 67. The term ‘Urban Mining’ is used for: 2.  Polydimethylsiloxane (PDMS) is a (a) extracting minerals from municipal solid commonly used material in OoCs. waste landfills 3. It offers a potential alternative to traditional (b) underground mining techniques for animal testing. semiconductor industries Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) extracting valuable minerals from electronic (a) 1 and 2 only waste (b) 2 and 3 only (d) generating a cryptographic solution that (c) 1 and 3 only matches specific Bitcoin criteria (d) 1, 2 and 3 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 11 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 71. Consider the following statements: 74. Consider the following geographical features of Statement-I: India: End-to-end encryption (E2EE) prevents cloud 1. Mount Girnar service providers and internet service providers 2. Tosham Hill from accessing data during transmission. 3. Lonar Lake Statement-II: 4. Barren Island E2EE secures data only while it moves between How many of the above are of volcanic origin? endpoints, but does not encrypt data stored on (a) Only one cloud servers. (b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in respect of (c) Only three the above statements? (d) All four (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I 75. Which one of the following countries celebrates (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are the New Year first? correct, but Statement–II does not explain (a) Australia Statement–I (b) New Zealand (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is (c) Kiribati incorrect (d) Russia (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is 76. Consider the following statements regarding the correct Governor of a State: 72. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India consults the Governor 1. The proposal for an All India Federation was while appointing Judges of the State High first suggested by the Butler Committee. Court. 2.  The Delhi Pact of 1932 by the Princely 2.  S/he appoints District Judges and other States favored the creation of an All India persons to the judicial service in the State. Federation. 3. The power of terminating the services of a Which of the statements given above is/are correct? District Judge is with the Governor. Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) 1 only the above statements? (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only 73. Consider the following statements regarding M.C. (d) 1, 2 and 3 Rajah: 1. He was the Founder-President of All India 77. Consider the following: Depressed Classes Association. 1. Cross voting in Rajya Sabha election 2. Cross voting in the Presidential election 2. He attended the Second Round Table 3. Abstaining from voting in the House after a Conference as a representative of Dalits. whip is issued 3. He advocated for separate electorates for How many of the above instances can lead to Dalits. disqualification of a Member of Parliament based How many of the statements given above are correct? on Anti-Defection Law? (a) Only one (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three (d) None (d) None 12 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 78. In the context of the electoral rolls for general 82. Consider the following statements regarding the elections in India, which one of the following Kumbh Mela: statements is not correct? 1. It takes place alternatively at four cities – (a) The provisions for the preparation of electoral Prayagraj, Nashik, Ujjain, and Rameshwaram. 2. It is listed on the UNESCO intangible World rolls are provided under the Representation Heritage List. of the People Act, 1950. 3. The Maha Kumbh Mela takes place every (b) A person can apply for enrollment in the voter twelve years, while the Ardha Kumbha is a list only after attaining the age of 18 years. triennial event. (c) The electoral roll is updated every quarter. How many of the above statements are correct? (d) A Non-Resident Indian settled in a foreign (a) Only one land can be enrolled in an electoral roll in (b) Only two India. (c) All three (d) None 79. Which of the following are the official languages of the United Nations (UN)? 83. Consider the following pairs: 1. Spanish Country Reason for being in the 2. Arabic news 3. French 1. Bangladesh Military takeover of the 4. Portuguese civil government 5. Hindi 2. Syria Government toppled by 6. Chinese militant rebel forces Select the correct answer using the code given 3. South Korea Political crisis due to below: martial law (a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (b) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only (a) Only one pair (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) Only two pairs (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) All three pairs (d) None 80. What is GovDrive, recently seen in the news? (a) A cloud-based platform to share documents 84. Consider the following pairs: (b) A centralized database for tracking Type of Description government vehicles Biotechnology (c) A blockchain-based system for securing 1. Grey Conservation and recovery government transactions of contaminated natural (d) A mobile app for real-time government ecosystems service updates 2. Golden Analysis of DNA sequence and protein structure 81. Which one of the following best describes ‘shad- 3. White Production of gunya’ in the context of ancient history of India? biodegradable polymers (a) Virtues for a person to attain Moksha in 4. Violet Ethical aspects of Buddhism biotechnology (b) Policies mentioned for a king in Arthashastra How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (c) Religious sacrifices mentioned in the Rig (a) Only one Veda (b) Only two (d) Architectural styles for the Shikhara of (c) Only three temples (d) All four Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 13 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 85. MuleHunter.AI, which aims to combat financial 88. With reference to forest fires, consider the fraud effectively and specifically targets mule following statements: accounts used in illegal activities, has been Statement-I: The majority of fire-related tree cover loss in the introduced by: last two decades have occurred in the tropical (a) NITI Aayog regions. Statement-II: (b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Deforestation associated with agricultural (c) Securities and Exchange Board of India expansion has led to higher temperatures and (SEBI) dried-out vegetation in the tropical regions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural the above statements? Development (NABARD) (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 86. In the context of economy, the term ‘credit mix’ correct, but Statement–II does not explain best refers to: Statement–I (a) the proportion of a bank’s total lending that (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect goes to different sectors (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (b) the variety of loan accounts a person has in correct his credit report 89. Consider the following events: (c) the percentage of a borrower’s total available 1. First Nuclear Test credit that is currently being used 2. First Satellite Launch (d) the contributions of various sources in a 3. Establishment of the ISRO 4. Establishment of DRDO country’s total outstanding debt Which is the correct chronological sequence of above events starting from earliest? (a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 87. Consider the following instruments: (b) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 1. Futures Contracts (c) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 (d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 2. Participatory Notes 3. Promissory Notes 90. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1861: 4. Credit Default Swaps 1.  It provided the Viceroy with ordinance- 5. Commercial Paper making powers during emergencies. 2.  It restored the legislative powers of the How many of the above are derivative instruments? Madras and Bombay Presidencies. (a) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Only three (a) 1 only (c) Only four (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All five (d) Neither 1 nor 2 14 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 91. Consider the following: 94. Consider the following atmospheric conditions: 1. Azotobacter 1. The capacity of air to hold water vapour is at 2. Azolla maximum 2. The place of condensation is very high above 3. Mycorrhiza the ground What is common among all the three organisms 3. Dew point is higher than the freezing point mentioned above? Which of the following types of precipitation (a) All the three are used as biofertilizers would occur due to the above conditions? (b) All the three are detritivores organisms (a) Mist (c) All the three live in symbiotic relationship (b) Fog (c) Dew (d) All the three are bacteriophages (d) Frost 92. Consider the following pairs: 95. Consider the following statements: Official during Role Statement-I: Gupta Period The amount of heat received by different parts of 1. Pustapala Record keeper the earth is not the same. 2. Gopasramin In charge of cattle and Statement-II: pastures The spherical shape of the Earth causes the Sun’s 3. Prathama Kulika Chief artisan or head of rays to fall more directly near the equator. the guild Statement-III: 4. Purapala Protector or The axial tilt of the Earth results in concentration administrator of towns of heat beyond tropics. How many of the above pairs are correctly Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? matched? (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are (a) Only one correct and both of them explain Statement-I (b) Only two (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are (c) Only three correct, but only of them explains Statement-I (d) All four (c) Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is 93. Consider the following statements regarding the correct Equinox: 1. It is the only time when the sun rises directly 96. ‘Retting’ is employed on which of the following due East and sets directly due West for crops to obtain fibre? everyone on Earth. 1. Jute 2. During this time, the actual position of the 2. Mesta sun is below the horizon. 3. Ramie 4. Sunn Hemp Which of the statements given above is/are 5. Cotton correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination 15 PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01  VAJIRAM & RAVI 97. Consider the following pairs: 99. Which one of the following schools of Indian Port Country philosophies was the latest to be established? 1. Newark Canada (a) Mimamsa 2. Qingdao China (b) Yoga 3. Yanbu Saudi Arabia (c) Advaita Vedanta How many of the pairs given above are correctly (d) Charvaka matched? (a) Only one 100. ‘Jack rabbit’, ‘Shaggy horn wild ibex’ and ‘Red (b) Only two panda’ are mainly found in: (c) All three (a) Moist Deciduous Forests (d) None (b) Mangrove Forests (c) Montane Forests 98. Consider the following statements regarding the (d) Tropical Rainforests Arab traveler Al-Masudi: 1.  He visited India during the reign of the Pratihara king Bhoja. 2. He recorded his travels in the book Akhbar- uz-zaman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 16 Vajiram & Ravi Institute for IAS Examination PowerUp All India Prelims Mock Test – 01