Air Law 1-7 PDF

Definitions =========== What is danger area? A. **Can fly in but got specific timing for dangerous activity** B. Cannot fly in at all C. No ATC ICAO Annex 15: Chapter 1 Danger Area: An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight or aircraft may exist at sp...

Definitions =========== What is danger area? A. **Can fly in but got specific timing for dangerous activity** B. Cannot fly in at all C. No ATC ICAO Annex 15: Chapter 1 Danger Area: An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight or aircraft may exist at specified times What is dangerous area? *(244/245)* **Ans: Where safety of flight will be something as there is activity going on during specific period of time** Oxford TB Pg 14: Danger Area -- An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times. Prohibited area over land and territorial waters definition: A. Military jokers B. For aerial work C. **Prohibited at all times** D. Waste time ICAO Annex 15: Chapter 1 Prohibited area: An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited Flight visibility is: **ANS: The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.** ICAO Annex 2: Chapter 1 Flight Visibility: The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight A heavier-than-air [aircraft] is? A. **A machine deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions (no KDR)** B. A power-driven supported by atmosphere w/o surface... C. A power-driven supported reactions to surface \... [Aircraft]: Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface. [Aeroplane]: A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on [surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight] What is described by \"an aircraft which derives lift via aerodynamic forces\" *(237 8-9 July 2020)*\ A. Helicopter\ B. Glider\ **C. Heavier than air aircraft**\ D. Aeroplane Note: Might need to may careful attention to all options. According to ICAO Annex 2 Chapter 1, Aeroplane is a power-driven heavier-than air- aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces. Based on above working, options C and D are the same What is Approach to Landing? A. **That portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 1000ft above the relevant specified decision height or above the aerodrome** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 17]** [Approach to Landing] means that portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 1000 ft above the relevant specified decision height or minimum descent height. When an aircraft can\'t proceed to the airport of intended landing: A. **Proceed to an alternate** Aircraft intend to land at a different aerodrome from the original one. What is this called? A. **Alternate Aerodrome** B. Diversion Aerodrome C. Rubbish Aircraft after [take-off] and need to land due to some emergency or something, where do you go to? A. **Take-off alternate** B. En-route alternate C. Diversion alternate What is instrument ground time?
 **ANS: The time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in flight simulation training devices (FSTDs)** Which statement best describes \"instrument ground time\"? *(new 235/236)* A. The time spent by the pilot on the ground preparing for an instrument departure **B. The time spent by the pilot practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flying on a flying simulation device (chose this)** C. The time spent by the pilot practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flying on the aircraft D. Instrument ground time is not relevant, only instrument time in flight is relevant ***[Instrument Ground Time].** Time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated* *instrument flight in a synthetic flight trainer approved by the Licensing Authority. Oxford pdf pg. 16.* *\*rephrasing of options for similar question above\** *\[Above definition also consistent with ICAO Annex 1: Chapter 1\]* Who can be termed as flight crew member? *[(new qn. obs. Jun 2020)]* A. PIC and other pilots on board B. Crew traveling to a destination to begin flight duty C. Person assigned by operator smth smth D. **Licensed crew charged to perform duty of aircraft ops during flight duty (should be correct)** ***Flight Crew Member:** A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight time. Oxford pg. 15* *\[Above definition also consistent with ICAO Annex 1: Chapter 1\]* Solo flight time is defined as: *[(new 235/236)]* **A. student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft (No KDR)** B. student pilot flies alone with no input and assistant from other pilots C. licensed pilot sole occupant of aircraft D. licensed ***Solo Flight Time.** Flight time during which a student pilot is the **[sole occupant]** of an aircraft. Oxford pg. 19.* *\[Above definition also consistent with ICAO Annex 1: Chapter 1\]* Aircraft put in holding pattern due to delay. ATC gives expected time of approach *[(new 235/236)]* **A. time to leave holding pattern and begin approach (chosen)** B. time to overfly navigation fix and begin approach ***Expected Approach Time**. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach to landing. Oxford pdf pg. 15* ***See also: Expected Approach Time (EAT).** When an aircraft enters a stack the controlling ATCO will pass an EAT which must be acknowledged by the pilot. **[This will be the time that the pilot can expect to commence the instrument approach]**. Initially the EAT will not be less than 30 minutes after the time of entry. If it is expected that the aircraft will not be held for more than 20 minutes, the pilot will be informed "no delay expected". As the approach sequence progresses, if necessary the EAT will be revised by 5 minute intervals, passed to the pilot and acknowledged. Oxford pdf pg. 310.* ATC instructs an arriving aircraft to enter a holding pattern for delay purposes. The aircraft was given an expected approach time. This is the time the aircraft can be expected to: *(254 variant of the same question)* a\) complete approach for landing b\) be above the aerodrome navigation aid and commence approach for landing **c) leave the holding fix and commence approach for landing (No KDR)** d\) cross the initial approach fix and complete approach for landing International Agreements and Organizations ========================================== Which is the 5th freedom? \[251/252\] A. The privilege to to take on in another state (e.g. the USA), traffic destined for the state of airline registration B. The privilege to land in another participating state for traffic purposes C. The privilege to take on in another state (e.g. the USA), traffic destined for the state of airline registration (e.g. the UK). **D. The privilege for an airline registered in one state and en route to or from that state, to take on traffic in a second state and put them down in a third state (No KDR)** An airline wants to start operations to another state. What treaty (agreements) are needed? A. **Bilateral agreement** B. Freedom agreement C. Unilateral agreement Bilateral agreements are between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A. **Two or more ICAO contracting states; agreement on frequency and capacity for flights between countries** B. Two or more ICAO contracting states; agreement on unrestricted flights between countries (It is not unrestricted) **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 31]** **[Scheduled flight]** is a flight, for which agreement has been reached between States (at government level), concerning the schedule. **[For instance, how many flights would be allowed in any period, what aerodromes could be used, what time of day the flights would be allowed, and what reciprocal arrangements would be required.]** A State is not obliged to grant permission for an operator to operate a schedule. As an ICAO contracting state operating a ***[scheduled]*** international flight, you: A. **Require special permission to overfly another contracting state, and it has the right to intercept your aircraft** B. Require special permission to overfly another contracting state, but it can intercept your aircraft according to the interception table. C. Do not require prior permission to overfly another contracting state, and it has the right to intercept your aircraft D. Do not require prior permission to overfly another contracting state, but it does not have the right to intercept your aircraft **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 125]** **5.53 Carriage of Interception Tables.** It is a requirement of national law that aircraft engaged on international flights must carry the **[interception tables.]** Clearly, the intent is that in the event of an interception you refer to the tables. 252: Question re-appeared. **S**cheduled = **S**pecial permission required.. **N**on Scheduled = **N**o permission required. As an ICAO contracting state operating a ***[scheduled]*** international flight, you: A. Require special permission to overfly another contracting state, and it has the right to use weapons against civilian aircraft B. **Require special permission to overfly another contracting state, but it does not retain the right to use weapons against civilian aircraft** C. Do not require prior permission to overfly another contracting state, and it has the right to use weapons against civilian aircraft D. Do not require prior permission to overfly another contracting state, but it does not retain the right to use weapons against civilian aircraft ICAO Annex 2: Appendix 2 1.1 Note: In the unanimous adoption by the 25th Session (Extraordinary) of the ICAO Assembly on 10 May 1984 of Article 3 bis to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. Contracting States have recognised [that "every State must refrain from resorting to the use of weapons against civil aircraft in flight"] A ***non-scheduled flight*** under the ICAO Chicago convention: A\) Can make non traffic stops at contracting state without permission and transit across their territory with special permission B\) Can transit across territory without permission and make non traffic stops at contracting state with special permission **C) Can make both non traffic stops and transit across contracting states without permission** D\) Cannot make both non traffic stops and transit across contracting states without permission ICAO Doc 7300: Article 5 "Make flights into or in transit non-stop across its territory and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission"
 For each ICAO contracting state, for ***non-scheduled flight*** into the contracting state, state has the right: A. Transiting its territory and making stops, based on specific agreement on governmental level between each contracting state B. Transit over its territory; making stops at the state require prior permission, but without unreasonable withholding C. **Transit and making stops at territory for non-traffic purposes do not require prior permission** D. Has the right to apply for air navigation rights. Non-scheduled flight doesn't automatically grant permission. But the contracting states are expected to grant permission unless under unusual circumstances **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 38]** For general aviation and **[non-scheduled commercial]** operations, the filing of an international flight plan is the method by which a flight gives notification to exercise the privileges of the appropriate freedoms. **Second Freedom:** The **[privilege to land]** in another participating state **[for non-traffic purposes]** (i.e. refuelling or repair, but not for uplift or discharge of traffic passengers, cargo or mail). A commercial aircraft arriving from another country (at a contracting state) can land at: A. Any airport it wishes B. Any major international airport C. **A designated airport with customs** D. Any of the above **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 31]** **Facilitation.** Under international law the imposition of customs tariffs and the prohibition of the importation of proscribed items, is allowed. In order to allow Contracting States to maintain national Customs and Excise regulations, **[international flights] are required to make the [first point of landing] in a Contracting State at a [recognized international airport] which provides [customs, health and immigration facilities.]** What is 'direct transit area'?\ A) In manouvering area, layover for passengers while the refueling takes place and new crew takeover **B) A special area in the airport under public authority's control, where passengers can layover without requiring entry to the state (No KDR)** C\) area where there is a need to change from one ATC unit to another Chicago convention states that any aircraft involved in international navigation must have a CoA issued by the state where: A. **Aircraft is registered** B. Aircraft is based C. Aircraft is manufactured D. Aircraft's operator is registered Chicago Convention 1944: Article 31 [Every aircraft engaged in international navigation] shall be provided with a [certificate of airworthiness] [issued or rendered] valid [by the State in which it is registered] Documents to be carried on board each flight: A. **Certificate of Airworthiness, Aircraft Radio License, Ops Manual** B. AIP, NOTAMs, Certificate of Airworthiness C. Pilots' Logbook, NOTAMs, Certificate of Registry D. Certificate of Registry, AIP, Aircraft Radio License Documents required: - Certificate of Registration (original) - [Certificate of Airworthiness (original)] - Noise Certificate (original) - [Aircraft Radio License (original)] - AOC (certified true copy) - Third Party Insurance Certificate (copy) - Each Crew member is to carry the valid license, plus any necessary ratings - Pax manifest - Cargo manifest - Journey logbook - Copy of loadsheet - Technical log - [Operations manual] For international flights, which documents are required? **a) Journey logbook, pax list, flight crew licenses** b\) Journey logbook, registration, airplane flight manual I think the airplane flight manual is the one not required in (b) When overflying another state, what is not allowed to be carried? a. **Munitions of war** a. Radioactive substances b. Biochemicals c. No restrictions, if no landing is made *Oxford Pg 27: No munitions of war may be carried in or above the territory of a State without the permission of that State* *\[Above is consistent with ICAO Doc 7300, Article 35\]* Which convention formed the International Civil Aviation Organization? **A) Chicago 1944** B\) UN at NY 1948 ICAO definition: ICAO, created by the Chicago Convention, is an inter-governmental organization, which has become a specialized agency in relationship with the **United Nations**. The headquarters of ICAO is in Montreal and [it provides the machinery to achieve standardization and agreement between Contracting States of all technical, economic and legal aspects of **international civil aviation.**] ICAO publishes: a. Standards and recommended practices which are enforced worldwide without exception b. Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world c. **Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only** d. International law Sovereignty body of ICAO is the: **a) Assembly** b\) Council c\) Supreme Council d\) Court Note: ICAO has a sovereign body, the Assembly, and a governing body, the Council Which of the following are not ICAO geographical regions? A. Caribbean B. Middle Eastern C. North American D. **Northern European** AFRICA-INDIAN OCEAN (AFI) REGION; ASIA (ASIA) REGION; CARIBBEAN (CAR) REGION; EUROPEAN (EUR) REGION; MIDDLE EAST (MID) REGION; NORTH AMERICAN (NAM) REGION; NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT) REGION; PACIFIC (PAC) REGION; and SOUTH AMERICAN (SAM) REGION. What does ATM mean in PANS-ATM Doc 4444? **a) Air Traffic Management** b\) Aerodrome Traffic Management c\) Airflow Traffic Management ***[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 37]*** [PANS ATM (Doc 4444)] Procedures for [Air Navigation Services -- Air Traffic Management.] This document specifies the requirements for the establishment of an Air Traffic Control Service. The Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft Operations is? **a) PANS OPS Doc 8168** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 167]** Document 8168. The ICAO document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is PANS OPS. The term 'PANS-OPS' is commonly used to refer to the content of [ICAO Doc 8168.] The correct title of the document is ["Procedures for Air Navigation Services"] What are the first 2 technical freedoms? 1. **privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing** 2. **privilege to land in another participating state for non-traffic purpose** **Technical freedom question (255/256)** **Ans: International Air transit agreement** What is the Hague Convention on suppression of unlawful acts (ICAO doc 8290) about? **A) deter hijacking of aircraft** B\) interception of foreign aircraft C\) something (smuggling) D\) (smuggling) also Montreal Convention deals with unlawful incidents other than hijacking. What is not seen as unlawful seizure? a\) Acts of violence on board **b) Smoking on board** c\) Destroying or damaging an air navigation facility d\) Communication of false information Who is responsible for adherence to the Rules of the Air? **a) PIC** b\) Chief exec c\) Air Operator d\) Pilot handling the a/c ICAO Annex 2: 2.3.1 (Responsibility of pilot-in-command) The [pilot-in-command] of an aircraft shall, whether manipulating the controls or not, [be responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the rules of the air], except that the pilot-in-command may depart from these rules in circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interests of safety To whom can a captain not ***[order/demand]*** to restrain a passenger? a\) Himself b\) Police officer c\) Crew **d) Other passenger** When does the PIC have authority over an unruly passenger? **a) Full authority to maintain order and discipline on board a flight** b. As long as it is done in the presence of the passenger in question a. None Warsaw Convention: **ANS: The Warsaw Convention is an international convention which regulates liability for international carriage of persons, luggage or goods performed by aircraft for reward.** When a passenger buys a ticket from an operator, a contract is formed between him and the airline. What does the Warsaw convention provide? **A) Limited liabilities by the operator, as per conditions set out by Warsaw Convention** B\) Operator accept full liability for any loss Based on the Warsaw Convention who is responsible for a passenger with no ticket? **A) The Operator** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 41]** If a carrier accepts a passenger, luggage or cargo on board an aeroplane **[without a ticket/note, then the carrier is liable]** for any loss which is occasioned without the protection of the limits set by the **[Warsaw Convention.]** What is IATA and its purpose? **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 43]** **[The International Air Transport Association (IATA)]** is the air transport **[industry global trade organization.]** Over 60 years, IATA has developed the commercial standards that have built a global industry. Today, IATA's mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to **[improve understanding of the industry]** among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It **[fights for the interests of airlines across the globe,]** challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and governments to account, and **[striving for sensible regulation.]** What is the definition of the commercial freedoms A. 1st freedom definition - The privilege to to take on in another state (e.g. the USA), traffic destined for the state of airline registration B. 2nd freedom definition - The privilege to land in another participating state for traffic purposes C. 4th freedom definition - Some other explanation not related to the 4th freedom **D. 5th freedom definition - The privilege for an airline registered in one state and en route to or from that state, to take on traffic in a second state and put them down in a third state \[NO KDR\]** **Incomplete question, most likely the question presented the definition of 5^th^ Freedom.** ***[The Technical Freedoms]:** These comprise the first two freedoms and were established through the International Air Services Transit Agreement:* ***[The Commercial Freedoms].** The International Air Transport Agreement established three further freedoms. These are defined as commercial and whilst still bilateral, are subject to inter-government negotiation.* The two technical freedoms of the air are the privilege to: *[(new 235/236)]* A. (i) taking on traffic destined for the state of airline registration and (ii) putting down traffic at the state of airline registration B. (i) taking on and putting down traffic destined for the state of airline registration and (ii) taking on and putting down traffic from a 2nd state to a 3rd state C. **(i) flying across the territory of another state and (ii) landing in another participating state for non-traffic purposes (chose this)** D. flying across another territory for the purpose of (i) taking on and (ii) putting down traffic *See accompanying note for the question immediately above.* Airworthiness of Aircraft ========================= Standards of Airworthiness in Annex 8 applies to: A. All aeroplane, including single engine B. All aeroplanes, regardless of weight C. All aeroplanes \>5700kg D. **All aeroplanes \>750kg** Part III covers aircraft \>5,700kg, but Part V covers aircraft 570kg\>5,700kg. Take note of which part of Annex 8 the qns asks for. All for the intention of carrying passengers, cargo, or mail in international air transport. A close up of a text Description automatically generated  ICAO Airworthiness Annex 8 [Part IIIB] applies to: A. All aeroplanes over 5,700kg B. **Aeroplanes over 5,700kg intended for the carriage of passengers or cargo or mail in international air navigation** C. All aeroplanes regardless of weight A close-up of a document Description automatically generated Which aircrafts need a CoA and where it must be kept? **a) All aircrafts, and must be carried on board**  COA must be held by: (C253) A. held by state B. held by operator **C. on board at all time** The validity of a CoA is determined by: A. system of routine inspection developed by aircraft operator and approved by state of registry B. **a periodic inspection at appropriate intervals or a routine inspection approved by the state of registry which achieves equivalent results** C. inspection must be in 4 years and done by approved maintenance inspector ICAO Annex 8: 3.2.3 A [Certificate of Airworthiness] shall be renewed or shall remain valid[, subject to the laws of the State of Registry,] provided that the State of Registry shall require that the continuing airworthiness of the [aircraft shall be determined by a periodical inspection at appropriate intervals] having regard to lapse of time and type of service or, alternatively, by means of a system of inspection, approved by the State, that will produce at least an equivalent result Annex 8: CoA inspections program is developed by? A. By routine inspection 4 year program, approved by the state of registry. B. By routine inspection, lapse of time and type of service, or routine inspection achieving equivalent, approved by State of Registry C. **Developed by the State of Registry** D. Developed by the Operator Annex 8 (Airworthiness of aircraft) defines limit load as the:
 A. design load plus an appropriate safety factor (wrong)
 B. ultimate load less an appropriate safety factor
 C. **the maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions** ***ICAO ANNEX 8: Limit loads.*** The maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions. In relation to Annex 8: What does airworthiness refer to? A\) from the legal perspective **B) from the engineering perspective** C\) from the safety perspective D\) from the operational perspective Annex 8 deals with airworthiness from the engineering point of view. Certificate of Airworthiness release to service: **a) After overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified, maintained or has been inspected** This question is probably talking about maintenance release The required number of crew for a Singapore registered aircraft can be found in: **a) The Certificate of Airworthiness** b\) Aircraft Ops Manual c\) AIP d\) AIRAC ANR 91 Rg 104 (1)(a) Composition of crew: A person must not operate an aircraft unless in the case of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the aircraft carries a [flight crew of the number and description specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness] or flight manual; A State will issue a CoA when it: **a) Confirms that aircraft complies with design aspects of appropriate airworthiness requirements** b\) Confirms certified by manufacturer as airworthy Who is in charge of issuing Certificate of Airworthiness? A\) aircraft manufacturer B\) aircraft manufacturer\'s state **C) contracting state** According to Annex 8 Airworthiness, who determines the continuity of AOC? a\) Head of maintenance department b\) ICAO c\) Holder of the AOC which the A/Cis operated **d) Chief Executive of the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore** Who can renew an AOC? a. The state of where the operator is based b. The state of where the aircrafts are based. c. **The Chief Executive of the state where the operator is registered.** Who is responsible for ensuring Certificate of Airworthiness remains valid? **a) State Of Registry or Chief Executive of Aviation Authority Of Singapore** If a Certificate of Airworthiness expires when an aircraft is overseas, who can renew it? a. An approved maintenance company in that country a. **State of registry** b. The airline c. The authority of the country the plane is stranded What is correct with regards to ensuring the continuity of aircrafts\' airworthiness? A. **State of registry to develop/ adopt requirements to ensure airworthiness** B. Operator to develop maintenance programme to ensure airworthiness For an aircraft during its service life to ensure continued airworthiness, it needs to meet a few requirements, including maintenance requirements. Who are these requirements developed by? A. **State of Registry** B. State of manufacture C. Aircraft manufacturer D. Aircraft operator Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks =========================================== Annex 7 involves the registration and markings of what? a. Operator a. **Aircraft** When concerning the registration of an aircraft, what is the best definition for \"State of Registry\"? **A) The State in whose register the aircraft is entered**\ B) the process required to register an aircraft C\) the validity of the aircraft\'s registration D\) a comprehensive list of all aircraft registered in a State.
 The certificate of registration: a. **Must be brought on a flight** b. Copy of COR as part of flight plan Where should the aircraft registration mark be placed on an heavier-than-air aircraft? A\) On one side of fuselage and left lower surface of the wing **B) Appear once on the lower surface of the wing structure. The mark shall also appear either on each side of the fuselage between the wings and the tail, or on the upper halves of the vertical tail surfaces.** C\) On the upper and lower side of the wing, both wings. The mark shall also appear either on each side of the fuselage between the wings and the tail, or on the upper halves of the vertical tail surfaces. ICAO Annex 7: Heavier-than-air aircraft 4.3.1 Wings: the marks shall appear on [the lower surface of the wing structure]. They shall be located on the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure unless they extend across the whole of the lower surface of the wing structure. So far as is possible, the marks shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings. The tops of the letters and numbers shall be toward the leading edge of the wing 4.3.2 Fuselage and vertical tail surface: [appear either on each side of the fuselage between the wings and the tail surface] or on the [upper halves of the vertical tail surfaces]. When located on a single vertical tail surface, they shall appear on both sides. When located on multi-vertical tail surfaces, they shall appear on the outboard sides of the outer surfaces 4.3.3 Special cases: does not possess parts in above, the marks shall appear in a manner such that the aircraft can be identified readily Hyphen precedes registration mark (not word for word) (255/256) 1\. Mix of 3 letters and numbers (KDR) 2\. ICAO member state (KDR) 3\. Just numbers 4\. Just letters (No KDR) The Singapore nationality mark for aircraft is 9V. What would be a correct nationality and registration mark for a Singapore registered aircraft? a\) SG-9VA **b) 9V-SGA** c\) SG+9VA d\) 9V+SGA The nationality mark is allocated to and by whom? a. **State of Registry by the International Telecommunications Union** ICAO Annex 7: 3.3 (Nationality, common and registration marks to be used) The [nationality mark] shall be selected from the series of nationality symbols included in the radio call signs [allocated the State of Registry by the International Telecommunication Union] Position of **Nationality Mark**? (referring to the position of the country code (9V), eg. **9V**-ABC) **Ans: Precedes the registration mark.** In ICAO Annex 7, definition of an aircraft refers to: a\) Glider and fixed wing b\) Aeroplanes and helicopters c\) All heavier than air machines **d) Aeroplanes, helicopters, glider, balloons, but excludes rockets** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 67]** **[Category of Aircraft]** - Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, e.g. **[aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon.]** [\[]Above is consistent with ICAO Annex 7: Table 1 (Classification of aircraft)\] Flight Crew Licensing ===================== \[242\] The flight crew licenses should be: A\) Carried on board the aircraft **B) In the personal possession of the flight crew at all times** C\) Held by the civil aviation authority of the state D\) Held by the airline operator Who of the following have the right to be part of a flight crew in a civil aeroplane? **A) A person who has an [appropriate license] validated by ANO, unless he is undergoing training or tests for grant or renewal of a pilot\'s licence, or if he is serving as a member of the Armed Forces.** B\) A person who has an professional license validated by ANO, unless he is undergoing training or tests for grant or renewal of a pilot\'s licence, or if he is serving as a member of the Armed Forces. C\) A person who has an appropriate license validated by ANO. (Wrong) Operator should ensure flight crew have the following on flight: **a) Flight crew license.** b\) Only license of Pilot-in-command and Second-in-command, the other crew license are not necessary. Factors relevant to validity of pilot license: A\) Renewal of required medical examination, and undergo flight tests annually **B) Renewal of required medical examinations, and complete flight tests at appropriate intervals** What License does the Singapore Air Safety Publication 7 cover? A\) instructor License B\) student Pilot license C\) professional pilot license **D) flight examiners** For those who are curious, this is the CAAS SASP Part 7 Foreign licence: A. Can validate B. Can convert **C. A and B correct (SASP S12)** D. Cannot validate and convert SASP vs ICAO Annexes: **ANS: SASP is Singapore specific, but it mirrors ICAO Annex 1 as far as possible** SASP & AC for flight crew licensing: a\) Both contain standard procedures acceptable to authority **b) SASP contain mandatory requirements, AC standard procedures acceptable to authority** c\) Both mandatory requirements d\) SASP standard procedures acceptable to authority, AC mandatory requirements *SASP = Singapore Air Safety Publication; AC = Advisory Circular* Flight time hours, when under instruction is known as? a\) Command supervision b\) Command instruction c\) Dual in-command hours **d) Dual instruction** Definition of Flight Time: **a) The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it first comes to rest at the end of the flight** b\) The total time from the moment the engines are started up for the purpose of taking off until the moment when the engines are shut-off c\) The total time from the moment the landing gear lift- off the ground during take-off until the moment when the landing gear touches the ground during landing Pilot above 60 years of age, can operate in multicrew if process renew: a\) 12 months, with another pilot below 60 **b)** **6 months, with another pilot below 60** **[Limitation on privileges of pilots of 60 years and above (ANO PDF pg. 79-80)]** 20A. A holder of a licence granted under paragraph 20(1)(e), (f), (ia), (j) or (k) who is **[60 years of age or older]** may act as a pilot of a public transport aircraft only if the holder is a **[member of a crew with 2 or more pilots.]** When you are over 60 and the holder of an ATPL (A), how often are you required to have a medical examination? a\) **The 12 month period reduces to 6 months** b\) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months c\) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months d\) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months License that allows for single pilot PIC for aerial and pax transport, co pilot for dual pilot aerial and pax transport: A. MPL B. ATPL C. **CPL** D. PPL What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence? **a) 18** b\) 21 c\) 16 d\) 23 Which of the following is the privilege of the holder of a CPL(A)? a. **To act as PIC of any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation** a. To act as PIC of any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation c. To act as PIC of any aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation other than commercial air transportation a. To act as co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations ***[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 83]*** *4.19 Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) - CPL(A)* *Privileges and conditions* *Minimum age: 18 years.* *Privileged to:* a. *exercise all the privileges of an CPL(A) and a PPL(A) licence holder.* b. ***[act as PIC or co-pilot of any aeroplane engaged in operations other than Commercial Air Transport (CAT).]*** c. *act as PIC in CAT of any single-pilot aeroplane.* d. *act as a co-pilot in CAT.* CPL is valid for what age range? **a) 18-65 years old** b\) 18-60 years old c\) 21-65 years old d\) 18-55 years old **[Grant and renewal of licences to members of flight crew (ANO PDF pg. 72)]** (1A) A licence of the class referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(a) and (e) to (k) **[shall not be granted or renewed]** to any person who has **[attained the age of 65 years.]** ATPL requirement: A. **21 Year Old, Class A medical** B. 18 Year Old, Class B medical Requirements of ATPL: A. PPL B. CPL 20 yo C. **CPL 21 y.o with 1500hrs** Instrument rating: a. class 1 with 6 mths recency b. class 2 with 6 mths recency c. no medical d. **class 1 with 1 year recency** For renewal of ***[Class Rating]***, what is the needed experience? a. **5hrs within 12 Months** a. 10hrs within 90 days b. 10hrs within 180 days c. 10hrs within 12 months **[SINGAPORE PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANES) GROUPS A, B AND C (SASP1 PDF pg. 13)]** 7 VALIDITY OF AIRCRAFT RATING 7.2 The minimum flying experience required to maintain **[an Aircraft Rating is 5 hours as pilot of aeroplanes within the 12 months]** preceding the date of issue of a C of E or C of T. All flying must be completed within the validity period of an existing C of E or C of T. 7.3 **[Of the 5 hours]** minimum experience required, a **[minimum of 2 hours must be of dual flying instruction]** under a flying instructor. Upon completion of the dual flight(s), the instructor must certify that the pilot is fit to fly as PIC and so certifies in his logbook. Minimum hours to maintain the license (aircraft/***[type rating]***)? a. **10hrs within 12 months** b. 10hrs within 180 days c. 10hrs within 90 days d. 10hrs within 12 weeks Class rating -- 5hrs in 12months, Type rating -- 10hrs in 12months Aircraft rating. What does a candidate need to perform during a aircraft rating check:\[239 6 Oct 2020\]\ A. **Normal and emergency maneuvers and drills for particular aircraft type. Up to PIC standards (No KDR)**\ B. Normal and emergency maneuvers and drills for particular aircraft type. Up to PIC standards for single pilot operation\ C. Normal maneuver and drills for particular aircraft type. Up to PIC or SIC standards depending on experience level\ D. Normal maneuver and drills for generic aircraft type. Up to PIC or SIC standards depending on crew requirements How many type ratings can a flight crew have? a\) 4 b\) 3 **c) As many as the operator decides** d\) 2 What must your fight crew license to be validated? (255/256) A\) Medical certificate endorsed with Annual flight test **B) Medical Certificate endorsed with flight crew license (NO KDR)** C\) Medical Certificate endorsed with DIGHT crew license and pass Air Law examination every 5 years D\) Nonsense\* When & whom should you inform if you have had medical treatment requiring hospitalization? a\) Your medical examiner as soon as possible b\) Your medical examiner after 20 days **c) The chief executive as soon as possible** d\) The chief executive after 20 days **[Grant and renewal of licences to members of flight crew (ANO PDF pg. 75)]** \(e) has received **[medical treatment requiring hospitalisation]**, shall --- \(i) **[inform the Chief Executive]** in writing of such injury, illness, pregnancy or treatment --- \(A) **[as soon as possible]** in the case of any such injury, pregnancy or treatment; or \(B) **[as soon as possible]** after a period of 20 days has elapsed in the case of any such illness; and Psychoactive substance are not allowed for aircrew as it might
 A\) reduce level of susceptibility to fatigue
 B\) increase cognitive awareness
 **C) undesirable behavioural change\ **D) artificially enhanced motor skills Which licenses require class 1 medical *(237 8-9 July 2020)*\ **A. ATPL (Aeroplanes), ATPL (Helicopters & Gyroplanes), CPL (Aeroplanes), PPL IR (Confirm answer)**\ B. ATPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Helicopters & Gyroplanes), CPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Gliders)\ C. ATPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Helicopters & Gyroplanes), CPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Balloon)\ D. ATPL (Aeroplanes), ATPL (Helicopters & Gyroplanes), CPL (Aeroplanes), CPL (Balloon)\ ANO Fourteenth Schedule Paragraph 7: \(a) Class 1 Medical Requirements (as specified in the Singapore Air Safety Publication (SASP)) --- **[(i) Commercial pilot's licence (aeroplanes);]** \(ii) Commercial pilot's licence (helicopters and gyroplanes); **[(iii) Airline transport pilot's licence (aeroplanes);]** **[(iv) Airline transport pilot's licence (helicopters and gyroplanes);]** \(v) Commercial pilot's licence (airships); \(vi) Multi-crew Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes); ANO Fourteenth Schedule Paragraph 8: Notwithstanding paragraph 7, an **[applicant for or a holder of a Private pilot's licence (aeroplanes) or a Private pilot's license (helicopters)]** who also **[applies for or has been granted an Instrument Rating (Aeroplanes) or Instrument Rating (Helicopters]**), as the case may be, **[shall also satisfy Class 1 Medical Requirements]** (as specified in the Singapore Air Safety Publication (SASP)) Rules of the Air ================ Rules of the State should be complied by a\) Departing aircraft b\) Arriving aircraft c\) Only aircraft belongs to that state **d) All contracting state aircraft departing, arriving and overflying the state** VFR Flight Plan: a. Class Airspace B, C, D and E, F and G, below FL100, visibility = 5km, above FL100, visibility = 8km, clouds vertical 1000ft (300m), Horizontal 1500m. b. Class F and G (At and below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher), visibility = 5km and clear of clouds and in sight of the surface Who has the primary authority in terms of Rules of the Air? **a) Captain/PIC** b\) CIC c\) Operator d\) Co-pilot Who has the authority to disposition the aircraft? **a) Captain** When can a pilot deviate from the rules of the air? a. **When it is absolutely necessary in the interest of safety of the aircraft** a. Never b. In times of war c. When it is safe to do so PIC's pre-flight duties include: A. consideration of weather forecast at destination aerodrome and departure, for the endurance time remaining (KDR) B. careful study of the current weather to ensure high likelihood of flight as planned C. careful study of current and forecast at destination aerodrome, taking into account of fuel D. **Careful study of all available weather reports and forecasts, considering fuel requirements and alternative actions if flight cannot be completed as planned** Aircraft with right of way must maintain: a. Height and speed b. **Heading and speed** c. Heading d. Speed, heading & height Two aircraft are approaching ahead on. What should they do? **a) Alter course to the right** Which aircraft has the right of way for landing? a. **Lowest aircraft** a. Fastest aircraft b. Slowest aircraft c. Heaviest aircraft When on the ground, who has the right of way? **a) Aircraft taking off and landing** An aeroplane is converging from the left, which light do you see first? a\) Steady red **b) Steady green** c)Flashing green d\) White Regarding aircraft lights in flight, what must be switched on? a\) Navigation lights, may be switched off b\) Navigation and anti-collision lights, navigation lights may be switched off **c) Navigation and anti-collision lights, anti-collision lights may be switched off** d\) Anti-collision lights, may be switched off Simulated instrument flying is allowed if: **A. Safety pilot is at control seat** B. Full instrument flying is conducted C. Flying instructor is at control seat⁠⁠ **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 117]** An aircraft shall not be flown under simulated IMC unless: - Fully functioning dual controls are fitted, and - A **[qualified pilot]** (need not be type rated) **[occupies a control seat to act as safety pilot (PNF).]** Flight Plans must be filed for: A. Only commercial flights B. Only general aviation flights C. Only medical evacuation flights D. **All flights except those approved by ATC** ANO: 3.3.1.3 (Flight Plans; Submission of a flight plan) A flight plan shall be submitted, before departure, to an air traffic services reporting office or, during flight, transmitted to the appropriate air traffic services unit or air-ground control radio station, unless arrangements have been made for submission of repetitive flight plans. Note: Possible that option is implies approved as per "repetitive flight plans" Flight plans must be filed for: A. Any IFR flights in any airspace B. **All IFR flights in advisory airspace (no KDR)** C. All IFR and VFR flights in advisory airspace D. Flights across international boundaries only *Oxford Pg 104: "**Flight Plans**. A flight plan is to be submitted prior to operating:* - *Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic service (a controlled flight - see definition) OR* - ***[Any IFR flight within advisory airspace]"*** \[Above is consistent with ANO: 3.3.1.2 (Flight plans; Submission of a flight plan)\] Flight plan requires:\[239 6 Oct 2020\] i. In controlled airspace ii. Where air traffic services provided iii. Across international borders A. ii, iii B. **i, ii, iii (no KDR)** C. i, ii D. i, iii When landing at an aerodrome without ATC, when must you close/end your flight plan? a. **ASAP, by quickest means** a. ASAP, by telephone b. In 10 mins after landing by datalink c. In 30 mins after landing ANO: 3.3.5.3 (Closing a flight plan) When no air traffic services unit exists at the arrival aerodrome, the arrival report, when required, shall be made as soon as practicable after landing and by the quickest means available to the nearest air traffic services unit If there is a delay in the departure time, a. **Amend/Cancel flight plan, Submit new flight plan if delay \>30min Estimated Off-Block Time (EOBT)** b. Cancel flight plan, Submit new flight plan if delay \>45min EOBT c. Cancel flight plan, Submit new flight plan if delay \>60min Est. EOBT **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 120]** **Delays of Flight Plans.** In the event of a **[delay of 30 minutes]** in excess of **[estimated off-block time (EOBT)]** for [a controlled flight] or a delay of **[1 hour for an uncontrolled flight]** for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be : 1. **Amended [OR]** 2. **cancelled and a new flight plan submitted** › Time check required: a\) all flights **b) controlled flights only** c\) only when the accuracy of clock is in doubt d\) only for IFR flights ATC clearance includes A/C identification, \_\_\_\_\_, route, flight level, any other information. **a) Clearance limitation** b\) Taxi information c\) QNH d\) Rubbish An ATC clearance comprises of C/S, Clearance Limit, Route, Flight Level & \_\_\_\_\_. a\) Relevant NOTAMs b\) Aerodrome weather that could affect the departure **c) Other instructions** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 120]** **Clearances.** In general clearances consist of 5 parts: - Aircraft identification - Clearance limit - Route - Levels - **Other instructions (time or expiry, departure manoeuvres, communications etc)** Steps to be taken if ATC clearance is not satisfactory to PIC: a. Request for new clearance a. **May request for amended clearance and proceed** Mandatory readback: 1\. ATC route clearance 2\. Conflicting traffic info 3\. Instruction to takeoff and landing 4\. Level, heading, or speed **ANS is: 1,3,4** In adherence to the flight plan, when should ATC unit be informed about TAS changes? A. When TAS changes by 10%, pilot must change his speed...... B. **When TAS changes by 5%, inform ATSU** C. When TAS changes by 20kts Comms failure in VMC: A. **continue in VMC, land at nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATSU** B. continue with flight, wait for 7 minutes then squawk 7600 When experiencing loss of communications , the PIC should *(237 8-9 July 2020)*\ A. During IFR flight, maintain last assigned heading and level, Squawk 7600\ **B. During VFR flight, continue in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Notify the appropriate ATC when reached (No Kdr)** *\*\*\*rehash of question above with reworded and longer options\*\*\** Controlled VFR in VMC not practicable: a. **Request for amended clearance to continue in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome** b. Request for amended clearance to leave the controlled airspace c. Immediately leave controlled airspace d. Immediately land at the nearest suitable aerodrome › What must be included in the position report? **a) Aircraft identification (call sign), position, time, altitude, next position and time over, [ensuing] significant point (APTFNE)** **IMPORTANT: The sequencing is important and have to be said in this way. POSITION comes first then TIME.** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 122]** **Position Reports.** Unless advised to cease position reporting (this usually happens when under radar control), a controlled flight is to make reports at specified positions as soon as possible after reaching the position. The report is to contain: - The aircraft RTF **[identification call sign]** - The **[position]** for the report - The **[time]** the aircraft was over the position (usually the minutes will suffice unless there is a possibility of confusion) - The **[level]** of the aircraft when passing the point - The **[next en route reporting position]** - ETA for the **[next specified point]** - (According to ICAO) the name of the **[next ensuing point.]** If on a route with designated significant points, a position report: a\) Must be made when ATC requests **b) Must be made overhead or as soon as possible after passing** c\) Must be made within 10 mins of being overhead d\) Are not required as significant points When you pass over a mandatory fix: a. **You must report your position as soon as possible** a. There is no need to report position b. Report your position within 10mins When your aircraft has been subjected to unlawful interference, what should the PIC do when communicating with the ATS? a\) Repeat the word 'hijack' twice and not respond to any further calls b\) Tune radio to 7500 and make contact **c)** **Inform ATS of the circumstances so that any conflict with other aircraft can be avoided** d\) Request descent to 7500' \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 124]** Unlawful Interference. Where an aircraft is the subject of unlawful interference (hijacking etc.), **[communication with the appropriate ATC authority]** is to be attempted to notify the authority of this fact together with any significant circumstances and of any intended deviation from the current flight plan, to enable the ATSU to **[give priority to the aircraft and to minimize conflict with other aircraft.]** In the case of unlawful interference: **a) The pilot should climb/descend to a FL not normally flown. E.g. where separation is based on 1000\', go to 500\'** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 124]** If no regional procedures have been established, proceed at a level different from IFR levels **[by 1000 ft above FL290, or 500 ft below FL290.]** If an aircraft is subject to unlawful interference, **a) The pilot-in-command shall attempt to land as soon as practicable at the nearest suitable aerodrome or at a dedicated aerodrome assigned by the appropriate authority, unless considerations aboard the aircraft dictate otherwise** When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the flight crew should: a. **Inform ATSU of the circumstances as soon as practicable, as well as inform ATSU of any intended deviations to the flight plan** b. Inform on 121.5... c. Withhold transmitting information to ATSU d. Inform ATSU of the circumstances as soon as practicable, and withhold from transmitting all information to ATSU in view of security In a case on unlawful interference, a. **Land at the nearest aerodrome asap with security services** a. Continue flight 500ft below the separation level b. Continue flight as per existing FL, broadcast warnings ***[Unlawful interference (ANO PDF pg. 297)]*** 3.7.2 If an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the **[pilot-in-command shall attempt to land as soon as practicable at the nearest suitable aerodrome]** or at a dedicated aerodrome assigned by the appropriate authority unless considerations aboard the aircraft dictate otherwise. An aircraft should: 1. attempt to land asap at a suitable aerodrome, and at the same time informing ATC to prioritise them and to avoid conflict with other aircrafts 2. If the PIC cannot proceed to an aerodrome, he/she should attempt to continue flying on the assigned track and at the assigned cruising level until able to notify an ATS unit (Ops procedures 13.4.4) 3. If it must depart from its assigned track or cruising level, it can attempt to broadcast warnings, fly at half separation etc When an aircraft has passed your ATS region and is intercepted by an aircraft in another ATS region, what should be the follow up action? A. Try to establish 2 way comms with the intercepted aircraft B. Try to establish 2-way comms with both aircraft C. Do not do anything as it is not under your ATS region D. **Contact the other ATS region and pass them all the information you have, and then let that ATS unit establish contact with the intercepted aircraft (no KDR)** Intercepted a/c outside ATS boundary, what steps to take by ATS unit?\[237 9 Jul 2020\] A. no steps required **B. inform ATS airspace where interception occurred and provide info of a/c and take required action** C. try to establish 2-way comms D. inform intercepted a/c of the interception and maintain 2-way comms for both aircraft When is intercepting of aircraft not allowed? a. When aircraft deviates from airways and does not reply to communications a. When aircraft enters airspace without permission b. **To escort aircraft with secretary of state** c. When there is aircraft is involved in illegal activity ICAO Annex 2: 3.8 (Interception) "The word 'interception' in this context does not include intercept and escort service provided" Which of the following are NOT valid reasons for aircraft interception:
 **A) escort due to VIPs on board\ **B) aircraft entering restricted airspace
 C\) aircraft deviating from flight plan When you are ***[first]*** intercepted, what do you do? **a) Attempt visual response between you and interceptor** b\) Tune in to 121.5MHz c\) Tune in to 243MHZ d\) Contact ATC immediately When being intercepted, your first action is to: A\) establish radio communications with the intercepting aircraft and tune to 121.5Mhz **B) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and attempt to establish visual signals** ICAO Annex 2: 3.8 (Interception) 3.8.2 The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft, when intercepted, shall comply with the Standards in Appendix 2, Section 2 and 3, intercepting and responding to visual signals as specified in Appendix 1, Section 2 When first intercepted by a military aircraft, what will the [initial response] be? a. **Set frequency 121.5MHZ** a. Set frequency 243.0MHZ b. Contact ATC on last used frequency *\*If no option that says establish visual signals, then choose (a)* **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 125]** 6.53 Procedure. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately: - Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, **[interpreting and responding to visual signals]** in accordance with the tables 6.57 and 6.58. - **Notify, if possible, the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit.** - Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by **[making a general call on the emergency frequency 121.500 MHz]**, giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft and the nature of the flight; and if no contact has been established and if practicable, repeating this call on the emergency frequency 243.000 MHz. - If equipped with an SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7700 and Mode C, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit. What frequencies should you use to first establish contact with the aircraft that intercepted you? a. The ATC frequency in use a. **121.50 MHz** b. 123.45 MHZ c. ATIS frequency What's the emergency frequency used to contact ATC when intercepted by another aircraft? A. **121.50MHz** B. 127.50MHz C. 123.45MHz D. current frequency in use What should the response be when you are intercepted by another aircraft? A. Rocking of wings and flashing landing lights irregularly B. Rocking of wings and raise the landing gear C. Rocking of wings and fly towards the intercepting aircraft D. **Rocking of wings and flashing navigation lights irregularly** Note navigation lights, not landing lights. Intercepted by aircraft, an abrupt break away by the intercepting aircraft means? **a) You may proceed** Abrupt breakaway without crossing the flight path. When being intercepted and the intercepting aircraft directs you to land at an airfield, what should you do you indicate that the airfield is unsuitable for your aircraft to land? a. **Raise landing gear and flash landing lights while passing over runway at a height no less than 1000ft and no higher than 2000ft and continue to circle the airfield. (confirm no KDR)** b. Raise landing gear and flash landing lights while passing over runway at a height no less than 1000ft and no higher than 2000ft and proceed to the alternate airfield. c. Raise landing gear and flash landing lights while passing over runway at a height no less than 1000ft and no lower than 3000ft. d. Flash landing lights at a height no lower than 1000ft and no higher than 3000ft ANO: Eleventh Schedule, Appendix 1, 2.2 - Series 4 (Signals initiated by intercepted aircraft and responses by intercepting aircraft) ATC clearance **[not suitable]**, what do you reply? A. UNABLE, explain why you can't B. NEGATIVE, explain why you cant C. **UNABLE, request another clearance** D. NEGATIVE, request another clearance VFR shall not be operated: **a) Above FL200 in uncontrolled airspace, FL150 in controlled airspace** **[CAE Oxford Textbook PDF pg. 130]** VFR flights **[require an ATC clearance]** to operate: - **[Above FL200.]** - At transonic or supersonic speeds. \[Above is consistent with ANO: Eleventh Schedule, Chapter 4, sub-clause 4\] Flying in VFR over built up and congested areas: A. 500ft OCA/H within 5NM B. 1000ft OCA/H within 10NM C. **Height permitted that the aircraft can land safely in an event of emergency. (241 cfm no KDR)** *\*Note: in the ANO and Oxford textbook, the height clearance over congested area is 1000ft but 600m radius of the a/c* *Oxford Pg 97/ANO 3.1.2: Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, aircraft shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons, **[unless at such a height as will permit, in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface]**.* *Oxford Pg 115/ANO 4.6: Except when necessary for take-off or landing (or when specially approved by the authority e.g. air displays etc...), VFR flight is not allowed:* - *Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons, at a height less than 300 m **[(1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m]** from the aircraft.* - *At a height not less than 150 m (500 ft) above the surface (ground or water).* Unless clearance has been given, an IFR flight in mountainous terrain shall maintain 2000' clearance above all terrain: a\) Within 5km of the actual position b\) Within 5km of the estimated position c\) Within 8km of the actual position **d) Within 8km of the estimate position** Which letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR? a. Z b. **Y** c. I d. V How can an aircraft operating in IFR, change to VFR? **a) With ATC permission** b\) Change the flight plan c\) Inform the co-pilot d\) With operator permission When changing from IFR to VFR, ATC says: A. **IFR cancelled at (time)** B. VFR commenced at (time)Í C. Switch to VFR at PIC's discretion D. VFR at (time) *IFR in controlled airspace -- Semi-circular rule* *IFR in uncontrolled airspace -- Quadrantal rule from 3,000ft up to FL250, then semi-circular rule* *VFR in controllled airspace -- Semi-circular rule from 1,500ft up to FL150* *VFR in uncontrolled airspace -- Quadrantal rule from 3,000ft up to FL200* image32.png If you are heading 160°M in VFR what is the altitude? **Odd + 500** Lowest uncontrolled VFR above 3000\', Singapore FIR, track 120°M: a\) 30 b\) **35** c\) 40 d\) 45 AIP: ENR 1.7 Altimeter Setting Procedures; 4.4.1 000M-089M: FL30, FL50 \... 090M-179M: FL35, FL55 \... 180M-269M: FL40, FL60 \... 270M-359M: FL45, FL65 \... *252: Note that although quadrantal rule is widely defunct, Singapore FIR, uncontrolled Cruising levels still follow Quadrantal Rule (VFR and IFR). Refer to CAAS, AIP ENR1.7-2.* A VFR flight with a heading of 120°M in Singapore's uncontrolled airspace will have a flight level: of? a\) 40 b\) 45 c\) 50 **d) 55** A controlled VFR flight with a heading of 089°M in RVSM airspace will occupy levels: a\) 3,000', 5,000', 7,000' and so on until 29,000' **b) 3,500', 5,500', 7,500', and so on until 27,500'** c\) 4,000', 6,000', 8,000', and so on until 28,000' d\) 4,500', 6,500', 8,500', and so on until 28,500' Not 29,000ft because VFR need to add 500ft, not 28,000ft or 28,500ft becaue in the odd semicircle. Singapore FIR, cruising level: a. **Quadrantal and Semi-circular rules apply (Confirm no KDR)** a. Cruising only in Quadrantal, rules apply b. Cruising only in Semi-circular, rules apply c. Singapore has a special rule which is unique What is the definition of distress? a. **An emergency condition where an aircraft is in grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance** b. Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued c. The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome d. The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or within sight Aerodrome light gun signal red flashes mean? **A) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land** B\) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the ATC tower. What does this mean? a\) Cleared to land **b) Return for landing and await clearance to land** c\) Give way to other landing aircraft d\) Land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance What is the meaning of this symbol? A. **Take off and landings are to be done on runways only.** B. Take off and landings can be done on grass C. Take off, landings are to be done on runways only, taxying to be done on taxiways only D. Take off, landings, taxying can be done on grass or any surface of the aerodrome. What does this picture mean? A. Normal Stop B. **Emergency Stop (240 Confirm No KDR)** C. Taxi ahead here D. Slow Down The diagram/picture will have an annotation stating that the marshall moves his hands above his head to form a cross in an abrupt manner. If it was a normal stop, the movement would be slow and smooth instead. IFR loss of comms when approaching Singapore? *(new qn obs. June 2020)* A. Descend to 10000 feet immediately then contact approach B. **Descend at scheduled time as close to EAT (confirmed, No KDR)** C. Descend to 10000 feet immediately then.... D. Maintain until 35nm from Singapore then descend *Oxford Pg 109: In IMC. If a failure occurs in IMC:* * When being radar vectored proceed in the most direct manner to rejoin the current flight plan route and no later than the next significant point squawking A7600 and taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude.* * If the aircraft is en route and in an area where radar control is provided, the pilot is to squawk A7600 and maintain the current flight plan for a period of 7 minutes and thereafter adjust speed and level in accordance with the filed flight plan.* *Approach to SG will likely be either one of the above 2 scenarios.* *Qn also comes out in IFR comms with answer being similar to B.* *Query: Could it be an SG specific procedure?* *Ans: Couldn't find the "maintain until 35nm" anywhere in the AIP; which says to proceed to SAMKO and Hold, but SAMKO is closer to aerodrome than 35nm.* *AIP reproduced below. Jeppesen STAR charts also specify to proceed to SAMKO.* *\*\*updates 238: Confirm with no KDR for B*  Two way communication failure, how does ATS unit check if aircraft receive transmission? *(new qn obs. Jun 2020)* A. Request to squawk IDENT B. No way of finding out C. **Request to do a manoeuvre to see if acknowledge (should be this)** D. Squawk 7700 *Confirmation of Communication Failure: ATC will confirm that an aircraft is subject to a communications failure **[by requesting it to execute a specific manoeuvre which can be observed by radar or transmit a signal to indicate acknowledgement]**. In any case ATC will transmit blind instructions to the aircraft on frequencies on which the aircraft is believed to be listening. Oxford page 108.* Vertical separation how? *(new qn. obs. Jun 2020)* A. **Same altitude settings in FL or altitudes based on A/C magnetic track (Confirm, no KDR)** B. Same altitude settings in FL or altitudes based on A/C true track *Oxford Pg 118: "From the tables, the semi-circular rules can be derived, which permit the selection of FLs in accordance with aircraft **[magnetic track]**."* When on taxiway who has right of way? *[(new qn. obs. Jun 2020)]* A. Slowest aircraft B. Aircraft on left C. **Aircraft on right (no KDR)** **[Oxford pg 102 (pdf pg 108)]** **6.21 Surface Movement of Aircraft.** In the case of danger of collision between two aircraft taxiing on the movement area (see definition) of an aerodrome, the following shall apply: **Approaching head on.** Both stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear. **Converging.** [The one that **has the other on its right shall give way**]. (Stop or turn to pass behind). **Overtaking.** The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. The overtaking aircraft is to keep well clear of the other aircraft. Two aircraft converging on runway while taxing, **Ans: The aircraft on your left should give way** FIR Flight Plan departing Singapore Changi must be filed \_\_\_ minutes prior to departure *(237 8-9 July 2020)*\ **A. 60 (No KDR)**\ B. 30\ C. 120\ D. 90 AIP: ENR 1.10 (Flight Planning) 1.3.1 Flight plan shall be filled 120 hours, or five days, at the earliest but **[no later than 60 minutes prior to departure]** (estimated off-block time)