Airfield Management Apprentice Past Paper PDF

27131 General Subjects Related to Airfield Management Apprentice – 6 Items 1. What type of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “arms over the head in vertical position with palms facing inward?” a. This bay b. Move ahead c. Proceed to next signalman d. Tur...

27131 General Subjects Related to Airfield Management Apprentice – 6 Items 1. What type of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “arms over the head in vertical position with palms facing inward?” a. This bay b. Move ahead c. Proceed to next signalman d. Turn 2. What kind of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “right or left arm down, other arm moved across the body and extended to indicate direction of next signalman?” a. This bay b. Move ahead c. Proceed to next signalman d. Turn 3. What type of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “arms down with palms toward ground, then moved up and down several times?” a. This bay b. Slow down c. Proceed to next signalman d. Turn 4. What kind of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “ right arm raised at elbow with thumb erect?” a. This bay b. Slow down c. Proceed to next signalman d. All clear 5. What type of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body?” a. Land b. Slow down c. Proceed to next signalman d. All clear 6. What kind of aircraft marshalling signal signifies “arms extended horizontally sideways?” a. Land b. Slow down c. Hover d. All clear  Mission, Function and Organization Related to Airfield Management Apprentice – 9 Items 7. The primary staff whose function is to assist and advice the commander in the formulation of policies and management or communication, electronics and information system. a. Communication Squadron b. COMMEL c. CEIS d. ODACE 8. A functional command and wing level of organization being the CEIS staff office belong to _____ staff. a. Personal Staff b. Coordinating Staff c. Special Staff d. Other Staff 9. Which of the following is not a line staff of the PAF organization? a. Command Staff b. Coordinating Staff c. Personnel Staff d. Special Staff 10. Which is a part of the office of the PAF Sgt Major? a. Command Staff b. Coordinating Staff c. Personnel Staff d. Special Staff 11. Who is the Commander in Chief of the Armed Forces of the Philippines? a. Chief of Staff b. The President of the Philippines c. Commanding Officers d. SND 12. What branch of service of the AFP provides air support in accomplishment of its mission? a. Philippine Navy b. Philippine Air Force c. Philippine Army d. Philippine Marines 13. Who serves as the civilian adviser of the President on matters concerning defense a. Secretary of National Defense b. Chief of Staff c. Commander-In-Chief d. Area Commanders 14. ____________ is the obligation of the individual to make good for lost, damage, or destruction of government property caused by mal administration or negligence. a. Custodial Responsibility b. Peculiarly Responsibility c. Supervisor Responsibility d. Command Responsibility 15. ____________ is the responsibility invested to all Commanders at all levels of echelon. a. Custodial Responsibility b. Peculiarly Responsibility c. Supervisor Responsibility d. Command Responsibility Security and Safety Related to Airfield Management Apprentice – 9 Items 16. Transmission and custody of secret documents will always be covered by: a. Ordinary Mail b. Receipt System c. Airman Courier Service d. Authorized Civilian Courier 17. Who classified the documents with Confidential and restricted matters? a. Airman Administrative Supervisor b. Intelligence Enlisted Personnel c. Airman Intelligence Operatives d. Any Commissioned Officer 18. Who is responsible in giving the appropriate Security Classification in sending a Radio Message? a. Originator/ Sender b. Drafter c. Receiver d. Reader 19. Authorized personnel handling the classified matters are those who have been? a. Cleared to handle and access classified matters b. Any military personnel c. Unit Commanders only d. None of the above 20. What is the highest classified information? a. Secret b. Top secret c. Restricted d. Confidential 21. In what way to destroy classified matters? a. By burning b. By placing in a storage container c. By placing an ordinary waste basket d. None of the above 22. What is the proper way of answering incoming telephone call? a. Identify yourself, name of your unit then answer the call b. Identify yourself and greet the calling party c. Identify the name of your unit, yourself, greet the calling party then answer the call d. All of the above 23. What type of message does not contain vital information even if intercepted will not in any way affect the interest and security of the nation? a. UN CLASSIFIED MESSAGE b. CLASSIFIED MESSAGE c. PAF MESSAGE d. RADIO MESSAGE 24. What are the types of classified information? a. Confidential b. Secret and top secret c. Restricted and secret only d. Restricted, confidential, secret, top secret Supply and Publications Related to Airfield Management Apprentice - 30 Items 25. All items necessary for equipment, maintenance and operations of military command. This includes everything except real estate. a. Supply management b. Supply c. Property d. Document 26. It is honest and efficient procurement, use accounting and disposition of government supplies, materials and equipment. a. Supply management b. Property c. Property responsibility d. Supply 27. What is the publication that set the instruction and giving the procedures to be followed by the unit for performance of those featured in the operation? a. Standing Operating Procedures b. Directive c. Bulletin d. Policy 28. What type of correspondence used within the offices of the Headquarters of the unit? a. Disposition Form b. Routing Slip c. Endorsement d. Subject to Letter 29. What form of communication written in its briefest and concise manner? a. Message b. Radio Message c. Position Paper d. Disposition Form 30. This refers to clothing, tools, utensils vehicles weapons and other similar. a. Fund b. Property including non-personal c. Logistics d. Equipment 31. What manual outlined the functions and duties of the classification board? a. PAFM IJ-1 b. PAFM IJ-2 c. PAFM IJ-3 d. PAFM IJ-4 32. It is the obligation of an individual for the property care, custody and safekeeping of government property entrusted to his possession or under his supervision. a. Government Property b. Supply Management c. Property Responsibility d. Supply Discipline 33. It is a written printed material for reference or evidence. a. Fund b. Official Receipt c. Document d. Requisition 34. The method use to account for equipment is to conduct ______. a. Inventories b. Investigation c. Report survey d. Supply survey 35. What is the highest precedence of the message? It should be sent within 10 minutes. a. Flash (“Z”) b. Operational Immediate/ Immediate (“O”) c. Priority (“P”) d. Routine (“R”) 36. It pertains to supplies including non-personal services, written order, or contract through bidding or negotiation. a. Procurement b. Requisition c. Logistics d. None of the above 37. What orders can be published in reenlistment, cash ration,leave and furloughs? a. Special Orders b. Letter Orders c. Personnel Orders d. General Orders 38. This is a personal obligation and responsibility for the proper care, economical use, security and proper disposition of supply and equipment. a. Supply management b. Supply discipline c. Property responsibility d. Command responsibility 39. What order is published in the assumption of command? a. Special Order b. Letter Order c. General Order d. Personnel Order 40. What kind of report contains the daily history of the unit or in the Hqs and it is permanent statistical and historical records, it’s eventually custody rest with the adjutant General? a. Historical report b. Reading report c. Morning Report d. OJT/ OJR report 41. It is supplies or materials that loss its identity upon utilization. a. Semi-expendable items b. Discarded items c. Expendable items d. Damaged Items 42. It is supplies or materials that take a certain period of time to loss its identity. a. Semi-expendable items b. Discarded items c. Expendable items d. Damaged Items 43. What form is used in transmitting papers from office within a headquarters or from branch to branch within an office? a. Disposition Form b. Routing Slip c. Endorsement d. Subject to Letter 44. It is supplies purchase from appropriate or reimbursable funds of the AFP. a. Non-Republic items b. Republic items c. Expendable items d. Semi-expendable items 45. This is a requisitioning expendable supplies. a. MR (Memorandum receipt) b. RIS (Request and issue slip) c. IR (Invoice receipt) d. PTIS (Property Turn-In Slip) 46. What publication that set a principle, guide or decision within the bounds of which a mission is performed? It can be defined as a considered decision made by Commander for the purpose of setting up a guide to future action. a. Standard Operating Procedures b. Directive c. Bulletin d. Policy 47. It is supplies acquired by means other than purchases from appropriated or reimbursable funds of the AFP. a. Non-Republic items b. Republic items c. Expendable items d. Semi-expendable items 48. What is the status of an individual when performing duty for another unit and reporting daily to the unit to which assigned, attached and assigned or attached from another organization? a. Special Duty b. Temporary Duty c. Detached Service d. none of the above 49. What administrative order is used to publish the job status and ratings of individuals? a. Letter Order(LO) b. Special Orders (SO) c. Reserve Orders(RO) d. Personnel Order (PO) 50. What type of leave can avail of married female military personnel on account of pregnancy? a. paternity leave b. informal leave c. maternity leave d. sick leave 51. What written directives or instruments of authority issued by a commander to direct actions or announce decisions? a. Administrative Orders b. Letter Orders c. Administrative Instructions d. Circulars 52. What unit in the PAF is responsible for all supplies intended for the PAF? a. Air Inspector General b. Air Base Wing c. 580th ACW d. 420th SW 53. What circular governs in the Enlisted Personnel Evaluation Mark? a. Circular Nr 13 GHQ, AFP dtd 15 Jul 91 b. Circular Nr 16 GHQ, AFP dtd 13 Sep 93 c. Circular Nr 02 GHQ, AFP dtd 02 Jan 08 d. None of the above 54. A work of equipment consisting of cleaning, lubricating, replenishment of parts, lubricant, cooling agent to ensure its proper operation. a. Servicing b. Repair c. Maintenance d. Testing  Training Related to Airfield Management Apprentice - 60 Items 55. What primary agency concerns in rendering flight assistance service to pilots of aircraft: a. Rescue Coordinating Center b. Bureau of Air Transportation c. Manila Tower d. Philippine Air Force 56. Which departure flight plan points the first intended landing? a. SVFR b. IFR c. VFR d. Local Clearance 57. What is the control coordinating point and all activities on Air Terminal called? a. Air Freight Section b. Passenger Control Section c. Flight Service d. Traffic Control Section 58. Whose responsibility at an Air Terminal positions loading steps in place at the craft passenger doors? a. Ramp Services b. Passenger Control Section c. Fleet Service d. Traffic Control Section 59. Identifying passengers eligible for military air travel is the responsibility and being done by which section of an air terminal? a. MACO b. Air Freight c. Passenger processing d. PAX svcs 60. In checking the manifest, the dispatcher must be ascertain his duty by: a. Applying good relation b. Assist the loadmaster c. Inspecting the cargoes d. Checking names against the manifest 61. It is the part of the flight plan by which an aircraft may land when it is inadvisable to land to the point of its first intended landing: a. Destination b. Alternate c. Primary Aerodrome d. Secondary Aerodrome 62. What does X-1 mission symbol represent? a. Air Evacuation b. Test & or development equipment c. Engine Test Flight d. All of the above 63. What section is responsible of the movement of the inbound and outbound passenger: a. Space Control b. Revenue Traffic c. Fleet Svc d. Passenger Svc 64. What section in the terminal handles VIP personnel? a. Protocol b. Air Traffic c. Air Traffic d. All of the above 65. When the VIP aircraft departs, a VIP notification message should be prepared and dispatched to the enroute section in how many minutes: a. 60 minutes b. b. 15 minutes c. c. 45 minutes d. d. 30 minutes 66. Check off time is the time when the aircraft: a. Leaves the ground for airlift b. Was dispatched when the passengers and cargoes are inside the aircraft. c. Touch the ground after flight d. None of the above. 67. Positioning of the loading step in place of the aircraft passenger doors is the responsibility of which of the following Units of the terminal? a. Passenger positioning b. Baggage Handling c. Ramp Services d. Fleet Services 68. When an aircraft begins to taxi 25 minutes after its scheduled time of departure the flight is considered to be: a. On Time b. Delayed c. Date d. Held up 69. When you are operating a vehicle on the flight line at night time and receives a flashing white signal you are to: a. Proceed slowly b. Clear the active run way immediately c. Stop vehicle immediately d. Return to your starting point 70. When you are operating a vehicle on the flight line at night time and receives a flashing signal you are to: a. Stop the vehicle immediately b. Proceed slowly but watch for lights c. Clear the active run way d. Return to your stating point 71. It is an integrated continuous plan of activities designed to satisfy the requirements of units to prevent aircraft accidents: a. Safety b. Accident prevention Center c. Hazard prevention d. all of the above 72. Do not park or drive closer than 25 feet on front of any aircraft when: a. Engine area in operated b. Engine are not operated c. on or about to operated d. A & B are correct 73. Equipment will not be towed within how many feet from the wing tips? a. 10 feet b. b. 5 feet c. c. 15 feet d. d. 20 feet 74. Alerting service within the flight information region shall be primarily provided by: a. Flight Information Center b. Aerodrome Traffic c. Ground Control d. Rescue Coordinating Center 75. All Traffic on the maneuvering area of on aerodrome and all aircraf flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome is called: a. Traffic b. Control Traffic c. Air Traffic d. Aerodrome Traffic 76. The visibility at an extending upwards from the surface of the earth is a: a. Flight visibility b. Ground Visibility c. Control Zone d. Ceiling 77. Specified information provided to air traffic services units related to the intend flight of acft: a. Clearance b. Flight Plan c. Flight Information d. Expected Approach Time 78. A series of green flashes on acft in flight means: a. Clear to Land b. Return to landing c. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land d. Give way to other acft and continue cycling 79. Load planning is very important and several factors must be considered: a. Forklift b. Platform Truck c. Fire truck d. All of the above 80. The total acft weight plus the payload of weight of the acft when ready to fly: a. Gross weight b. Basic weight c. Operating weight d. Payload 81. What is the status of a person in the PAF who was ordered by the CS, PAF to participate in regular and frequent aerial flight? a. Aerial Flight b. Navigator c. Flying Status d. Pilot 82. The following are acft observer, except: a. Navigator b. Bombardier c. Flight Surgeon d. Flight Eng’r 83. In military modification the C-130 is called: a. Provider b. Sky master c. Hercules d. Lift master 84. In the instrument rating section of the flight plan, what number will be used to represent the aeronautical rating of a senior pilot? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 85. In the instrument rating section of the flight plan, what number will be used to represent the instrument qualification of a pilot holding PAF Form 8? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 86. A person who is on board to any aircraft without any travel authority and who is not listed in the passenger manifest is considered to be: a. Prisoner b. Stairway c. Guard d. Courier 87. Light signal from control tower directed the aircraft flight a steady red means? a. Cleared to take off b. Return to starting point c. Give way to other aircraft d. All of the above 88. The element that provides information as to how a pilot will be able to see during take off, in flight, or during landing is known as: a. Ceiling b. Visibility c. Sky condition d. Weather 89. What did the horizontal, or nearly horizontal, natural movement of the air: a. Haze b. Drizzle c. Wind d. Hail 90. What form is designed to keep a record of all in bound aircraft flight? a. Acft status board b. Daily traffic log c. Operations log d. Clearance Log 91. Which acft has more priority to land? a. Fighter plane b. Light acft c. Cargo plane d. Turbo prop acft 92. A type of flight on which the point of the departure is the point of first intended landing: a. SVFR b. b. IFR c. c. VFR d. d. Local Clearance 93. The control coordinating point & all activities on Air Terminal is called: a. Air Freight Section b. Passenger Control Section c. Traffic Control d. d. Section 94. As an apprentice airfield, specified information provided to air traffic services units related to the intended of an acft is: a. Clearance b. Flight Plan c. Flight information d. Expected Approach 95. As an apprentice airfield, a series green flashes of an acft in flight means: a. Clear to Land b. Aerodrome unsafe do not Land c. Return for landing d. None of the above 96. As an apprentice airfield, it is a unite establish to provide control service to aerodrome traffic a. Approach Control Service b. Tower c. Area Control Tower d. All of the above 97. In the instrument rating section of the flight plan. As an apprentice airfield what will be used to represent the aeronautical rating of a command pilot? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 98. What fire extinguisher should be ready to acft a. 25 lbs Co2 b. 75 lbs Co2 c. 50 lbs Co2 d. 100 lbs Co2 99. What does X-1 mission symbol represent? a. Engineering Test Flight b. Test and/or development equipment c. Air evacuation d. d. All of the above 100. A defined area on land or water including any building, installations, an equipment intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival. a. Area control Center b. Aerodrome c. Air traffic d. Aerobatic Flight area 101. A potential danger to acft flying over it. a. Control Zone b. Aerodrome c. Danger Area d. Controlled Airspace 102. Specified information provided to air traffic services its flight of an acft is contained is contained in the. a. Flight Information services b. Flight Plan c. Alert information d. All of the above 103. What type of chock should be used on steel matting? a. Steel b. Sand Bag c. Wood d. Aluminum 104. How many pounds personal baggage authorized to PAF aircraft? a. 45 lbs b. 20 lbs c. 50 lbs d. 35 lbs 105. What type of flight plan or which the point of the departure is the point of the first intended landing? a. SVFR b. IFR c. VFR d. Local clearance 106. It is the control coordinating point and all activities on Air Terminal is called: a. Air Freight Section b. Flight Service c. Passenger Control Section d. Traffic control section 107. It is the positioning steps in the place of the acft passengers doors in the responsibilities of which of the units at an air terminal. a. Fleet Service b. Ramp Services c. Traffic Control Section d. Passenger Control Section 108. __________ regulates the use of airfield facilities and provides service as required by custom and governing directives. a. Administrative Section b. Dispatch Section c. Base Operations d. Staff 109. The following are considered prohibited cargoes aboard PAF acft: a. Subversive b. Dangerous Material c. Smuggling d. All of the Above 110. Equipment should not be towed within how many feet from the wing tips? a. 10 ft b. 5 ft c. 15 ft d. 20 ft 111. Personnel shall remain at least how many feet from operating aircraft: a. 10 ft b. 30 ft c. 50 ft d. 25 ft 112. No person vehicle shall pass closer than how many feet to the rear of jet aircraft: a. 100 ft b. 150 ft c. 50 ft d. 200 ft 113. Where should classified materials be stored? a. Outside the table b. Drawer c. Hand Carry d. Lock container or Vault type 114. As an apprentice airfield, a series green flashes of an acft in flight means: a. Clear to Land b. Aerodrome unsafe do not Land c. Return for landing d. None of the above  EP Career Field Related to Airfield Management Apprentice - 30 Items 115. In what GHQ circular that indicates EP Promotional System in the AFP? a. GHQ Circular Nr 13 dtd 15 Jul 1991 b. GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008 c. GHQ Circular Nr 03 dtd 31 Jan 1990 d. GHQ Circular Nr 14 dtd 10 Jul 1990 116. How many years that A2C can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. 1 yr b. 2 yrs c. 3 yrs d. 4 yrs 117. What are the mandatory requirements for Special/Meritorious Promotion? a. PROMEX and SKT b. Atleast one-half of the required TIG and Career Course or its equivalent c. Local Clearances d. None of the Above 118. What is the career course requirement for promotion to grade of E4 & E5? a. Basic NCO Course b. Advance NCO Course c. Sgt Major Course d. Specialization Course 119. When is the effectively date of all Regular Promotion? a. 02 Jan of the calendar year b. 01 Aug of the calendar year c. 01 Dec of the calendar year d. None of the above 120. What are the mandatory requirements for regular promotion? a. Time-In-Grade b. SKT & PROMEX c. Career Course or its equivalent d. All of the above 121. How many years that SSg can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. 2 yrs b. 3 yrs c. 4 yrs d. 5 yrs 122. What GHQ Circular that indicates the Selective Enlistment and Reenlistment in the AFP? a. GHQ Circular Nr 13 dtd 15 Jul 1991 b. GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008 c. GHQ Circular Nr 03 dtd 31 Jan 1990 d. GHQ Circular Nr 14 dtd 10 Jul 1990 123. The following are qualifications for selection of enlistment, EXCEPT: a. Citizen of the Philippines b. Unmarried and without dependent c. Atleast 72 units in college d. Not less than 18 yrs of age and not more than 25 yrs of age 124. What is the career course requirement for promotion to grade of E6 & E7? a. Basic NCO Course b. Advance NCO Course c. Sgt Major Course d. Specialization Course 125. Enlisted Personnel who handle a position of key responsibility in the organization. This refers to Enlisted Personnel grades of E4 (Sgt/PO) and up. a. Airman b. Non-Commissioned Officers c. Commissioned Officers d. General Officers 126. How many years that A1C can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. 2 yrs b. 3 yrs c. 4 yrs d. 5 yrs 127. What is the rank requirement for taking Basic NCO Course? a. E2-E3 (A2C & A1C) b. E4 & E5 (Sgt & SSg)(T) c. E6 & E7 (TSg & MSg) d. E8 & E9 (SMS & CMS) 128. What is the highest awards and decorations given in the AFP? a. Distinguished Service Star b. Distinguished Conduct Star c. Medal of Valor d. Gold Cross Medal 129. What kind of career course that an SSg will take so that he/she can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. Basic NCO Course b. Advance NCO Course c. Sgt Major Course d. None of the above 130. How many years that Sgt can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. 2 yrs b. 3 yrs c. 4 yrs d. 5 yrs 131. How many years that Enlisted Personnel be reenlisted into the regular force? a. 3 yrs b. 4 yrs c. 5 yrs d. 6 yrs 132. What award is given after 20 years of active military service? a. Gold Cross Medal b. Medal of Valor c. Military Merit Medal d. Long Service Medal 133. What section of GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 08 governs the Temporary Promotion? a. Section I b. Section II c. Section III d. Section IV 134. Defined as the maximum number of years per grade an individual can remain in a specific grade. a. Core competency b. Active cumulative service c. Time-In-Grade d. Tenure-In-Grade 135. How many times an Enlisted Personnel can fail his PFT before he referred to the EP Review and Evaluation Board for deliberation of his fitness to remain in the service? a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 1 136. Temporary rank under section III of GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 08 shall be effective for how many years? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None of the above 137. This Personnel Directive aims to efficiently manage the assignment of Officers and Enlisted Personnel at Headquarters Philippine Air Force. a. PAF Personnel Directive 2005-1 b. PAF Personnel Directive 2002-3 c. PAF Personnel Directive 2004-1 d. PAF Personnel Directive 2005-2 138. This is also known as Candidate Soldier Course. This is formal course of instruction designed to introduce candidate soldiers to basic military knowledge and skills on soldiery. a. Basic NCO Course b. Pre Entry Course c. Advance NCO Course d. Basic Air Force Officer Course 139. How many months should file the application for reenlistment before ETE? a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 5 months d. 6 months 140. Define as the initial training being given to newly recruited personnel prior to the enlistment in the Regular Force, PAF (AFP). a. Citizen Military Training b. Basic Military Training c. Probationary Officer Training d. Military Pilot Training 141. How many years that TSg can be promoted to the next higher grade? a. 3 yrs b. 6 yrs c. 7 yrs d. 5 142. What GHQ Circular indicates the Permission to Marry of Military Personnel? a. GHQ Circular Nr 08 dtd 04 May 1993 b. GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008 c. GHQ Circular Nr 13 dtd 15 Jul 1991 d. None of the above 143. What Unit in the PAF caters the Career Management of an Air Force Personnel? a. OA8 b. PMC c. HPAF d. AETC 144. What kind of promotion can be given to an EP who graduated as outstanding student with no grades below 85% in any career courses? a. Spot promotion b. Posthumous promotion c. Meritorious promotion d. Regular Promotion  Computer Literacy related to Airfield Management Apprentice - 6 Items 145. This is a device that displays signals on a computer monitor or displays information in visual form, using text and graphics. a. Computer Keyboard b. Computer Mouse c. Computer Printer d. Computer Monitor 146. This is machines that perform tasks or calculations according to a set of instructions, or programs. a. Computer b. Mouse c. Keyboard d. Scanner 147. What do you call to the small device used to point to and select items on your computer screen? a. Modem b. Speakers c. Mouse d. Monitor 148. What kind of device that prints text or illustrations on paper. a. Speakers b. Monitor c. AVR d. Printer 149. This is used mainly for typing text into your computer. Like the keyboard on a typewriter, it has keys for letters and numbers. a. Scanner b. Keyboard c. Monitor d. Printer 150. This acts as the “brain” of your computer. a. Modem b. Printer c. CPU or Microprocessor d. Flask Drive