Radiography Exam Questions 2022 PDF

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This document contains 24 August 2022 Radiography exam questions. The questions focus on radiography techniques and procedures relevant to the medical field. The document provides multiple-choice questions related to X-ray imaging.

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RADIOGRAPHY – EXAMINATION X-RAY Q&A 2022 MOCK TEST AND OTHER PDF LINK BELOW SIDE Q1. Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with. (A) rare earth intensifying screens (B) image intensifier’s (C) PSP storage plates (D) lament material Answer- (C) Q2. An acute reaction...

RADIOGRAPHY – EXAMINATION X-RAY Q&A 2022 MOCK TEST AND OTHER PDF LINK BELOW SIDE Q1. Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with. (A) rare earth intensifying screens (B) image intensifier’s (C) PSP storage plates (D) lament material Answer- (C) Q2. An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes (A) asthma (B) anaphylaxis (C) myocardial infarction (D) rhinitis Answer- (B) Anaphylaxis is an acute reaction characterized by sudden onset of urticaria, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, or systemic shock; it sometimes leads to death. It is caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent such as a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or by an insect bite. Q3. Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters? (A) Cystogram (B) Urethrogram (C) Retro grade pyelogram (D) Cystourethrogram (C) Contrast-medium injection into the ureters can be achieved only by first catheterizing the bladder, locating the ureteral orifices, and then injecting the contrast agent into the ureters. T is procedure is called a retro grade (because contrast is being introduced against the normal direction of flow) pyelogram. A cystogram is an examination of the bladder. A cystourethrogram is an examination of the bladder and urethra. Q4. Imperfect expansion of the lung(s), often accompanied by dyspnea, is called (A) COPD (B) pneumonia (C) pneumothorax (D) atelectasis Answer- (D) Atelectasis is partial or complete collapse (i.e. imperfect expansion) of a lung or lobe of a lung. Pneumonia is an acute infection of the lung parenchyma characterized by productive cough, chest pain, ever, and chills and frequently accompanied by rales. Pneumothorax is the condition of air or gas in the pleural space. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the name given to a number of disease processes that decrease the lung’s ability to perform its function of ventilation. Q5. Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral articulation in the AP position? (A) CR perpendicular to L3 (B) CR perpendicular to L5 to S1 (C) CR caudad 30 to 35 degrees (D) CR cephalad 30 to 35 degrees Answer- (D) In the AP projection of the lumbar spine, the disk spaces of L1 to L4 are perpendicular to the IR and well visualized, but the L5 to S1 disk space is angled 30 to 35 degrees cephalad to the perpendicular. If the CR is directed 30 to 35 degrees cephalad midway between the ASIS and the pubis symphysis, the L5 to S1 interspace will be well demonstrated Q6. During endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) examination, contrast medium is injected into the (A) hepatic duct (B) cystic duct (C) pancreatic duct (D) common bile duct Answer-(D) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is performed to diagnose disease of the biliary and/or pancreatic organs. Fluoroscopic control is used to introduce the fiber-optic endoscope through the mouth and into the duodenum. The hepatopancreatic ampulla then is located and cannulated, and contrast medium is injected into the common bile duct. Q7. Biologic material is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which o the following conditions? (A) Deoxygenated (B) Oxygenated (C) Hypoxic (D) Anoxic Answer- (B) issue is most sensitive to radiation exposure when it is in an oxygenated condition. Anoxic refers to a general lack of oxygen in tissue; hypoxic refers to tissue with little oxygen. Anoxic and hypoxic tumors typically are avascular (with little or no blood supply) and, therefore, more radioresistant. Q8. As window level decreases (A) contrast scale increases (B) contrast scale decreases (C) brightness increases (D) brightness decreases Answer- D Q9. Which of the following is most useful or bone age evaluation? (A) Lateral skull (B) PA chest (C) AP pelvis (D) PA hand Answer- (D) A PA projection of the left hand and wrist is obtained most often to evaluate skeletal maturation. These images are compared with standard normal images or the age and sex of the child. Additional supplemental images may be requested Q10. An increase from 78 to 92 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following? 1. Wavelength 2. Beam intensity 3. Energy (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer- (A) As kilovoltage is increased, more electrons are driven to the anode with greater speed and energy. These high- energy electrons will result in production of a greater quantity (i.e., increased exposure rate/intensity) of high-energy (i.e., short/decreased wavelength) x-rays. Thus, kilovoltage affects both quantity and quality of the x-ray beam. Q11. An animal host of an infectious organism that transmits the infection via a bite or sting is a (A) vector (B) fomite (C) host (D) reservoir Answer- (A) A vector is an animal host of an infectious organism that transmits the infection via a bite or sting, such as the mosquito (malaria) and the deer tick (Lyme disease). A fomite is an inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism. Q12. All the following are rules o good body mechanics except (A) keep back straight, avoid twisting (B) keep the load away from the body (C) push, do not pull, the load (D) keep a wide base of support Answer- (B) Proper body mechanics can help to prevent painful back injuries by making proficient use of the muscles in the arms and legs. Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the part of the body in touch with the floor or other horizontal plane Q13. A parallel plate ionization chamber receiving acharge from x-ray photons is a/an (A) photomultiplier tube (B) induction motor (C) autotransformer (D) AEC Answer-D A parallel-plate ionization chamber is a type of automatic exposure control (AEC). Q14. X-ray tube life may be extended by 1. using high mAs with low kV technical actors 2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation 3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer- C) X-ray tube li e may be extended by using technical actors that produce a minimum of heat, that is, a lower milliampere-seconds and higher kilovoltage combination, whenever possible. When the rotor is activated, the lament current is increased to produce the required electron source (thermionic emission). Prolonged rotor time, then, can lead to shortened lament li e as a result of early vaporization. Large exposures to a cold anode will heat the anode sur ace, and the big temperature difference can cause cracking o the anode. T is can be avoided by proper warming of the anode prior to use, thereby allowing sufficient dispersion of heat through the anode. Q15. Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial trans er o the incident photon energy to the involved atom? (A) Photoelectric effect (B) Compton scattering (C) Coherent scattering (D) Pair production Answer-B Q16. Geometric Unsharp-ness is influenced by which of the following? 1. Distance from object to image. 2. Distance from source to object. 3. Distance from source to image. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer (D) Geometric un-sharpness is affected by all three factors listed. As OID increases, so does magnification. As focal- - object distance and SID decrease, so does magnification. OID may be said to be directly proportional to magnification. Focal- object distance and SID are inversely proportional to magnification. Q17. A minimum total amount of aluminum filtration (Inherent plus added) of 2.5 mm is required in equipment operated (A) above 50 kVp (B) above 60 kVp (C) above 70 kVp (D) above 80 kVp Answer- (C) The x-ray tube’s glass envelope and oil coolant are considered inherent (built-in) filtration. Thin sheets of aluminum are added to make a total of at least 2.5-mm Al equivalent filtration in equipment operated above 70 kVp. The function of the filtration is to remove the low-energy photons that serve only to contribute to skin dose. Q18. Which of the following radiologic examinations would deliver the greatest ESE? (A) Chest (B) Skull (C) Abdomen (D) T orectic spine Answer-C Q19. Combinations Of milliamperage and exposure time that produce a particular milliampere- seconds value will produce identical receptor exposures is statement is an expression of the (A) inverse-square law (B) line-focus principle (C) reciprocity law (D) D log E curve Answer-C RADIOGRAPHER & X-RAY TECHNICIAN PRACTICE TEST CLICK HERE MCQS PDF CLICK HERE Q&A CLICK HERE BEST REGARD’S Official website- www.sarkariresultsfast.com TELEGRAM- @ASCPI EXAM NOTES @RADIOGRAPHERMCQ YOUTUBE- MEDICAL TUBER Q20. How can OID be reduced or a PA projection of the wrist? (A) Extend the fingers. (B) Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints. (C) Extend the forearm. (D) Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees. Answer- (B) When the hand is pronated and the fingers are extended or a PA projection of the wrist, the wrist arches, and an OID is introduced between the wrist and the cassette. of reduce this OID, the metacarpophalangeal joints should be flexed slightly. This maneuver will bring the anterior surface of the wrist into contact with the cassette. Q21. How often are radiographic equipment collimators required to be evaluated? (A) Annually (B) Biannually (C) Semiannually (D) Quarterly Answer-C Q22. During an intravenous urogram (IVU), the RPO position is used to demonstrate the 1. left kidney parallel to the IR 2. right kidney parallel to the IR 3. right kidney perpendicular to the IR (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only Answer-D Q23. Impingement on the wrist’s median nerve causing pain and disability o the affected hand and wrist is known as (A) carpal boss syndrome (B) carpal tunnel syndrome (C) carpopedal syndrome (D) radioulnar syndrome Answer- (B) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves pain and numbness to some parts of the median nerve distribution Q24. The x-ray image seen on the computer display monitor is a (an) (A) analog image (B) digital image (C) phosphor image (D) emulsion image Answer- (A) Remnant x-rays emerging from the patient/ part is converted to electrical signals. This is an analog image. These electrical signals are sent to the ADC (analog-to-digital converter) to be converted to digital data (in binary digits or bits). Q25. Ionizing radiation passing through tissue and depositing energy through ionization processes is known as (A) the characteristic effect (B) Compton scatter (C) linear energy transfer (D) the photoelectric effect Answer-C Q26. Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter is most responsible or patient dose? (A) The photoelectric effect (B) Compton scatter (C) Classic scatter (D) Thompson scatter Answer-A Q27. Crescent-shaped black marks on a chemically processed x-ray film are usually due to (A) bending the film acutely (B) improper development (C) improper film storage (D) static electricity Answer-A Q28. What is the most superior structure of the scapula? (A) Apex (B) Acromion process (C) Coracoid process (D) Superior angle Answer- (B) It is easy to determine the highest point of the scapula when it is viewed laterally. The coracoid process projects anteriorly and is quite superior. However, the acromion process, which is an anterior extension of the scapular spine, projects considerably more superior than the coracoid. Q29. Which of the following contribute(s) to x-ray film base-plus fog? 1. Chemical fog 2. Base tint 3. Background radiation (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer-D Q30. Examples of primary radiation barriers include 1. radiographic room walls 2. radiographic room floor 3. lead aprons (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 Answer-B Q31. The term used to describe the gradual decrease in exposure rate as an x-ray beam passes through matter is (A) attenuation (B) absorption (C) scattered radiation (D) secondary radiation Answer- (A) The gradual decrease in exposure rate as radiation passes through matter is called attenuation. Attenuation is attributed to the two major types of interactions that occur in tissue between x-ray photons and matter in the diagnostic x-ray range. In the photoelectric effect, absorption and secondary radiation occur. In the Compton effect, scattered radiation is produced. With each of these occurrences, there is a decrease in the exposure rate that is referred to as attenuation Q32. Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity? (A) Nerve cells (B) Muscle cells (C) Spermatids (D) Lymphocytes Answer- (A) Muscle cells have a fairly low radiosensitivity, and nerve cells are the least radiosensitive in the body (in fetal life, however, nerve cells are highly radiosensitive). Lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell concerned with the immune system, have the greatest radiosensitivity of all body cells. Spermatids are also highly radiosensitive, although not to the same degree as lymphocytes Q33. Which of the following conditions will require an increase in x-ray photon energy/penetration? (A) Fibrosarcoma (B) Osteomalacia (C) Paralytic ileus (D) Ascites Answer-D Q34. The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is (A) hematemesis (B) hemoptysis (C) hematuria (D) epistaxis Answer- (A) Hematemesis refers to vomiting blood. If the blood is dark in color.it is probably gastric in origin; if it is bright red, it is most likely pharyngeal in origin. Expectoration (coughing or spitting up) of blood is called hemoptysis. Blood is originating from the mouth, larynx, or respiratory structure. Hematuria is the condition of blood in the urine. Epistaxis is the medical term or nosebleed Q35. The position most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices is the (A) lateral decubitus (B) dorsal decubitus (C) erect lateral (D) AP axial lordotic Answer-D Q36. Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm? (A) Bicipital groove projection (B) Superoinferior lateral (C) Inferosuperior axial (D) transthoracic lateral Answer-D Q37. What is the annual EDE limit or radiation workers? (A) 5 mSv (B) 500 mSv (C) 5,000 mSv (D) 50 mSv Answer- (D) Whenever a radiation worker could receive 10% or more of the annual EDE limit, that person must be provided with a radiation monitor. The annual EDE limit or radiation workers is 50 mSv (5 rem, 5,000 mrem), but it is the responsibility of the radiographer to practice the ALARA principle, that is, to keep radiation dose as low as reasonably achievable. Q38. Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure? (A) Heparin (B) Norepinephrine (C) Nitroglycerin (D) Lidocaine Answer- (B) All our medications are found routinely on the typical emergency cart. Heparin is used to decrease coagulation and often used in the cardiovascular imaging suite to inhibit coagulation on catheters. Norepinephrine functions to raise the blood pressure, whereas nitroglycerin functions as a vasodilator, relaxing the walls of blood vessels and increasing circulation. Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or antidysrhythmic Q39. Focal-spot blur is greatest (A) toward the anode end of the x-ray beam (B) toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam (C) directly along the course of the CR (D) as the SID is increased Answer- (B) Focal-spot blur, or geometric blur, is caused by photons emerging from a large focal spot. Because the projected focal spot is greatest at the cathode end of the x-ray tube, geometric blur is also greatest at the corresponding part (cathode end) of the radiograph. The projected focal-spot size becomes progressively smaller toward the anode end of the x-ray tube. Q40. Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from (A) Compton scatter (B) the photoelectric effect (C) coherent scatter (D) pair production Answer-A Q41. The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the (A) capacitor (B) grid (C) cathode (D) anode Answer- (D) X-ray tubes are diode tubes; that is, they have two electrodes—a positive electrode called the anode and a negative electrode called the cathode. Q42. Of what material is the x-ray tube component numbered 5 in Figure 6-18 made? (A) Cesium (B) Copper (C) Nickel (D) Tungsten Answer- (D) The figure illustrates the x-ray tube component parts. Number 1 indicates the thoriated tungsten lament, which functions to release electrons when heated. Number 2 is the nickel focusing cup, which directs these electrons toward the anode’s focal track. Number 4 is the rotating anode, and number 5 is the anode’s focal track. The focal track is made of thoriated (or extra protection from heat) tungsten. When high-speed electrons are suddenly decelerated at the target, their kinetic energy is changed to x-ray photon energy. RADIOGRAPHER & X-RAY TECHNICIAN PRACTICE TEST CLICK HERE MCQS PDF CLICK HERE Q&A CLICK HERE BEST REGARD’S Official website- www.sarkariresultsfast.com TELEGRAM- @ASCPI EXAM NOTES @RADIOGRAPHERMCQ YOUTUBE- MEDICAL TUBER THANK YOU VISIT AGAIN

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