2020 ECET Civil Engineering Past Paper PDF

# Question Paper Preview ## Notations: 1. Options shown in green color and with **icon** are correct. 2. Options shown in red color and with **icon** are incorrect. ## Question Paper details | Detail | Value | |---|---| | Question Paper Name | Civil Engineering 31st Aug 2020 Shift 2 | | Subjec...

# Question Paper Preview ## Notations: 1. Options shown in green color and with **icon** are correct. 2. Options shown in red color and with **icon** are incorrect. ## Question Paper details | Detail | Value | |---|---| | Question Paper Name | Civil Engineering 31st Aug 2020 Shift 2 | | Subject Name | Civil Engineering | | Creation Date | 2020-09-01 11:53:56 | | Duration | 180 | | Total Marks | 200 | | Display Marks| No | | Share Answer Key With Delivery Engine | Yes | | Actual Answer Key | Yes | | Calculator | None | | Magnifying Glass Required | No | | Ruler Required | No | | Eraser Required | No | | Scratch Pad Required | No | | Rough Sketch/Notepad Required | No | | Protractor Required | No | | Show Watermark on Console | Yes | | Highlighter | No | | Auto Save on Console | Yes | ## Group Details | Detail | Value | |---|---| | Group Number | 1 | | Group Id | 76439054 | | Group Maximum Duration | 0 | | Group Minimum Duration | 180 | | Show Attended Group | No | | Edit Attended Group | No | | Break time | 0 | | Group Marks | 200 | | Is this Group for Examiner | No | ## Section Details ### Mathematics |Detail | Value | |---|---| | Section Id | 764390207 | | Section Number | 1 | | Section type | Online | | Mandatory or Optional | Mandatory | | Number of Questions | 50 | | Number of Questions to be attempted | 50 | | Section Marks | 50 | | Display Number Panel | Yes | | Group All Questions | Yes | | Mark As Answered Required | Yes | ### Sub-Section 1 | Detail | Value | |---|---| | Sub-Section Number | 1 | | Sub-Section Id | 764390237 | | Question Shuffling Allowed | Yes | ## Physics |Detail | Value | |---|---| | Section Id | 764390208 | | Section Number | 2 | | Section type | Online | | Mandatory or Optional | Mandatory | | Number of Questions | 25 | | Number of Questions to be attempted | 25 | | Section Marks | 25 | | Display Number Panel | Yes | | Group All Questions | Yes | | Mark As Answered Required | Yes | | Sub-Section Number | 1 | | Sub-Section Id | 764390238 | | Question Shuffling Allowed | Yes | ## Chemistry |Detail | Value | |---|---| | Section Id | 764390209 | | Section Number | 3 | | Section type | Online | | Mandatory or Optional | Mandatory | | Number of Questions | 25 | | Number of Questions to be attempted | 25 | | Section Marks | 25 | | Display Number Panel | Yes | | Group All Questions | Yes | | Mark As Answered Required | Yes | | Sub-Section Number | 1 | | Sub-Section Id | 764390239 | | Question Shuffling Allowed | Yes | ## Civil Engineering |Detail | Value | |---|---| | Section Id | 764390210 | | Section Number | 4 | | Section type | Online | | Mandatory or Optional | Mandatory | | Number of Questions | 100 | | Number of Questions to be attempted | 100 | | Section Marks | 100 | | Display Number Panel | Yes | | Group All Questions | Yes | | Mark As Answered Required | Yes | | Sub-Section Number | 1 | | Sub-Section Id | 764390240 | | Question Shuffling Allowed | Yes | # Questions ## Mathematics 1. Let A, B be two distinct square matrices of same order such that AB=A, BA=B, then - - - - 2. Which of the following statements is not correct? - - - - 3. If A is a square matrix of order 4, then |adj (adjA²)| = - - - - 4. If the system of equations x = cy + bz, y = az + cx, z = bx + ay has a non-zero solution, then a² + b² + c² + 2abc = - - - - 5. - - - - 6. If x, y, are three distinct positive real numbers and - - - - 7. In ABC, if cot == - - - - 8. - - - - 9. If A-B, then (1-tan A)(1+tan B) = - - - - 10. √3 csc 20° sec 20° = - - - - 11. cos A cos 2A cos 4A cos 8A = - - - - 12. The general solution set of sin 2x + sin4x = 2sin3x is - - - - 13. If x, y, z have same sign such that xy + yz + zx <1 and tan⁻¹ x +tan⁻¹ y + tan⁻¹ z =π, then - - - - 14. If sinh.x =5, then ex = - - - - 15. If a and ẞ are two distinct complex numbers such that = 1, then - - - - 16. - - - - 17. If the perpendicular distance of the straight line += 1, a > 0,b > 0 from the origin is p then - - - - 18. The line lx + my + n = 0 is a normal to the circle x² + y²-4x-6y+11=0 if - - - - 19. The centre of the circle passing through origin and (0,4) & (4,0) is - - - - 20. - - - - 21. The derivative of log, x, with respect to axis - - - - 22. If - - - - 23. The set of all points at which the curve y = sin x has horizontal tangents are - - - - 24. The interval in which f(x) = x*, (x > 0) is increasing is - - - - 25. - - - - 26. - - - - 27. - - - - 28. - - - - 29. - - - - 30. - - - - 31. The area of the region (in square units) bounded by the parabola y = x² + 1 and the straight-line x + y = 3 is - - - - 32. - - - - 33. - - - - 34. - - - - 35. - - - - 36. A particular integral of (D2 - 1) = cosh x - - - - 37. A particular integral of (D³ + 4D) y = sin 2x is - - - - 38. A particular integral of (D2 - 2D+4)y = x² is - - - - 39. A particular integral of (D²-4)y = cos²x is - - - - 40. Complementary function of (D³ - D²+D-1) y = 0 is - - - - 41. A differential equation formed by eliminating the constants a and b in y = ae - - - - 42. - - - - 43. If F(s) denotes the Laplace transform of tsint, then F(2) = - - - - 44. If F(s) denotes the Laplace transform of , then F(1) = - - - - 45. If F(s) denotes the Laplace transform of e' sint, then lim F(s) = - - - - 46. If f(t) denotes the inverse Laplace transform of , then lim, f(t) = - - - - 47. The inverse Laplace transform of log is - - - - 48. The inverse Laplace Transform of is - - - - 49. - - - - 50. The coefficient of cosx in the Fourier expansion of f(x) = cosx), χε[-π.π] is - - - - ## Physics 51. ML2T-³is the dimensional formula of - - - - 52. Distance 'd' covered by a particle in time 't' is given by d = xt + yt + zt3. The dimensions of x, y, z are - - - - 53. The work function of Al, K and Pt is 4.38 eV, 2.36 eV and 5.60 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be - - - - 54. The critical angle of a denser medium of refraction index √2 is - - - - 55. During an adiabatic operation the pressure and density (P1, d₁) of a diatomic gas change to (P2. d2), if = 243, then is (r=) - - - - 56. A gas is heated through 1° C in a closed vessel. Its pressure is increased by 0.4%. The initial temperature of the gas is - - - - 57. Find the cross product of the two vectors 2i + 3j + k and 3i + 2j + k. - - - - 58. Find the angle between two vectors A=2i + j-k and B = i-k - - - - 59. A car moving on a straight road accelerates from a speed of 4.1 m/s to a speed of 6.9 m/s in 5.0 s. What was its average acceleration? - - - - 60. A body is projected with an initial velocity 40 m/s at 60° to the horizontal. Find its initial velocity vector (given g=10m/s²). - - - - 61. A bomb is dropped from an aircraft travelling horizontally at 150 ms-¹ at a height of 490 m. The horizontal distance travelled by the bomb before it hits the ground is - - - - 62. Find the force required to move a body of mass 5 kg on a rough surface with a uniform velocity. If the coefficient of friction is 0.4 - - - - 63. A body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 4m/s on a horizontal rough surface stops after covering a distance 5 m, the coefficient of friction is - - - - 64. A machine gun fires 240 bullets per minute with a velocity of 500 m/s. If the mass of each of the bullet is 5 x 10-2 kg. then the power of the gun is - - - - 65. A body of mass 200 kg is moving on a horizontal plane with an acceleration 2 m/s², what is the work done in moving the body through a distance of 50 m. - - - - 66. Find the kinetic energy of a bullet of mas 0.05 kg. if it moves with a velocity of 100 m/s. - - - - 67. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude of 0.2m. At what distance from the mean position the potential energy of the particle will be equal to its kinetic energy - - - - 68. A seconds pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 0.4m. If the mass of the pendulum is 0.2 kg. Then kinetic energy of the pendulum at mean position - - - - 69. Velocity of sound wave in air at 0°C is - - - - 70. The minimum distance to hear an echo at 0°C is - - - - 71. Read the following statements about the viscosity, then choose the correct option - - - - 72. A Copper wire of length 2m is stretched by 2cm them find then the strain on the wire - - - - 73. Choose the correct expression for ohm's law - - - - 74. 1A, 2A and 3A currents are flowing a junction then find out how much current will flow out from that junction - - - - 75. Read the following statements about magnetism, - - - - ## Chemistry 76. The electronic configuration of Na+ - - - - 77. Number of sigma (σ) and Pi (π) bonds present in Nitrogen molecule - - - - 78. What is the oxidation numbers of Mn in KMnO4 - - - - 79. Find the molarity of the solution which contain 20 g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in 100 ml solution - - - - 80. Equivalent weight of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) is - - - - 81. Which of the following is not a buffer solution? - - - - 82. - - - - 83. What is the pH of 10-3 M HCl Solution? - - - - 84. - - - - 85. Composition of brass alloy is - - - - 86. The EMF of the following cell Pt, H2(g) | Hcl (sol) || AgCl (s) |Ag(s) is (given that Eagcl/Ag = +0.222v) - - - - 87. Standard reduction potential of Zn is - - - - 88. Which of the following is a primary factor influencing on rate of corrosion - - - - 89. Formation of rust on iron is an example of - - - - 90. Impressed voltage method is an example of - - - - 91. Indicate the right chemical equation for the removal of temporary handness of water? - - - - 92. Indicate the hardness of water in degree French and degree Clark when the degree of hardness of water is 250 ppm? - - - - 93. What is the hardness of a sample of water in ppm (in equivalents of CaCO3) which contains 29.2 mg of Mg(HCO3)2 per litre - - - - 94. Which of the following statements is false? - - - - 95. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of Bakelite - - - - 96. Which rubber is used for preparing gloves and aprons? - - - - 97. Which of the following is not character of a good fuel? - - - - 98. Match the following and choose the right answer - - - - ## Civil Engineering 99. The permissible level of a poisonous pollutant in atmosphere is known as - - - - 100. Which pollutants form smog that limits the visibility of roads? - - - - 101. For a two forces in a member to be in equilibrium, the forces have to be - - - - 102. In the figure shown, length of AB is 'a'. What is the couple due to both parallel forces F of magnitude 'F'? - - - - 103. What is the location of centroid of an Isosceles triangle of base 60cm and side 50cm from the base? - - - - 104. What is the location of centroid from bottom for the T-Section shown below - - - - 105. Polar moment of inertia of a hollow circular section shown in the figure below is - - - - 106. What is the formula for theorem of perpendicular axis ? - - - - 107. Moment of Inertia of the 'I' section given below about its major axis - - - - 108. Relation between three elastic moduli E (Modulus of elasticity), G (Modulus of rigidity) and K (Bulk modulus) - - - - 109. A Cylindrical wire is stretched by a tensile force, such that the volume of wire is constant. Find Poisson's ratio of material of wire - - - - 110. What is the proof resilience of a square bar of area 1600mm² and 300mm long. When a load of 320 kw is applied gradually, Take E=2x105 MPa. - - - - 111. A simply supported beam of span 'L' is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of w/m over right half of the span. The Bending moment at mid span is - - - - 112. Two span continuous beam of each span 8 m subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 20kN/m throughout the length of the beam. The maximum hogging bending moment at the central support - - - - 113. A simply supported beam AB of span 'L' carries two point loads, W each at points L/3 from A and B. What is the shear force in the Middle one-Third portion of the beam? - - - - 114. A Prismatic beam ABC is simply supported at point A and B spaced 8m apart and has an overhang of 2m. A uniformly distributed load of 15kN/m is acting over the entire length 'AC' and a concentrated load of 50kN is acting at 'C'. The bending moment at support B is - - - - 115. Beam (A) has a width 'b' and depth 'd/2', while Beam (B) has a width 'b/2' and depth (d). If bending moments applied to both beams are the same, maximum bending stresses induced is cases (A) and (B) are related as - - - - 116. A beam is subjected to sagging bending moment. has a cross-section which is an unsymmetrical 'I' section having over all depth of 300mm. The bending stresses in the beam at top and bottom are respectively 100 MPa and 50MPa respectively. The position of neutral axis from the bottom of the section is - - - - 117. Sudden change in shear stress distribution diagram at a cross-section shows - - - - 118. A rectangular beam of 10cm width, is subjected to a maximum shear force of 60kN and the corresponding maximum shear stress is 3MPa. What is the depth of the section? - - - - 119. The diameter of a solid circular shaft is increased from 40 mm to 80 mm, all other conditions remaining unchanged, how many times is its torque carrying capacity increased? - - - - 120. In power transmission of shafts, if polar moment of Inertia of a shaft is doubled keeping length same, the torque required to produce the same angle of twist is - - - - 121. A solid shaft of diameter 'D' carries a twisting moment that develops maximum shear stress 'T'. If the shaft is replaced by a hollow one of outside diameter 'D' and inside diameter 'D/2'. then the maximum shear stress will be - - - - 122. A simply supported beam of spam 'L' and uniform 'EI' is subjected to a concentrated load 'P' at the centre. Maximum deflection of the beam is - - - - 123. The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length 'L' with a concentrated load 'W' kN at the free end and that of with a uniformly distributed load 'w' kN/m (where w=W/L) over its entire length is - - - - 124. From the given M/EI diagram calculate the maximum slope at 'A' - - - - 125. The differences in slope between any two points A and B on a continuous elastic curve of a beam equal to - - - - 126. For a circular column having its ends hinged, the slenderness ratio is '200'. The l/d ratio of the column is - - - - 127. A cylindrical steel pressure vessel 600 mm in diameter with a wall thickness of 15mm. is subjected to an internal pressure of 4 MPa. Calculate the circumferential stress (σm) and longitudinal stress (0) in the steel vessel. - - - - 128. For a masonry dam of base width 'b', at which location the resultant force should act on the base so as to avoid tension any where in the section? - - - - 129. As per IS-456, the partial safety factor for concrete is - - - - 130. The shear failure can be due to the following - - - - 131. In an under reinforced concrete beam - - - - 132. The effective width of flange for a 'T' -beam may be taken as (Where D - Depth of flange, bw- breadth of web, lo - distance between points of zero moments) - - - - 133. According IS:456-2000, HYSD reinforcement in either direction of a slab shall not be less than - - - - 134. The final deflection of a beam due to all loads including the effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage should not normally exceed - - - - 135. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in a beam shall not exceed (where d= effective depth of beam and D= Overall depth of beam) - - - - 136. According to IS:456-2000, the maximum compressive strain in concrete under axial compression is - - - - 137. According to IS:456-2000, a compression member is called as a long column when the ratio of effective length to least lateral dimension - - - - 138. What is the recommended value of effective length as per IS:456-2000 for a compression member effectively held in position at both ends, but not restrained against rotation - - - - 139. In design of a footing, the critical section for one way shear check is at - - - - 140. In design of footing, the minimum percentage of reinforced (HYSD bars) provided should be - - - - 141. In working stress method of design, the modular ratio for M30 grade of concrete is - - - - 142. What is the permissible tensile stress of HYSD bars of Fe 415 grade in working stress method of design - - - - 143. A 30m long tape is held between supports under a tension of 120 N. If the tape weights 10 N, find the horizontal distance between the supports - - - - 144. Whole circle bearing of the lines of traverse ABCDA are given below. Determine the interior angles at A, B, C, and D respectively - - - - 145. Optical plummet is used - - - - 146. The series of contour lines spaced widely, closely and equally indicate respectively - - - - 147. For determining the area using Simpson's rule, the ordinates should be - - - - 148. A tacheometer was setup at station 'P' and observations were taken on a staff held at 'Q'. The vertical circle reading being zero. The readings were 1.980m, 1.660 m and 1.340m. Find the distance 'PQ'. Take instrument constants as 100 and 0.5. - - - - 149. Determine the radius of a curve, if it is designated as a 3º curve for an 30 m arc length. - - - - 150. Super elevation is - - - - 151. At a certain point in caster oil, the shear stress is 0.216 N/m² and the velocity gradient is 0.216/s. If the mass density of caster oil is 959.42 kg/m³, find the dynamic viscosity - - - - 152. Uniform flow occurs - - - - 153. Buoyant force is - - - - 154. - - - - 155. Consider the following statements - - - - 156. Coefficient of discharge for a Borda's mouthpiece when running full and running free is - - - - 157. - - - - 158. At a sudden expansion in a horizontal pipe - - - - 159. Loss of head at entrance of a pipe is given by the following formula - - - - 160. The critical depth is the depth of flow at which - - - - 161. A channel with constant bed slope and the same cross section along its length is known as - - - - 162. Match List -I and List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below - - - - 163. Consider the following statements - - - - 164. Match List - I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below - - - - 165. If wheat requires about 7.5 cm of water after every 28 days, and the base period for wheat is 140 days, find out the delta for wheat. - - - - 166. The drip nozzles are also called as - - - - 167. The purpose of pulviometer is to measure - - - - 168. The optimum number of rain gauges (N) is given by the following equation Where C₁ = coefficient of variation of the rainfall p = allowable degree of error - - - - 169. According to Dicken's formula, the Peak flood discharge is proportional to - - - - 170. The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between - - - - 171. Silt excluders are constructed - - - - 172. Match the sentences of Column A to that in Column B - - - - 173. A core wall is provided in - - - - 174. An elementary triangular concreate gravity dam, supporting 60m height of reservoir water and full uplift, should have a minimum base width equal to (take √1.4 = 1.183) - - - - 175. The discharge passing over an Ogee spillway per unit length its apex line is proportional to Where. H is the head over the apex of its crest - - - - 176. When an irrigation canal is taken over a drainage channel, the crossing is called - - - - 177. An alluvial irrigation canal is constructed with 1:1 (H:V) side slope in cutting and 2:1 in filling, and the water depth up to FSL is expected to be 'y'. A berm width equal to 'y' is left initially, which with the passage of time, and when canal attains regime conditions is likely to became - - - - 178. The wetted perimeter 'P' of a stable channel is proportional to - - - - 179. According to IRC 73-1980, the roadway width of double lane National Highway in plain areas will be meters - - - - 180. The