Why does Aristotle include as understood by the prudent man? (Select two)
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Understand the Problem
The question is asking why Aristotle includes the concept of prudence when defining moral virtue. It suggests selecting two correct statements from the provided options that relate to Aristotle's view of moral virtue and prudence.
Answer
C and D.
The final answer is C and D.
Answer for screen readers
The final answer is C and D.
More Information
Aristotle includes 'as understood by the prudent man' to stress the importance of practical wisdom (prudence) governed by virtues, and the necessity for external validation or society's consent for moral actions.
Tips
Ensure to differentiate practical wisdom from other virtues, and to understand the societal context in moral actions.
Sources
- Ethics in Aristotle and Adam Smith - adamsmithworks.org
- Senior Seminar [Winston Churchill]: Prudence & Statemanship - slulibrary.saintleo.edu
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