A 35-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit. He is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis that is well controlled with prednisone 15 mg and hydroxychloroquine 400 mg dail... A 35-year-old man is evaluated during a follow-up visit. He is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis that is well controlled with prednisone 15 mg and hydroxychloroquine 400 mg daily. His physical examinations are unremarkable (see lab results). Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. Taper prednisone and start methotrexate B. Taper prednisone and start ibuprofen C. Taper prednisone and start cyclosporine D. Continue his treatment
Understand the Problem
The question is asking to evaluate the management plan for a 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who is currently on prednisone and hydroxychloroquine. The goal is to select the most appropriate next step in his treatment based on his current condition and treatment effectiveness.
Answer
Taper prednisone and start methotrexate.
The final answer is taper prednisone and start methotrexate.
Answer for screen readers
The final answer is taper prednisone and start methotrexate.
More Information
Methotrexate is commonly added to manage rheumatoid arthritis when a patient is on prednisone, as it is an effective disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). Tapering of prednisone is advised to minimize its long-term side effects.
Tips
A common mistake is not considering methotrexate as a first-line DMARD in rheumatoid arthritis management. Another is not tapering prednisone appropriately.
Sources
- Self Assessment Questions - PMC - PubMed Central - pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
AI-generated content may contain errors. Please verify critical information
