A 22-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-day history of dysuria and urethral discharge. He had recent sexual activity with a new female partner. He is afebrile, and his examination i... A 22-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-day history of dysuria and urethral discharge. He had recent sexual activity with a new female partner. He is afebrile, and his examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. Gentamicin B. Azithromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Nitrofurantoin
Understand the Problem
The question is asking which antibiotic is the most appropriate treatment for a 22-year-old man who presents with dysuria and urethral discharge after recent sexual activity. The focus is on identifying the best pharmacological option among the provided choices.
Answer
Ceftriaxone
The final answer is C. Ceftriaxone.
Answer for screen readers
The final answer is C. Ceftriaxone.
More Information
Ceftriaxone is commonly used for treating gonorrhea, which aligns with symptoms of dysuria and urethral discharge in sexually active individuals.
Tips
Be careful to consider both Chlamydia and Gonorrhea as potential infections when urethritis symptoms are present.
Sources
- Question 8 of 25 - AccessMedicine - accessmedicine.mhmedical.com
- Solved Question 44 - Chegg - chegg.com
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