Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome Management
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Questions and Answers

What is the definitive management of the condition in a 26-year-old female patient with palpitations and a specific ECG finding?

Accessory pathway ablation

Which treatment has the highest percentage likelihood for treating the condition?

  • Lifelong aspirin
  • AV node ablation
  • Permanent pacemaker
  • Accessory pathway ablation (correct)
  • What is the percentage likelihood of AV node ablation as a treatment option?

  • 7% (correct)
  • 84%
  • 2%
  • 6%
  • Which of the following treatments has the lowest percentage likelihood for this patient's condition?

    <p>Lifelong aspirin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Patient Presentation

    • A 26-year-old female presents with palpitations
    • ECG reveals a shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke in lead II

    Diagnosis:

    • This ECG pattern is consistent with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW)

    Definitive Management

    • Accessory pathway ablation is first-line treatment and has an 84% likelihood of being employed
    • AV node ablation is another option and is used in 7% of cases
    • Permanent pacemaker placement and lifelong amiodarone are less common but have a 6% and 2% likelihood respectively
    • Lifelong aspirin is rarely used in WPW, with only a 1% chance of being prescribed

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    Description

    This quiz explores the management strategies for Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW), including first-line treatments and their respective likelihoods. It covers findings from ECG presentations and outlines different treatment options for effective patient care.

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