Veterinary Soft Tissue Surgery Overview
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Questions and Answers

What condition is characterized by the stomach rotating on its axis, leading to gas trapping and dilation?

  • Bougienage failure
  • Esophageal neoplasia
  • Gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) syndrome (correct)
  • Vascular ring anomalies

    • What is a common diagnostic method for gastrointestinal disorders mentioned in the content?

  • CT scans
  • Electrocardiogram
  • Blood tests
  • Radiographs (correct)

    • In which breed of dogs is gastric dilation-volvulus commonly observed?

  • Beagles
  • Irish setters (correct)
  • Chihuahuas
  • Bulldogs

    • What surgical procedure is indicated when medical management for certain esophageal conditions fails?

    <p>Gastropexy and hiatal reduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is specifically noted to be rare in cats and dogs?

    <p>Esophageal neoplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical consequence does gastric dilation have on the cardiovascular system?

    <p>Compression of venous systems leading to functional hypovolemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for esophageal neoplasia in cats and dogs?

    <p>Guarded due to common recurrence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure can be used to relieve gastric dilation in emergencies?

    <p>Gastrocentesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common oral tumor in dogs?

    <p>Malignant melanoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor type is commonly associated with cats and has a poor prognosis?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is recommended as the treatment of choice for malignant melanoma in dogs?

    <p>Wide surgical excision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of treatment is primarily used for fibrosarcoma?

    <p>Wide excision of the primary tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor is described as locally aggressive but late to metastasize?

    <p>Fibrosarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor is used as a basis for surgical margins in treatment recommendations?

    <p>Empirical thought rather than scientific evidence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which malignancy has a high metastatic potential and is locally aggressive?

    <p>Osteosarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions is commonly used for chemotherapeutic treatment?

    <p>Vinblastine and prednisone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred surgical approach for dealing with pancreatic issues?

    <p>Exploratory surgery with partial pancreatectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important postoperative complication to monitor for in animals after surgical intervention?

    <p>Portal hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of prognosis is associated with most liver masses in dogs?

    <p>Guarded to poor due to malignancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is correct regarding nephrectomy?

    <p>Unilateral nephrectomy generally has no long-term effects on a patient with a normally functioning kidney.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of patient is more likely to be diagnosed with ectopic ureters?

    <p>Dogs are diagnosed more frequently than cats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of liver masses, which statement is incorrect?

    <p>Primary liver neoplasia is more frequent than metastatic disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition has a fair prognosis with congenital intrahepatic issues?

    <p>Congenital intrahepatic shunt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by clinical signs such as hypoglycemia after surgery?

    <p>Pancreatic insulinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of colopexy in surgical treatment?

    <p>To permanently fix the colon to the body wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding colonic masses?

    <p>Owners often notice colonic masses after seeing blood in stool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs might indicate anal sacculitis in dogs?

    <p>Licking, tenesmus, and scooting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise from a strangulating intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Necrosis due to impaired venous return</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is NOT directly associated with the supply of the colon?

    <p>Femoral artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What change occurs due to loss of intestinal barrier in intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Increased permeability leading to bacterial influx</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the clinical examination for anal sacculitis aim to reveal?

    <p>Impacted and thickened anal sacs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may happen during rapid absorption of toxins and bacteria from the intestines?

    <p>Sequelae leading to systemic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does strangulation affect the blood supply during intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Impair venous return and arterial transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from the changes in bacterial flora during intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Increase in the susceptibility to infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is least likely to have cystine stones as an inborn error in metabolism?

    <p>Boxers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method is not typically recommended for obtaining a urine sample for cytologic determination?

    <p>Cystocentesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which dietary modification is recommended for managing urate stones?

    <p>Low-protein, alkalizing diet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of portosystemic shunts in relation to urate stones?

    <p>Metabolic problems in liver and kidney tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of neoplasia associated with urinary stones?

    <p>Piroxicam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic procedure is most appropriate for delineating a mass in the bladder?

    <p>Abdominal ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is commonly associated with urate stone formation due to a metabolic issue?

    <p>Dalmatian</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication can arise from neoplasia in the urinary system?

    <p>Metastasis to bone and lung</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred method for hair removal prior to surgery?

    <p>Clipping immediately before surgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes synthetic suture materials?

    <p>They are composed of polydioxanone and polyglycolic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which type of surgery is a monofilament absorbable suture recommended?

    <p>Gastrointestinal surgery with expected bacterial presence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of suturing pattern is most commonly used in surgical procedures?

    <p>Appositional pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of natural suture materials?

    <p>They include biodegradable options like chromic gut</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is essential when selecting suture for a surgical procedure?

    <p>The tensile strength of the healing tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common risk associated with multifilament suture materials?

    <p>Increased risk of infection retention between strands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered when determining the appropriate suture selection for a wound?

    <p>The tensile strength of the involved healing tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of initial patient stabilization after an injury?

    <p>To promote adequate oxygenation and encourage thoracic contents to return to the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of wound healing is the surgical wound typically at its weakest?

    <p>Lag phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What host factor is noted to slow wound healing significantly?

    <p>Excessive glucocorticoid levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a method of wound healing listed in the content?

    <p>Tertiary closure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic tool is most commonly used to obtain a diagnosis related to the described injuries?

    <p>Plain radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of which abnormal finding might indicate an injury requiring urgent intervention?

    <p>Loss of the diaphragmatic line</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended time frame for performing delayed primary closure on contaminated wounds?

    <p>2 to 5 days after surgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding would suggest a positive contrast celiogram might be necessary?

    <p>Abnormal communication between abdominal and thoracic cavities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of a traumatic avulsion of the cranial pubic ligament?

    <p>Caudal abdominal viscera escape to subcutaneous tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method may reveal a loss of the stripe of the ventral abdominal wall?

    <p>Lateral radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment approach is recommended for cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Surgical herniorrhaphy securing the ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the prognosis of cranial pubic ligament hernias is correct?

    <p>Prognosis is favorable if no clinical issues are present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the possible radiographic signs of traumatic diaphragmatic hernias?

    <p>Gas-filled structures within the pericardial sac</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breeds are mentioned as predisposed to cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Domestic long-haired cats and Weimaraner dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a method for securing an avulsed cranial pubic ligament during surgical treatment?

    <p>Drill holes into the pubic bone to secure the ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What concurrent defects may occur alongside cranial pubic ligament hernias in dogs?

    <p>Concurrent sternal defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of urinary stone found in dogs?

    <p>Struvite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a rare but potential surgical option if stones cannot be flushed back into the bladder?

    <p>Urethrotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dog is notably over-represented in cases of transitional cell carcinoma?

    <p>Scottish Terrier</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which concurrent condition should always be ruled out when diagnosing struvite stones?

    <p>Urease-producing bacteria infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of calcium oxalate stones in cats?

    <p>They are recently identified as the most common stone type.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which approach is preferred for scrotal urethrostomy in dogs?

    <p>Scrotal location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following options is characteristic of calcium oxalate stones?

    <p>Associated with hypercalcemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cats, where does transitional cell carcinoma commonly occur?

    <p>Apical bladder area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of colonic masses are most frequently observed in dogs and cats?

    <p>Benign adenomatous polyps and adenocarcinomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome of leakage of intraluminal contents during a strangulating intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Peritonitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is often observed when a dog is suffering from anal sacculitis?

    <p>Tenesmus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method might reveal impacted and thickened anal sacs?

    <p>Rectal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition mentioned is characterized by irritation and licking due to anal sac issues?

    <p>Anal sacculitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify the consequence of impaired venous return during a strangulating intestinal obstruction.

    <p>Necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication is closely associated with changes in bacterial flora due to intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Increased production of bacterial toxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary factor leading to bowel distention in cases of obstruction?

    <p>Increased intraluminal pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is not associated directly with the colon's blood supply?

    <p>Coronary artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does colopexy serve in surgical treatment?

    <p>To prevent recurrence of colonic issues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is primarily indicated for patients with gastric entrapment?

    <p>Mechanical ventilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the grading system used to classify mast cell tumors in dogs indicative of?

    <p>Biological aggressiveness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most commonly herniated organ through the diaphragm in dogs?

    <p>Liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of surgical incision is performed to correct gastric entrapment?

    <p>Ventral midline celiotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario may a caudal sternotomy be required during surgical treatment?

    <p>In case of significant diaphragmatic repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable characteristic of cutaneous mast cell tumors in cats?

    <p>They typically have a benign form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breeds are primarily predisposed to develop mast cell tumors in dogs?

    <p>Boxers, Pugs, and Boston Terriers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication could result from progressive gastric distension in patients?

    <p>Acute respiratory decompensation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of surgical wound is classified as a clean-contaminated wound?

    <p>A controlled entrance into a body system with potential contamination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the critical bacterial contamination level that is commonly associated with infections post-surgery?

    <p>10^5 organisms per gram of tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antiseptic agent is noted for causing fewer skin reactions compared to alternative agents?

    <p>Chlorhexidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason for using antiseptic agents during skin preparation for surgery?

    <p>To reduce bacterial colonization of the surgical field</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of suture material is classified as nonabsorbable?

    <p>Silk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What surgical classification is assigned to a wound involving a breach in the respiratory tract with contamination?

    <p>Contaminated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When rinsing with agents for skin preparation, which combination is noted to be inferior?

    <p>Chlorhexidine scrubs with isopropyl alcohol rinses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor has an impact on the rate of postoperative infection apart from bacterial population?

    <p>The virulence of the organism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical surgical approach for smaller masses in dogs?

    <p>Lumpectomy or mastectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition refers to a salivary cyst that may lead to various clinical presentations?

    <p>Salivary mucocele</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a major risk associated with oral cavity surgeries?

    <p>Increased risk of wound dehiscence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of swelling due to salivary mucoceles?

    <p>Severe dyspnea from pharyngeal obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The surgical prognosis for tumors depends on which factor?

    <p>Histologic type and stage of disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which salivary gland duct is continuous with the sublingual chain in dogs?

    <p>Mandibular salivary gland duct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential presentation of a salivary mucocele?

    <p>Non-painful ventral cervical swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about healing in the oral cavity is correct?

    <p>Oral cavity inherently allows for rapid healing despite contamination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What underlying anatomical issue primarily leads to brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>Stenotic nares and elongated soft palate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed type is significantly overrepresented in cases of acquired laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Large-breed middle-aged to older dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Inspiratory stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can exacerbate respiratory distress in dogs with laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Hypothyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended first step in diagnosing laryngeal paralysis in dogs?

    <p>Clinical diagnosis and chest radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a negative prognostic factor associated with gastrointestinal complications?

    <p>Serum blood lactate greater than 6 mmol/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the recommended initial treatment steps in the case of obstructive shock?

    <p>Immediate intravenous fluid resuscitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment method can be beneficial in severe cases of laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Oxygen supplementation and sedatives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might be a sign of respiratory compromise due to gastric obstruction?

    <p>Decreased thoracic expansion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of brachycephalic airway syndrome is specifically linked to the anatomy of the larynx?

    <p>Everted laryngeal saccules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the placement of intravenous catheters?

    <p>Placement in hindlimbs is contraindicated due to ineffective heart connection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might indicate a more severe case in a patient with gastric foreign bodies?

    <p>Development of acute abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the typical presentation of a patient with gastric foreign body obstruction?

    <p>Vomiting, anorexia, and painful abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physiological issue can arise due to significant gastric distension?

    <p>Decreased inspiratory volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key sign indicating the need for gastric decompression?

    <p>Presence of severe vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of suture absorbs through hydrolysis rather than phagocytosis?

    <p>Polyglycolic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main disadvantage of multifilament suture materials compared to monofilament?

    <p>Greater capillarity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions indicates a contaminated surgical field?

    <p>Traumatic wound with devitalized tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should antimicrobial prophylaxis ideally be administered before a surgical procedure?

    <p>30 to 60 minutes before the incision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What time frame defines a 'fresh' traumatic wound in terms of contamination risk?

    <p>Less than 4 to 6 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which absorbable suture material is associated with a risk of phagocytosis?

    <p>Chromic surgical gut</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic makes monofilament sutures more suitable for contaminated wounds than multifilament sutures?

    <p>Less capillary action</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification do nonabsorbable sutures fall under?

    <p>Monofilament or braided</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract must be incorporated into gastrotomy closure?

    <p>Submucosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following techniques is commonly used for gastrotomy closure?

    <p>Monofilament absorbable suture material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential sign indicating perforation of the intestine in an animal?

    <p>Palpable fluid wave</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is least likely to aid in identifying a foreign body in the gastrointestinal tract?

    <p>Physical examination for temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy most commonly occurs in which group of animals?

    <p>Small-breed dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical presentation of gastrointestinal foreign body obstruction in animals?

    <p>Polyuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition might lead to the recommendation of marginal resection of involved tissue in dogs?

    <p>Benign gastric masses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common outcome of an intestinal foreign body obstruction in terms of systemic health?

    <p>Shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical presentation of patients with diaphragmatic hernias?

    <p>Dysphnea and tachypnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phase follows the inflammatory phase in wound healing?

    <p>Debridement phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can lead to a significant stress on the diaphragm?

    <p>Diaphragmatic hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sounds may be observed during a physical examination of a patient with a diaphragmatic hernia?

    <p>Dull heart and lung sounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the repair phase of wound healing, what is critically being accomplished?

    <p>Formation of granulation tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of diaphragmatic hernia, why might patients present with an abdomen that appears 'deflated'?

    <p>Abdominal contents in the thoracic cavity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor influences the healing of wounds aside from the wound environment?

    <p>Host factors like age and nutrition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical prognosis for patients who can be stabilized following a diaphragmatic hernia?

    <p>Good, with low recurrence rates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason the esophagus does not heal as readily as other areas of the GI tract?

    <p>It lacks a serosal layer and has a decreased vascular supply.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical approach is used for a persistent right aortic arch?

    <p>Left lateral thoracotomy at the fourth intercostal space.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT typically associated with esophageal disease in afflicted animals?

    <p>Increased appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding is commonly observed on radiographs in cases of esophageal disease?

    <p>Dilation of the esophagus cranial to the base of the heart.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common vascular anomaly associated with a persistent right aortic arch?

    <p>Persistent right aortic arch.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for esophageal motility problems following surgical intervention?

    <p>Typically good, although issues can persist.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method may provide additional information regarding concurrent aspiration pneumonia in cases of esophageal disease?

    <p>Contrast studies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is considered ineffective for resolving mucoceles in salivary gland conditions?

    <p>Repeated drainage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential risk associated with simple suture ligation in addressing a vascular shunt?

    <p>Potential for portal hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is used to help manage hypoglycemia by increasing insulin levels?

    <p>Diazoxide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic sign that might be observed upon physical examination of a dog experiencing seizures or weakness?

    <p>Poor body condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is most suitable for locating a mass within the pancreas when assessing hypoglycemia?

    <p>Abdominal ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be an effect of using an ameroid constrictor during surgical intervention for a vascular shunt?

    <p>Progressive reduction in blood vessel expansion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What approach is taken to manage episodes of weakness, collapse, or seizures in larger-breed dogs?

    <p>Limit exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does lactulose have on intestinal transit time?

    <p>Decreases transit time and traps ions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is not typically indicated for managing seizures in recipients of anticonvulsant therapy?

    <p>Invasive surgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary underlying issue in cricopharyngeal achalasia that affects swallowing?

    <p>Failure of the cricopharyngeal muscle to relax</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breeds is notably predisposed to esophageal foreign bodies?

    <p>Younger spaniels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred method for removing an esophageal foreign body when endoscopic removal is not viable?

    <p>Surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential complication can arise from a hiatal hernia?

    <p>Esophageal stricture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What imaging technique is commonly used to diagnose esophageal strictures?

    <p>Radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medical management option is indicated for esophageal strictures linked to certain medications?

    <p>H2 blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common site where esophageal foreign bodies are likely to lodge?

    <p>Thoracic inlet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for a healthy esophagus after treatment of a hiatal hernia?

    <p>Good</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with cranial pubic ligament hernia in small animals?

    <p>Loss of abdominal wall integrity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed of dogs is noted to have a predisposition to cranial pubic ligament hernias?

    <p>Cocker Spaniel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key diagnostic finding on radiographs for cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Loss of the 'stripe' of the ventral abdominal wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is typically required for the treatment of cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Surgical herniorrhaphy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the prognosis typically indicate for patients with cranial pubic ligament hernia without complications?

    <p>Favorable prognosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What additional structure may be involved during surgical intervention for a cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Cranial abdominal wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method may be beneficial in revealing the presence of abdominal viscera in a cranial pubic ligament hernia?

    <p>Abdominal ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical defect might accompany cranial pubic ligament hernia in dogs?

    <p>Sternal defects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of septic peritonitis in dogs and cats?

    <p>Ruptured viscera</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is particularly useful in identifying intussusception in abdominal cases?

    <p>Abdominal ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues in animals, specifically when considering potential intussusception?

    <p>Hemorrhagic diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial medical approach is essential for treating septic peritonitis?

    <p>IV fluid support</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition may indicate a left shift on leukogram in a patient with gastrointestinal problems?

    <p>Infection or inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might radiographs typically reveal in cases of intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Obstructive intestinal pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication needs to be differentiated from rectal prolapse when an intussusceptum protrudes?

    <p>Rectal prolapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be suspected when persistent vomiting and diarrhea occur along with abdominal pain and potentially hypoglycemia?

    <p>Septic peritonitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is typically associated with gastric dilation-volvulus in dogs?

    <p>Acute onset of vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential postoperative complication commonly observed in dogs following treatment for gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Cardiac rhythm abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical location is crucial for performing a gastropexy?

    <p>On the right side of the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is NOT commonly described for gastropexy?

    <p>Laparoscopic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the surgeon avoid when palpating tissues during the procedure?

    <p>Tissues that are overly thin and friable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated if a dog shows bleeds on a cut surface during surgical procedures?

    <p>Possible underlying malignancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What risk factor increases the likelihood of a dog developing gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Being a large breed dog with classic conformation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered part of the clinical picture for diagnosing gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Chronic diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment focus in cases of gastric complications?

    <p>Stabilization and intravenous catheterization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor contributes negatively to the prognosis of gastric conditions?

    <p>Blood lactate levels above 6 mmol/L at admission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What immediate intervention should be performed in cases of obstructive shock?

    <p>Intravascular resuscitation with fluids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does a large stomach affect respiratory function in gastric conditions?

    <p>Decreases thoracic expansion and respiratory volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical presentation for patients with gastric foreign bodies?

    <p>Persistent vomiting and abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should intravenous catheters not be placed in the hindlimbs during treatment?

    <p>Due to ineffective blood flow to the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor may influence the severity of clinical signs in gastric obstructions?

    <p>Nature of the obstructive material</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of supportive therapy can be beneficial for patients experiencing respiratory compromise due to a large stomach?

    <p>Oxygen supplementation to improve oxygenation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the crucial challenge in diagnosing the condition referred to as the 'great imitator'?

    <p>It tends to have no typical or highly predictable appearance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of tumor is most commonly seen in dogs and characterized by a high level of aggression and metastatic potential?

    <p>Malignant melanoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical treatment approach for squamous cell carcinoma in cats?

    <p>Aggressive local excision and staging</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What commonly affects the prognosis of neoplasia within the oral cavity?

    <p>Histopathological grading of the tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tumor type is characterized by being locally aggressive but late to metastasize?

    <p>Fibrosarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary holding layer of the abdomen that should be included in closures to prevent dehiscence?

    <p>External rectus fascia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hernia is typically a congenital defect that can be heritable in certain breeds?

    <p>Umbilical hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What has recent evidence suggested regarding surgical margins for tumor excision?

    <p>Less aggressive margins may be equally effective.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary surgical procedure used to close a hernia?

    <p>Herniorrhaphy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chemical agent is commonly included in chemotherapeutic interventions for neoplasia management?

    <p>Vinblastine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication can arise if a bladder becomes entrapped in a hernia?

    <p>Urinary obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What notable feature makes osteosarcoma particularly concerning in terms of treatment outcomes?

    <p>It has high metastatic potential.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is often the clinical presentation in dogs with an omental hernia?

    <p>Fluctuant nonpainful swelling in the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of prognosis, how is the recurrence of hernias generally characterized?

    <p>Common</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia in pets?

    <p>Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical diagnostic method for identifying a hernia during a clinical examination?

    <p>Digital rectal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for dogs with grade 3 tumors or tumors that have metastasized?

    <p>Guarded to poor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which benign oral tumor is most common in dogs?

    <p>Acanthomatous epulides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant factor in the incidence of mammary masses in female dogs?

    <p>Rate of spaying</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of malignant mammary tumor in dogs?

    <p>Carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes oral papillomatosis in dogs?

    <p>Typically resolves spontaneously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of skeletal tumors, what is true regarding appendicular osteosarcoma?

    <p>Prognosis is poor but often better than other types</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first indication of a cleft palate in newborn dogs?

    <p>Milk coming from the nostrils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is predisposed to develop cleft palates?

    <p>Siamese cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying cause of laryngeal paralysis in dogs?

    <p>Dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following breeds is most commonly associated with brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>English Bulldog</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is NOT typically associated with laryngeal paralysis in dogs?

    <p>Decrease in appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of severe compromise in dogs experiencing upper respiratory issues?

    <p>Cyanosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method is often used to confirm upper respiratory tract diseases in dogs?

    <p>Chest radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>Micrognathia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may exacerbate the symptoms of brachycephalic airway syndrome in affected dogs?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions might be included in the management of a dog with severe laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Oxygen supplementation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main indication for performing a colopexy?

    <p>To fix the colon to the body wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with anal sacculitis?

    <p>Scooting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential consequence of a strangulating intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Increased intestinal permeability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific type of colonic mass is most commonly found in dogs?

    <p>Adenomatous polyps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a known risk associated with the loss of the intestinal barrier due to obstruction?

    <p>Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery plays a critical role in supplying blood to the colon?

    <p>Cranial mesenteric artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which chronic condition could lead to the formation of colonic masses?

    <p>Chronic gastrointestinal irritation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the clinical method used to diagnose impacted anal sacs?

    <p>Rectal examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following sequelae is most likely to occur due to prolonged intestinal obstruction?

    <p>Hypoxia in intestinal tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes anal sacculitis in dogs and cats?

    <p>Infection and inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common malignancy of dogs mentioned in the content?

    <p>Mast cell tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of wound healing, what method is primarily employed when surgical manipulation is avoided?

    <p>Second-intention healing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is predisposed to developing cutaneous mast cell tumors?

    <p>Boxers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common surgical correction method for gastric entrapment?

    <p>Ventral midline celiotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the grade of mast cell tumors in dogs indicate?

    <p>Level of biological aggression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What organ is most commonly herniated through the diaphragm in dogs?

    <p>Liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mast cell tumor occurrence is generally considered benign in cats?

    <p>Cutaneous mast cell tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What notably increases the risk of acute respiratory decompensation in patients with gastric entrapment?

    <p>Progressive gastric distension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant negative prognostic factor associated with patient admission?

    <p>Blood lactate greater than 6 mmol/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is likely to arise due to obstructive shock from gastric issues?

    <p>Decreased intravascular volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis for dogs with tumors that have metastasized to regional lymph nodes?

    <p>Guarded to poor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do the symptoms of gastric foreign bodies typically present?

    <p>Symptoms may vary depending on obstruction duration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common treatment for acanthomatous epulides in dogs?

    <p>Surgical excision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding mammary masses in female dogs?

    <p>Approximately 50% are malignant.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended initial treatment for a patient presenting with obstructive shock?

    <p>Intravascular resuscitation with crystalloids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor is commonly linked to the increased incidence of mammary masses in dogs?

    <p>Hormonal influences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with gastric malposition?

    <p>Decreased thoracic expansion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which breed is cleft palate more frequently diagnosed?

    <p>Siamese cat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial for the diagnosis of gastric issues that may arise from the ingestion of foreign objects?

    <p>History of a missing household item</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of treatment is considered paramount for gastric complications?

    <p>Stabilizing the patient effectively</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by multiple gray masses in younger dogs without requiring surgical intervention?

    <p>Oral papillomatosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common benign oral tumor in dogs?

    <p>Fibromatous epulides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might be a symptom indicating varying degrees of gastric obstruction?

    <p>Painful abdomen alongside potential vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is specifically noted to have a poor prognosis when diagnosed at grade 3?

    <p>Mammary masses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common breed type to experience brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>Brachycephalic breeds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of brachycephalic airway syndrome?

    <p>Hypoplastic trachea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is commonly associated with laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Inspiratory stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential severe consequence when a dog presents with laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Severe compromise of oxygen supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is specifically mentioned as being overrepresented in cases of acquired laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Labrador Retriever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic tool is commonly utilized to evaluate respiratory tract issues including laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Chest radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which systemic condition can laryngeal paralysis be linked with?

    <p>Myasthenia gravis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical treatment option recommended for severe cases of laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Steroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated as a critical condition necessitating a cesarean section?

    <p>Fetal distress with decreased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common factor contributing to dystocia in dogs?

    <p>Large head confirmation of the fetus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method suggested for confirming nasal polyps?

    <p>Otoscopic examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which therapeutic approach presents the lowest recurrence rate for polyp removal?

    <p>Ventral bulla osteotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication from prolonged labor without birth?

    <p>Fetal distress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is least related to the development of laryngeal paralysis?

    <p>Increased exercise levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prognosis typically associated with uterine inertia in dogs?

    <p>Excellent if surgical intervention is performed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom should raise a high index of suspicion for an upper respiratory infection related to polyp development?

    <p>Nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is associated with acute onset of gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of a gastropexy in dogs at risk for gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>To create a permanent adhesion to prevent stomach rotation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is not commonly described for performing a gastropexy?

    <p>Split abdominal technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition often accompanies cardiac rhythm abnormalities in patients with gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Electrolyte imbalance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic of tissue is indicative of viability during palpation?

    <p>Healthy color and firmness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical aspect of diagnosing gastric dilation-volvulus in dogs?

    <p>Assessing for distension of the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential risk factor for a dog developing gastric dilation-volvulus?

    <p>Inherited history of GDV in relatives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might misinterpretation of bleeding on a cut surface indicate during assessment?

    <p>Necrotic tissue condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure is prioritized when a patient requires immediate stabilization after gastric decompression?

    <p>Surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial factor in assessing tissue viability during surgery after gastric decompression?

    <p>Color of the tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome may occur if the gastric pressure is successfully reduced before reattempting the orogastric tube placement?

    <p>Reattempting the tube may succeed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of temporary gastrostomy, what role does it play in patient care?

    <p>It aids in stabilization when prior decompression attempts fail</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the acceptable color of tissue that indicates viability during surgical assessment?

    <p>Pink and red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step to be taken once a patient is stable after a temporary gastrostomy?

    <p>Proceeding to definitive surgical intervention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is critical to ensure before performing surgical intervention after gastric decompression?

    <p>Obtaining a correct diagnosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication may arise from the serosal surface appearing normal during surgery despite potential issues?

    <p>Necrosis that may not be visible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of congenital shunt is more commonly associated with small-breed dogs?

    <p>Extrahepatic shunt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common diagnostic method provides minimal information about the location and morphology of a shunt?

    <p>Nuclear scintigraphy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of portosystemic shunts in cats?

    <p>Seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is not typically predisposed to congenital shunts?

    <p>Great Dane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What major consequence can result from rapid elevation of intraabdominal pressure in motor vehicle accidents?

    <p>Rupture of the diaphragm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What changes are usually observed in serum bile acids postprandial in cases of portosystemic shunts?

    <p>Dramatically increased</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What types of shunts are categorized as extrahepatic?

    <p>Both single and multiple vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical examination finding might indicate the presence of GI organs in the thoracic cavity?

    <p>Dull heart and lung sounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of the neurologic manifestations seen in cats with portosystemic shunts?

    <p>Ptyalism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical surgical approach for repairing a ruptured diaphragm?

    <p>Continuous suturing pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shunt is more commonly observed in large-breed dogs?

    <p>Intrahepatic shunt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with patients suffering from diaphragmatic hernias?

    <p>Signs of shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of wound healing does the removal of damaged tissue occur?

    <p>Debridement phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How might the presentation of a patient with diaphragmatic hernia affect respiratory function?

    <p>Minimal ability to generate chest excursions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical prognosis for patients with diaphragmatic hernias who can be stabilized?

    <p>Generally good with proper care</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signs might suggest that abdominal contents have shifted to the thoracic cavity?

    <p>Cyanosis and tachypnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is most likely to develop during diestrus due to hormonal changes?

    <p>Cystic endometrial hyperplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most effective treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    <p>Castration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with prostatic abscesses?

    <p>25% perioperative mortality rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is NOT typically useful for diagnosing benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    <p>Blood tests for estrogens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organ is primarily affected by cystic endometrial hyperplasia?

    <p>Uterus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can commonly be found during a rectal examination in a dog with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    <p>Large, firm, nonpainful prostate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of organism is most commonly associated with prostatic abscess formation?

    <p>Escherichia coli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential long-term consequence of untreated benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    <p>Development of prostatic abscesses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Soft Tissue Surgery

    • Histiocytoma is described as the “great imitator”
    • Masses can increase and decrease in size
    • Diagnosis can be obtained via fine-needle aspirate (FNA)
    • Treatment is wide surgical excision, classically with 3 cm margins

    Esophagus

    • Esophageal stricture can be caused by trauma, ingestion of caustic substances or surgery
    • Diagnosis includes radiographs, contrast studies, and esophagoscopy
    • Treatment includes esophageal resection and anastomosis, and bougienage

    Oral Cavity

    • Malignant melanoma is the most common oral tumor of dogs.
    • Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common oral tumor of cats and occurs with frequency in dogs.
    • **Fibrosarcoma ** is locally aggressive but late to metastasize.
    • Osteosarcoma is locally aggressive with high metastatic potential.

    Stomach

    • Gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) syndrome is an extremely serious medical condition in which the stomach rotates on its axis.
    • This condition represents a surgical emergency.
    • Signalment: Typically middle-aged, large or giant-breed dogs.

    Small Intestine

    • Strangulating intestinal obstructions have a very poor prognosis without surgery.
    • Pathophysiologic events include: bowel distention, hernia ring, impaired venous return, arterial transport of blood, leakage of intraluminal contents, rapid absorption and systemic distribution of toxins and bacteria, peritonitis, blood loss, changes in bacterial flora, and massive increase in numbers of organisms.

    Colon

    • Colonic masses include benign adenomatous polyps and adenocarcinomas.

    Anal Sac

    • Anal sacculitis is a fairly common disease of dogs and can occur in cats.

    Pancreas

    • Pancreatic neoplasia is a rare disease of dogs and cats.
    • The majority are exocrine and typically have no clinical signs until the disease is very advanced.

    Urinary Tract

    • Nephrectomy is performed for severe trauma to the kidney, catastrophic infection of the kidney, or renal neoplasia.
    • Ectopic ureters , in which the ureter does not connect to the bladder, are diagnosed in females more commonly than males and in dogs more commonly than cats.

    Bladder

    • Bladder stones are common in dogs, but rare in cats.
    • Urate stones can be associated with portosystemic shunts.
    • Bladder neoplasia is common in dogs, but rare in cats.
    • Therapy is typically centered on piroxicam.

    Suture materials

    • Monofilament sutures are made from a single strand of material, like poliglecaprone 25, polypropylene, polyglyconate, and nylon
    • Multifilament sutures are made from multiple strands of material, like silk, polyglactin 910, polyglycolic acid, and chromic surgical gut
    • Natural suture materials include surgical gut and silk
    • Synthetic suture materials include polyglactin 910, polyglycolic acid, polydioxanone, polypropylene, and polyglyconate

    Scrotal Hernia

    • Most commonly associated with intact, middle-aged female dogs or young male dogs
    • Presumably associated with a delayed closure of the inguinal ring to allow the testicles to descend

    Femoral Hernia

    • Can affect male or female dogs
    • Nonpainful swelling over the mid-thigh or vomiting and pain with entrapment

    Perineal Hernia

    • More common in dogs than cats
    • Good prognosis, recurrences are uncommon

    Cranial Pubic Ligament Hernia

    • Traumatic avulsion of the cranial pubic ligament from the pubic bone
    • Allows caudal abdominal viscera to escape the abdominal cavity and reside in the subcutaneous tissues
    • Diagnosis: Abnormal swelling near pelvic inlet after traumatic event, bruising of the skin
    • Treatment: Herniorrhaphy, avulsed ligament often has to be secured to holes predrilled into the pubic bone
    • Prognosis: Favorable for patients without complications

    Diaphragmatic Hernias

    • Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias are more common than congenital diaphragmatic hernias in small animals
    • Generally begins several days after the injury
    • Diagnosis: Plain radiographs, loss of diaphragmatic line, loss of cardiac silhouette, displacement of the lungs by soft tissue or fluid opacity structure, or presence of gas-filled GI organs

    Wound Healing

    • Most surgical wounds are weakest during the “lag phase” of wound healing, which occurs 3 to 5 days after surgery
    • Host factors that slow wound healing include excessive glucocorticoid levels, diabetes mellitus, malnourishment, and hypoalbuminemia
    • Wounds may heal via primary closure, delayed primary closure, secondary closure

    Anal Sacculitis

    • Fairly common disease of dogs, can occur in cats
    • Clinical signs: Licking, tenesmus, irritation, and scooting
    • Diagnosis: Rectal examination may reveal impacted and thickened anal sacs

    Intestinal Obstructions

    • Pathophysiologic events include bowel distention, impaired venous return, arterial transport of blood, edema, anoxia, sequestration of blood, necrosis, intestinal barrier loss, increased permeability, blood loss (intraluminal and extraluminal), changes in bacterial flora and massive increase in numbers of organisms

    Uroliths (Urinary Calculi)

    • The majority of urinary calculi occur in the lower urinary tract in dogs and cats
    • Struvite (triple phosphate): Radiopaque, most common stone in dogs, formerly the most common stone in cats but has been surpassed by calcium oxalate more recently
      • Can be associated with urease-producing bacteria
      • Can dissolve with special diet to lower urinary pH and antibiotics (if appropriate) but takes considerable time
      • Surgical removal is also an appropriate treatment
    • Calcium oxalate: Radiopaque, recently identified as the most common stone of the urinary tract in cats
      • Can be associated with concurrent hypercalcemia

    Bladder Neoplasia

    • Most common tumor of the bladder is transitional cell carcinoma
    • Scottish terriers are over-represented
    • Canines: Females more commonly affected than males
      • Location is often associated with the trigone, making surgical resection difficult
    • In cats, can be apical and lend itself to surgical resection
    • Possible link to exposure to chemicals

    Wound Classification

    • Wounds are classified based on the degree of contamination, which impacts the risk of postoperative infection.
    • Clean surgeries involve surgically created wounds without involvement of the respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), or genitourinary tract, and no breaches in aseptic technique.
    • Clean-contaminated surgeries have controlled entry into the respiratory, GI, or genitourinary tract, avoiding spillage of contents into the surgical field.

    Skin Preparation for Surgery

    • Antiseptic agents are used to reduce bacterial colonization of the surgical field before surgery, aiming for bactericidal effects.
    • Commonly used agents include chlorhexidine or povidone-iodophor compounds.
    • Chlorhexidine is preferred due to potential for fewer skin reactions compared with povidone-iodophor compounds.

    Suture Materials

    • Suture materials are classified as absorbable or nonabsorbable.

    Mast Cell Tumors

    • Mast cell tumors are the most common cutaneous malignancy in dogs.
    • They can be graded 1, 2, or 3, with higher grades indicating more aggressive tumors.
    • Mast cell tumors typically occur in the skin, but may also occur in the bone marrow or internal organs.
    • In cats, cutaneous mast cell tumors are typically benign.
    • Boxers, pugs, and Boston terriers are predisposed to mast cell tumors, usually affecting middle-aged or older animals.
    • Treatment typically involves surgical correction of the defect using local tissue flaps.

    Salivary Mucocele

    • Also known as a sialocele or salivary cyst.
    • Dogs have four paired sets of salivary glands: zygomatic, parotid, mandibular, and sublingual.
    • Mucoceles most commonly affect the mandibular salivary gland duct, which courses from the gland rostrally and is continuous with the sublingual chain.
    • Presentations can include:
      • Nonpainful ventral cervical swelling
      • Pharyngeal swelling
      • Rannula (submucosal swelling under the tongue)
      • Exophthalmia

    Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)

    • A life-threatening condition affecting large breed dogs, commonly German shepherds, Great Danes, and Doberman Pinschers.
    • The stomach twists along its longitudinal and mesenteric axes, resulting in a closed loop obstruction.
    • GDV typically involves rapid onset of signs, including:
      • Restlessness
      • Vomiting
      • Pain
      • Tachypnea
      • Abdominal distension
    • Treatment focuses on stabilizing the patient with IV fluids and oxygen supplementation, followed by surgical correction.

    Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome (BOAS)

    • Occurs in brachycephalic breeds due to conformational anatomy of the head and nose.
    • Components include stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, and in some dogs, laryngeal collapse.
    • Can also include hypoplastic trachea in English Bulldogs.
    • Signs are mainly attributed to progressive inspiratory dyspnea, decreased tolerance to exercise, and collapsing.
    • Diagnoses is typically clinical, but chest radiographs should be obtained to examine for concurrent issues.

    Laryngeal Paralysis

    • Two forms exist: congenital and acquired.
    • Congenital form is rare and reported in breeds including the Siberian Husky, Bouvier des Flanders, Dalmatian, Bull Terrier, and Rottweiler.
    • Acquired form is more common and typically affects large-breed middle-aged to older dogs.
    • Labrador Retrievers are overrepresented.
    • Caused by dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
    • Clinical signs involve inspiratory stridor, change in phonation, coughing, exercise intolerance, collapse, cyanosis.
    • Severe compromise may occur when the disease is present, requiring emergency care including oxygen supplementation, fluid therapy, active cooling, sedation, and steroids.

    Wound Classification

    • Clean: Surgical wounds involving non-infected tissues with no breach in aseptic technique.
    • Clean-Contaminated: Surgical wounds involving technically clean and healthy tissues with a minor breach in aseptic technique.
    • Contaminated: Surgical wounds with a gross spillage of infected materials (e.g., respiratory, GI, or genitourinary tract) or a major breach in aseptic technique. Also pertains to “fresh” traumatic wounds (less than 4-6 hours old).
    • Dirty: Traumatic wounds with devitalized tissues or delayed treatment (longer than 4-6 hours old). Also applies to wounds involving "clean" tissues while accessing abscessed tissues.

    Antimicrobial Prophylaxis

    • Administer antimicrobial agents before the contamination event, typically before surgical incision.
    • Administer preoperatively 30-60 minutes before incision creation.
    • Continued use postoperatively is sometimes indicated.
    • The choice of antibiotic should consider anticipated pathogens and their susceptibility profiles.

    Suture Materials

    • Absorbable: Sutures that lose tensile strength within 60 days of implantation. They are absorbed via tissue hydrolysis or phagocytosis. Examples include polydioxanone, polyglactin 910, chromic surgical gut, polyglycolic acid, poliglecaprone 25, and polyglyconate.
    • Nonabsorbable: Sutures that retain their strength for extended periods. Examples include silk, nylon, and polypropylene.
    • Monofilament: Single-strand sutures with less capillary action, ideal for contaminated wounds. Examples include polydioxanone.
    • Multifilament: Braided sutures with higher capillary action, allowing bacteria to "wick" into tissue. They offer less memory and better handling characteristics than monofilaments.

    Diaphragmatic Hernia

    • Occurs when a hole forms in the diaphragm, often in cases of traumatic injuries that raise intraabdominal pressure, causing lung deflation.
    • Presenting symptoms include dyspnea, tachypnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, dull heart and lung sounds, intrathoracic borborygmi, minimal chest movement, a "deflated" abdomen, and potentially shock.
    • Diagnosis often involves radiographs to identify the hernia.
    • Treatment involves surgically repairing the diaphragm and placing a thoracostomy tube to restore negative intrapleural pressure.

    Salivary Mucocele

    • Swelling near the thoracic inlet, possibly related to dilated esophagus, caused by salivary gland obstruction, resulting in salivary accumulation.
    • Symptoms include cervical swelling, potential coughing (if aspiration pneumonia is present), and dysphagia.
    • Diagnosis sometimes requires sialography (contrast imaging) to determine the affected gland.
    • Treatment involves excising the affected salivary gland.

    Esophageal Disease

    • Symptoms include ptyalism, regurgitation, coughing, dysphagia, weight loss, and potentially recumbency in severe cases.
    • Esophagus healing is slower due to limited vascularity and the absence of a serosal layer.

    Vascular Ring Anomalies

    • Congenital malformations in the major blood vessels around the heart, leading to esophageal compression.
    • Persistent right aortic arch is the most common cause.
    • Diagnosis relies on radiographic examination and potential ultrasound.
    • Treatment involves surgically transecting the constricting vessel.

    Gastric Foreign Bodies

    • Commonly observed in patients displaying vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, lethargy, and potentially sepsis.
    • Diagnosis is achieved through physical palpation, radiographs, contrast studies, or ultrasound.
    • Treatment involves surgical removal of the foreign body through gastrectomy.

    Intestinal Foreign Bodies

    • Typically caused by dietary indiscretion, resulting in vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, lethargy, and potentially shock.
    • Diagnosis involves physical palpation, radiographic examination, contrast studies, and ultrasound.
    • Treatment involves surgical removal of the foreign body.

    Pancreatic Insulinoma

    • Rarely diagnosed, often in large-breed dogs (e.g., Golden Retrievers, Labrador Retrievers) with episodes of weakness, collapse, or seizures.
    • Diagnosis is primarily based on hypoglycemia alongside normal/increased insulin levels. Ultrasound may be used to locate the mass in the pancreas.
    • Treatment can be medical or surgical:
      • Medical:
        • Prednisone
        • Frequent, small meals
        • Restricted exercise
        • Diazoxide
        • Streptozocin
      • Surgical: Enucleation or partial pancreatectomy.

    Cranial Pubic Ligament Hernia

    • A traumatic avulsion of the cranial pubic ligament from the pubic bone
    • Allows caudal abdominal viscera to escape the abdominal cavity and reside in the subcutaneous tissues
    • Diagnosis: Suspicion in a patient with abnormal swelling near the pelvic inlet after a traumatic event. Bruising of the skin overlying the swelling is also suspicious. Radiographs may reveal a loss of the "stripe" of the ventral abdominal wall on a lateral film as it courses towards its typical insertional point on the cranial edge of the pubis. Viscera may also be readily apparent on radiographs. Abdominal ultrasound may also be useful.
    • Treatment: Herniorrhaphy. The avulsed ligament often has to be secured to holes predrilled into the pubic bone to gain purchase.
    • Prognosis: Favorable for patients without motion with day-to-day activities such as breathing and swallowing, and does not typically have access to the omentum to accentuate the healing process.

    Traumatic Diaphragmatic Hernias

    • More common than congenital diaphragmatic hernias in small animals
    • May be accompanied by concurrent sternal defects or, in dogs, cranial abdominal wall hernias. Domestic long-haired cats and Weimaraner and cocker spaniel dogs appear to be predisposed.
    • Radiographic signs: Enlarged cardiac silhouette, tracheal elevation, loss of diaphragmatic border, gas-filled structures within the pericardial sac
    • Treatment: Surgical herniorrhaphy if clinically affected. Surgical approach is via a ventral midline celiotomy, which can be extended into a caudal sternotomy if necessary.
    • Prognosis: Favorable

    Esophageal Foreign Bodies

    • Typically younger animals. Bones, rawhides, toys, fishhooks. Most commonly lodge at the thoracic inlet, base of the heart, or near the diaphragm.
    • Diagnosis: Radiographs, contrast studies, esophagoscopy
    • Treatment: Preferable to remove the foreign body endoscopically; if that is not possible, then removal by surgical intervention.
    • Prognosis: Good if esophagus is healthy; if damaged, esophageal stricture can result

    Esophageal Strictures

    • Can be intraluminal or extraluminal compressions
    • Result of many insults, including previous esophageal surgery, esophagitis, or neoplasia.
    • Linked to administration of certain medications (e.g., doxycycline capsules in cats) because of the surface may be necrotic.

    Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)

    • Predisposed breeds include dogs with deep chests and narrow waists
    • First-degree relative with a history of GDV is a risk factor
    • History: Typically, acute onset of vomiting, which can be either productive or non productive, lethargy, abdominal pain, apprehension, ptyalism. May coincide with recent exercise after a meal but not consistently.
    • Diagnosis: Clinical picture of acute onset of cardiovascular compromise in a previously healthy dog of classic conformation is supportive of the diagnosis. May have distended abdomen, but possibly not, because the dilated stomach may lie completely recessed under the ribs and not be palpable. Radiographs are useful for diagnosis, with the right lateral radiograph typically showing the classic signs of gastric compartmentalization ("double bubble") and gastric malposition.
    • Treatment: Stabilization is of paramount importance. Several large-bore intravenous (IV) catheters should be placed in the patient. The catheters should not be placed in the hindlimbs, as blood from the caudal portions of the body is not typically reaching the heart effectively. Often in obstructive shock and should have intravascular resuscitation performed immediately with either crystalloids or colloids or a combination. Can also have respiratory compromise because of a large stomach decreasing thoracic expansion for respiration and may benefit from oxygen supplementation. Gastric decompression should also be attempted. A large-bore needle and tubing should be placed into the stomach to decompress the stomach (or other organs) and allow drainage of the abdominal fluid with concurrent blood values.
    • Causes: Most commonly due to a ruptured viscous. GI rupture is the most common cause in dogs and cats. Other causes would be rupture of an infected level of the biliary system, rupture of an area of the urogenital tract, penetrating wound seeding the abdomen, iatrogenic in a postoperative patient.
    • Treatment: Medical stabilization such as IV fluid support, antibiotics based on bacterial identification or empirical selection based on suspected pathogen, identification of the cause of the septic peritonitis, surgical exploration of the abdominal cavity, and repair or removal of damaged organs.
    • Postoperative care: Cardiac rhythm abnormalities are common in patients with this disease. The most common arrhythmia is the occurrence of premature ventricular contractions, which can occur preoperatively, intraoperatively, or postoperatively. Interventional cues and treatments are covered elsewhere.
    • Prognosis: Good with early identification and aggressive therapy. Negative prognostic factors include the presence of gastric necrosis and a blood lactate greater than 6 mmol/L at admission. Recurrence is exceedingly rare with an appropriate gastropexy.

    Gastric Foreign bodies

    • Presentation: Many will present with vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and a painful abdomen. Severity of clinical signs will vary considerably depending on degree of obstruction, time obstruction has been present, degree of dehydration, and other factors.
    • Diagnosis: History of a missing toy or household item; vomiting may be severe. Other potential causes include enteritis (viral, bacterial), recent surgery, or trauma. German shepherd dogs may be predisposed.

    Intussusception

    • History: Vomiting, diarrhea, may have blood in stool. Abdominal pain. May have an acute or chronic history, as some intussusceptions may be present for a considerable time before they are diagnosed.
    • Diagnosis: May have a palpable mass in the abdomen. Radiographs typically reveal an obstructive intestinal pattern and potentially may reveal a soft tissue mass corresponding to the intussusception. Abdominal ultrasound is useful in the diagnosis of an intussusception. Occasionally, the intussusceptum migrates completely through the colon and can be seen protruding from the anus. These must be differentiated from a rectal prolapse via probing between the protruding organ and the anus itself.
    • Treatment: Surgical correction. During surgery, the bowel should be inspected. If the intussusceptum is viable, it can be reduced. If the lining of the intussusceptum is nonviable, the affected section of the bowel must be resected and anastomosis performed to correct the issue. During the procedure, the surgeon should assess the viability of the bowel by performing the following:
      • (1) Color: Should be a healthy pink
      • (2) Pulses
      • (3) Palpation: Viable tissue should not be overly thin and friable
      • (4) Bleeds on cut surface: Can be misleading, and correct interpretation is critical.
    • Prevent recurrence via gastropexy. Many different techniques exist, and the choice is based largely on surgeon preference. The gastropexy should create a permanent adhesion between the patient's abdominal body wall and pyloric antrum. This means that the gastropexy should be performed on the patient's right side. Described techniques include incisional, belt-loop, circumcostal, gastrocolopexy, and tube gastrostomy.

    Cricopharyngeal Achalasia

    • Disorder of swallowing where food bolus that has formed in the mouth is not allowed to enter the esophagus because of failure of the cricopharyngeal muscle to relax during swallowing.
    • Springer and cocker spaniels are predisposed.
    • Typically diagnosed at weaning.
    • Diagnosis: Clinical signs, dynamic contrast studies of the patient swallowing
    • Treatment: Cricopharyngeal myectomy
    • Prognosis: Guarded to fair

    Hiatal Hernia

    • Protrusion of the abdominal portion of the esophagus as well as potentially portions of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm into the caudal portion of the thorax.
    • Shar-peis and brachycephalic breeds are predisposed.
    • Diagnosis: Radiographs, but the condition can be dynamic and so can have normal radiographs and a hiatal hernia still be present.
    • Treatment: Medical management with H2 blockers, gastroprotectants.

    Body Cavities and Hernias

    • The abdominal cavity - most commonly accessed through a ventral midline incision
    • The holding layer of the abdomen is the external rectus fascia
    • It is imperative that this layer is included in abdominal closures
    • Hernias:
      • Umbilical hernia:
        • Congenital defect, possibly heritable
        • Typically asymptomatic
        • Can have visceral entrapment
        • Surgical closure of the hernia is herniorrhaphy
      • Inguinal hernia:
        • Much more common in intact males
        • Typically due to the failure of the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm
        • abdominal organs escape, most commonly omentum, resulting in a swelling in the perineal region
        • Herniorrhaphy with an internal obturator roll-up technique is the treatment
        • Concurrent castration is usually recommended
      • Perineal hernia:
        • Often associated with androgen hormones, increased incidence in intact males
        • failure of the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm allows abdominal organs to escape
        • Omentum is most commonly entrapped
        • Typically presents with:
          • Tenesmus
          • Dyschezia
          • Diarrhea
          • Fluctuant, nonpainful swelling in the perineal region
        • Can be unilateral or bilateral
        • Can become an emergency if the bladder becomes entrapped
        • Diagnosis is typically clinical; rectal examination helps
        • Herniorrhaphy with an internal obturator roll-up technique is the treatment
      • Diaphragmatic hernia:
        • Can be traumatic or congenital
        • Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia is the most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia
        • Often presents in cats and dogs
        • Can be asymptomatic or cause problems
        • Should be considered in the differential diagnosis of cutaneous or subcutaneous masses

    Surgical Diseases of the Respiratory Tract

    • Diseases of the upper respiratory tract:
      • Brachycephalic airway syndrome:
        • Seen in brachycephalic breeds due to conformational anatomy of head and nose
        • Components:
          • Stenotic nares
          • Elongated soft palate
          • Everted Laryngeal Saccules
          • Laryngeal Collapse (in some dogs)
        • English bulldogs can also have a congenitally hypoplastic trachea
        • Signs:
          • Progressive inspiratory dyspnea
          • Decreased tolerance to exercise
          • Collapse

    Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract

    • Diseases of the lower respiratory tract:
      • Laryngeal paralysis:
        • Can be congenital or acquired
        • Congenital form occurs in Siberian Husky, Bouvier des Flanders, Dalmatian, Bull Terrier and Rottweiler
        • Acquired form is much more common and typically affects large-breed middle-aged to older dogs
        • Labrador Retrievers are overrepresented
        • Caused by dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
        • Almost always bilateral in dogs with clinical signs
        • Signs:
          • Inspiratory stridor
          • Change in phonation
          • Coughing
          • Exercise intolerance
          • Collapse
          • Cyanosis
        • Can be linked to other diseases:
          • Myasthenia Gravis
          • Polyneuropathy
          • Polymyopathy
          • Neoplasia in the mediastinum or neck
          • Trauma
          • Hypothyroidism
        • Oxygen supplementation, IV access, active cooling, sedatives, and possibly steroids can be helpful in severe compromise

    Gastric Entrapment

    • A condition where the stomach herniates through the diaphragm, usually the liver is the most common organ that herniates
    • Diagnosed by a "double bubble" on radiographs
    • Can be caused by trauma, congenital diaphragmatic hernia or other conditions
    • Treatment: mechanical ventilation needed during surgery
    • Stabilization: Stabilize the patient before surgery, especially if they have acute respiratory decompensation due to gastric distention
    • Surgery: Correction is done through a ventral midline celiotomy, sometimes extended into a caudal sternotomy
    • Placement: The herniated organs are gently placed back into the abdomen
    • Prognosis: Good with successful removal and clean margins, guarded to poor with invasive tumors or metastases

    Mast Cell Tumors

    • Most common cutaneous malignancy in dogs, all grades are considered malignant
    • Grading: Grade 1, 2, and 3, higher grades are more aggressive and anaplastic
    • Location: Typically in the skin, but can also be in bone marrow or internal organs (liver, spleen, GI tract)
    • Cats: Typically benign, more common on the head and neck, visceral involvement in cats is malignant
    • Signalment: Predisposition in certain breeds (Boxers, Pugs, Boston Terriers), usually middle-aged or older
    • Prognosis: Poor in dogs, usually better than appendicular osteosarcoma

    Epulides

    • Most common type of benign oral tumors
    • Types: Acanthomatous (most common), fibromatous, and ossifying
    • Origin: Arise from the periodontal ligament
    • Treatment: Excision or radiation therapy

    Ameloblastoma

    • Benign tumor that arises from the dental lamina
    • Patient: Young dogs

    Oral Papillomatosis

    • Benign process, usually in younger dogs
    • Cause: Viral
    • Appearance: Multiple gray masses on the gingiva or buccal mucosa
    • Treatment: Usually regresses spontaneously and no surgical intervention is needed

    Cleft Palate

    • Brachycephalic dogs and Siamese cats are predisposed
    • Diagnosis: Often at birth, may manifest as difficulty nursing, milk coming from nostril, pneumonia, small stature, or failure to thrive
    • Types: Primary cleft (lip and premaxilla - harelip), Secondary cleft (hard and soft palate)
    • Imaging: Radiographs are useful for diagnosis
    • Treatment: Surgical correction is usually necessary for proper feeding and to prevent health complications

    Cesarean Section

    • Indications: Dystocia (no birth after 30 minutes of strong contractions, weaker contractions for 2 hours, no birth for 4 hours, retained baby in the vulva, toxicity, or fetal distress)
    • Procedure: Surgical emergency, traditional approach followed by hysterotomy to access puppies/kittens
    • Causes: Maternal factors (uterine inertia, abnormal vaginal conformation, decreased pelvic size), fetal factors (large head, fetal monsters, malposition)
    • Breech: Normal for puppies/kittens to be born in breech position
    • Prevalence: More common in small and brachycephalic breeds

    Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome

    • Breeds: Seen in brachycephalic breeds due to their head and nose conformation
    • Components: Stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, and in some cases hypoplastic trachea
    • Signs: Progressive inspiratory dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance, collapse
    • Diagnosis: Often clinical, chest radiographs are needed to examine for hypoplastic trachea
    • Treatment: Surgical correction of each component is usually necessary

    Polyps in the Tympanic Bulla

    • Common: More common in Abyssinian cats
    • History: May have a history of chronic upper respiratory infections
    • Signs: Clinical signs like vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and painful abdomen
    • Diagnosis: Radiographs may show material in the tympanic bulla
    • Treatment: Removal via ventral bulla osteotomy, recurrence rate is low (<2%)

    Laryngeal Paralysis

    • More common in dogs than cats
    • Types: Congenital form (rare, seen in specific breeds - Siberian Husky, Bouvier des Flanders, Dalmatian, Bull Terrier)
    • Acquired form: Much more common, usually in large breed, middle-aged to older dogs, Labrador Retrievers are overrepresented
    • Cause: Dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, usually bilateral in dogs with clinical signs
    • Signs: Inspiratory stridor, change in phonation, coughing, exercise intolerance, collapse, cyanosis
    • Associated conditions: Can be associated with other diseases like myasthenia gravis, polyneuropathy, polymyopathy, mediastinal/neck neoplasia, trauma, hypothyroidism
    • Treatment: Oxygen supplementation, IV access, active cooling, sedatives, and steroids can help

    Gastric Dilatation Volvulus (GDV)

    • A life-threatening condition characterized by dilation and torsion of the stomach.
    • Causes: Rapid filling of the stomach with food or water leading to increased abdominal pressure.
    • Clinical Signs: Vomiting, acute onset of cardiovascular compromise, distended abdomen (may not be palpable).
    • Diagnosis: Clinical signs in a dog with predisposing conformation.
    • Treatment:
      • Immediate stabilization: Oxygen therapy, fluid therapy, correction of electrolyte imbalances, and gastric decompression.
      • Gastric decompression:
        • Orogastric tube: Helps remove gas and fluid buildup in the stomach.
        • Trocarization: Surgical puncture into the stomach to relieve pressure.
        • Temporary gastrostomy: Used in rare instances where other decompression methods have failed.
      • Surgery:
        • Reposition stomach: Correcting the torsion.
        • Assess tissue viability: Removing any necrotic or questionable tissue.
          • Tissue color: Pink and red are acceptable, dark tissue is not.
          • Pulses: Palpation of the tissue,
          • Tissue bleeding: Can be misleading,
        • Prevent recurrence: Gastropexy (surgical fixation) to prevent the stomach from twisting again.

    Diaphragmatic Hernia

    • Occurs when a tear in the diaphragm allows abdominal organs to migrate into the chest cavity.
    • Causes: Trauma, most commonly motor vehicle accidents.
    • Clinical Signs: Shock, Dyspnea, tachypnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, dull heart and lung sounds, abdominal component to breathing, "deflated" abdomen.
    • Treatment:
      • Immediate stabilization: Oxygen therapy, fluid therapy, and cardiovascular support.
      • Surgery:
        • Repair the tear in the diaphragm.
        • Place a thoracostomy tube to allow for removal of air from the chest cavity.
    • Prognosis: Good in stable patients.

    Portosystemic Shunts

    • Abnormal vascular connections between the portal vein and systemic circulation.
    • Causes: Congenital defects or acquired due to liver disease.
    • Types: Extrahepatic (more common; single vessels) and Intrahepatic (multiple vessels).
    • Clinical Signs: Vary depending on the age of onset and the size of the shunt. Can include neurologic signs, gastrointestinal signs, and growth retardation.
      • Neurological signs: Blindness, ptyalism, seizures.
      • Gastrointestinal signs: Vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, abdominal distention.
    • Risk Factors: Small-breed dogs and Yorkshire terriers, Pugs, Poodles, Labrador retrievers, and Irish Wolfhounds.
    • Diagnosis:
      • Abdominal radiographs: May show a small liver and enlarged kidneys.
      • Abdominal ultrasound: Can help determine the location and morphology of the shunt.
      • Serum bile acids: Usually elevated in dogs with portosystemic shunts.
    • Treatment:
      • Surgical correction: Closing or narrowing the shunt.
      • Medical management: Diet and medications to reduce ammonia levels.

    Canine Integumentary Wound Healing

    • Phases of healing:
      • Inflammatory phase: Immediately after the wound is created, with redness, swelling, pain, and heat.
      • Debridement phase: The body removes damaged or necrotic tissue.
      • Repair phase: New tissue is formed.
      • Maturation phase: The newly formed tissue strengthens and matures.

    Canine Prostate Disease

    • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): Enlargement of the prostate due to hormonal stimulation.
      • Risk Factors: Intact male dogs.
      • Clinical Signs: May interfere with urination or defecation.
      • Diagnosis: Rectal examination reveals an enlarged and firm prostate gland.
      • Treatment: Castration (most effective) or estrogen therapy.
    • Prostatic abscesses: Infection and inflammation of the prostate gland.
      • Clinical Signs: Enlarged and painful prostate, fever.
      • Diagnosis: Rectal examination reveals an enlarged and painful prostate gland.
      • Treatment: Surgery to drain the abscess and antibiotics.
    • Cryptorchidism: Absence of one or both testicles in the scrotum.
      • Risk Factors: Genetic predisposition.
      • Clinical Signs: Typically none, but may affect hormonal development.
      • Treatment: Surgical removal of the undescended testicle.

    Canine Ovarian and Uterine Diseases

    • Cystic ovarian remnant: Residual ovarian tissue left behind after ovariohysterectomy.
      • Clinical Signs: Estrus behavior after spaying.
      • Diagnosis: Clinical signs, hormone assays, and abdominal ultrasound.
      • Treatment: Surgical removal of the remnant.
    • Ovarian tumors: Rare in dogs due to early spaying.
    • Cystic endometrial hyperplasia or pyometra complex: Inflammatory condition of the uterus.
      • Causes: High levels of progesterone during diestrus.
      • Clinical Signs: Vulvar discharge, lethargy, vomiting, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal distention.
      • Diagnosis: Clinical signs and ultrasound.
      • Treatment: Surgical removal of the uterus.

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    Soft Tissue Surgery PDF

    Description

    This quiz explores key concepts in veterinary soft tissue surgery, including histiocytoma, esophageal conditions, oral tumors in dogs and cats, and gastric dilatation-volvulus syndrome. Test your knowledge on diagnosis, treatment options, and clinical presentations associated with these critical medical conditions in veterinary practice.

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