Discovering Aviation: Private Pilot Training
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the FAA in aviation?

  • Managing all airport operations and hiring air traffic controllers.
  • Governing flight training and issuing Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs). (correct)
  • Providing weather forecasts and airport maintenance services.
  • Manufacturing aircraft and developing new aviation technologies.

An FBO typically provides which combination of services to pilots?

  • Air traffic control, weather briefings, and navigational charts.
  • Legal assistance, medical certifications, and flight planning software.
  • Aircraft rental, fueling, maintenance, and pilot supplies. (correct)
  • Pilot licensing, aviation insurance, and aircraft sales.

In what order are these flight training stages typically accomplished?

  • Basic Cross-Country, Emergency Procedures, Pre-Solo Training
  • Pre-Solo Training, Basic Cross-Country, Advanced Cross-Country (correct)
  • Pre-Solo Training, Night Flying, Basic Maneuvers
  • Advanced Cross-Country, Pre-Solo Training, Basic Cross-Country

Why is standardized communication preferred by air traffic control (ATC)?

<p>It reduces ambiguity and enhances clarity in critical communications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During flight training, at which stage would a student pilot likely begin practicing emergency procedures and crosswinds?

<p>Stage 1, Pre-Solo Training. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student arrives at 7:00 am for ground school. What is the best course of action, according to the provided information?

<p>Wait until 8:30 am when the main Avian doors open. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Avian ground school's stage and final exams?

<p>To prepare students for the FAA Private Pilot Knowledge Test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary source of information for students in this ground school?

<p>Jeppesen Training Kit (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gate code to enter via the ramp gate?

<p>12305 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a student wants clarification on a complex topic during the ground school session, what action should they take?

<p>Raise their hand and ask the instructor immediately. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum passing score for the final exams in the Avian ground school?

<p>80% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides in-person attendance, what other options are available for attending the ground school classes?

<p>Zoom Live and Zoom Recording. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a student do if they arrive when main Avian doors are locked?

<p>Knock on classroom windows. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student pilot is using BasicMed instead of a traditional FAA medical certificate. After how long of holding at least a 3rd class medical certificate can they switch to BasicMed?

<p>After 2 years of holding at least a 3rd class medical. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the first step in the Private Pilot Certification process, assuming a Part 141 ground school?

<p>Passing the FAA Written Exam after Ground School &quot;Graduation&quot;. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student is preparing for the oral component of the FAA Practical Test (Checkride). Which of the following best describes the nature of this component?

<p>It's an &quot;open book&quot;-ish assessment, allowing reference materials. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum passing score on the FAA written exam?

<p>70% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For students in a Part 141 program, what is the minimum flight training hour requirement?

<p>35 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student pilot fails the FAA written exam three times. What is MOST LIKELY the next step they should take?

<p>Seek additional instruction and a new endorsement before retaking the exam. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically covered during the ground school learning stages?

<p>Flight Training Maneuvers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a suitable tool for navigation and flight planning?

<p>E6B Flight Computer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly identifies both a category and a class of aircraft, according to pilot certification standards?

<p>Airplane, Single-Engine Land (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the FAA, what three features define a complex airplane?

<p>Retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary requirement for a pilot to act as Pilot in Command (PIC) of a high-performance airplane?

<p>Receiving ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses your logbook. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot wants to fly an aircraft requiring a specific endorsement. What is the general procedure to obtain this endorsement?

<p>Receive instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses the pilot's logbook. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the endorsement required to operate a high-performance aircraft?

<p>An instructor's sign-off after ground and flight training, specific to high-performance operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot with a commercial pilot certificate seeks to operate a tailwheel aircraft. What specific action, if any, must they take?

<p>They need to receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor proficient in tailwheel operations and receive an endorsement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the consequence for a pilot who acts as PIC in a complex airplane without the required logbook endorsement?

<p>The pilot may face legal and insurance repercussions in case of an incident or accident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot receives instruction for operating a high-performance aircraft, but the instructor does not provide a logbook endorsement. Can the pilot legally act as PIC of that aircraft?

<p>No, the logbook endorsement is a mandatory requirement to act as PIC. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot plans to fly at 9,000 feet MSL after scuba diving. Following the recommendations, what is the minimum waiting period before flying after a non-decompression stop dive?

<p>At least 24 hours. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should pilots be aware of the potential impact of dental work on their fitness for flight?

<p>Pressure changes during flight can cause pain or discomfort related to dental issues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the recommended waiting period before ascending to below 8,000 feet MSL after a decompression stop dive?

<p>At least 24 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the recommendation that pilots avoid fixating on any single instrument or task during flight?

<p>To maintain awareness of the overall flight situation and avoid missing critical information. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it emphasized that altitude above you, fuel already burned and runway behind you are 'useless'?

<p>They represent resources that have been consumed and cannot be recovered if needed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the text highlight, 'Whatever you don’t notice, you can’t account for'?

<p>It highlights the need to be aware of potential hazards and changes in the environment or aircraft status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot experiences a minor ear blockage during descent. What immediate action is recommended based on the content?

<p>Take necessary actions to clear the blockage and consider the potential impact on fitness for flight. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to 'Aviators' Best Practices', what does 'Fly every flight like it’s your checkride' primarily emphasize?

<p>Adhering strictly to regulations and procedures on every flight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates effective Crew Resource Management (CRM) in a multi-pilot environment?

<p>The first officer identifies a potential weather hazard and proactively communicates it to the captain, who then adjusts the flight plan accordingly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is preparing for a solo cross-country flight. Using the 5P model for Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM), which aspect relates most directly to evaluating aircraft airworthiness?

<p>Plane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot relies heavily on automation during a flight. Under what condition is this most likely to increase risk, requiring careful resource management?

<p>During complex, rapidly changing situations where the pilot may become overwhelmed or lose situational awareness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario exemplifies the most effective application of the 'IM SAFE' checklist before a flight?

<p>A pilot thoroughly reviews each item on the checklist, acknowledging a recent lack of sleep and deciding to postpone the flight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is diverting to an alternate airport due to unexpected mechanical issues. Which action demonstrates the best use of aeronautical decision-making (ADM) in this situation?

<p>Thoroughly assessing the suitability of the alternate airport, considering factors such as runway length, weather conditions, and available services. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of both Crew Resource Management (CRM) and Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)?

<p>To promote the efficient use of all available resources to ensure a safe and successful flight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can proficient workload management most effectively mitigate the risk of Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)?

<p>By strategically distributing tasks, delegating when possible, and proactively managing the flight path to maintain situational awareness. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot encounters unexpected icing conditions during flight. Which of the following courses of action demonstrates the best application of resource management?

<p>Activating de-icing equipment (if available), altering course/altitude to escape icing, and communicating the situation to ATC. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a shimmy damper contribute to aircraft operation?

<p>By preventing rapid oscillations of the nose or main landing gear. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the regulatory nature of Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

<p>ADs are legally enforceable rules that must be complied with to maintain aircraft airworthiness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the acronym AV1ATE, what does the 'A' stand for in the context of required aircraft inspections?

<p>ADs (Airworthiness Directives) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If an aircraft has a placard stating 'Pilot AD compliance required', what does this typically indicate?

<p>Specific Airworthiness Directives require pilot action before flight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft owner discovers an Airworthiness Directive (AD) applicable to their aircraft. What is their responsibility regarding compliance?

<p>The owner must ensure compliance with the AD and maintain records in the aircraft's maintenance logbooks. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, what is the primary function of adjusting the propeller control?

<p>To maintain a selected engine RPM by varying the propeller blade angle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During cruise flight in an aircraft with a constant-speed propeller, a pilot would typically select a 'course' pitch primarily to:

<p>Decrease fuel consumption and increase airspeed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of an ammeter reading below zero during flight?

<p>The battery is not receiving a charge from the alternator. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary difference between an ammeter and a loadmeter in an aircraft's electrical system?

<p>An ammeter indicates whether the alternator is charging the battery, while a loadmeter measures the alternator's electrical output. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of circuit breakers and fuses in an aircraft electrical system?

<p>To protect electrical circuits from damage due to excessive current. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Density Altitude (DA) primarily affect aircraft performance?

<p>It alters the engine's horsepower output and aerodynamic efficiency of the aircraft. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft is approaching to land with flaps extended. According to the airspeed indicator, what speed must not be exceeded?

<p>VFE (Maximum flaps extended speed) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between Indicated Airspeed (IAS) and Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?

<p>CAS is IAS corrected for instrument and installation errors; they are equal if there are no errors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between True Airspeed (TAS) and Ground Speed?

<p>TAS is the actual speed through the air, while Ground Speed is the speed over the ground, accounting for wind. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following speeds will change with variations in aircraft weight?

<p>VA (Maneuvering Speed) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for a pilot to understand the color-coded arcs on the airspeed indicator?

<p>They provide visual references for critical airspeed limitations for safe aircraft operation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot notices a discrepancy between the indicated altitude and the surveyed field elevation. What type of altitude error is this most likely related to?

<p>Instrument error causing inaccurate Indicated Altitude (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a high-altitude flight on a hot day, which type of altitude is most useful for determining aircraft performance?

<p>Density Altitude, because of its effect on engine and aerodynamic performance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft's tachometer becomes inoperative during flight, and the pilot wants to continue to the destination. What is the most appropriate course of action, assuming no MEL exists for the aircraft?

<p>Proceed to the nearest suitable airport for repairs, referencing 14 CFR 91.213 to assess the impact of the inoperative equipment on the flight's safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot discovers that the aircraft's landing light is inoperative prior to a night flight for hire. According to regulations, what action should the pilot take?

<p>The flight cannot be conducted for hire at night until the landing light is repaired, as per VFR night requirements outlined in 14 CFR 91.205. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If an aircraft does not possess a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), and a piece of equipment is found to be inoperative during preflight, what is the pilot's next best course of action after checking 14 CFR 91.213?

<p>Determine if the aircraft has a Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL) in the POH and refer to it. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot plans to fly a civil aircraft under VFR during the day. What is the operational impact if the aircraft's anti-collision light system is inoperative?

<p>The flight cannot proceed until the anti-collision light system is repaired, as it's required for all civil aircraft flights during both day and night. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You discover that the oil temperature gauge on your air-cooled engine is inoperative before a VFR day flight. Assuming your aircraft does NOT have an MEL, can you legally fly?

<p>No, operation is prohibited unless the gauge is repaired or the flight is conducted under a special flight permit. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft's Pilot Operating Handbook (POH) contains a Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL) that specifies equipment required for different types of operations. If a piece of equipment not listed on the KOEL becomes inoperative, what should the pilot do?

<p>Treat the equipment as required if listed in 14 CFR 91.205, and follow the procedures in 14 CFR 91.213 for inoperative equipment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A certificated pilot flying a small GA aircraft notices that its magnetic compass is 45 degrees off, what should he/she do?

<p>Discontinue the flight until the magnetic compass is properly calibrated or repaired, because it is required for VFR flight under 14 CFR 91.205 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should pilots consult 14 CFR 25.791 & 14 CFR 23.1557?

<p>To understand where the placards should be located and what information they contain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft's altimeter is set to 29.92 in.Hg. After landing at an airport, the pilot notes the current altimeter setting is 30.12 in.Hg but forgets to adjust the altimeter. If the field elevation is 1,500 feet MSL, what will the altimeter indicate?

<p>1,300 feet MSL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the saying 'High to Low = Look out below', what is the primary implication for pilots?

<p>Flying from an area of high pressure to low pressure without adjusting the altimeter will result in a lower indicated altitude than actual altitude. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a fundamental principle by which gyroscopic instruments operate?

<p>Rigidity in space and precession (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action is recommended regarding the heading indicator during flight, and why?

<p>Align it with the magnetic compass approximately every 15 minutes to correct for precession errors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which instruments are typically powered or reliant on the vacuum system in older aircraft?

<p>Attitude Indicator and Heading Indicator. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a coordinated turn, where should the ball be located in the turn coordinator?

<p>Centered. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information does the turn coordinator primarily provide to the pilot?

<p>Rate of turn and coordination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a standard rate turn equate to in degrees per second, as indicated by the turn coordinator?

<p>3 degrees per second (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between rate of turn and bank angle in maintaining a coordinated turn at a constant airspeed?

<p>A higher airspeed requires a greater bank angle for a standard rate turn. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot begins a coordinated right turn from a heading of 090 degrees. If their location is near Bremerton (48°N latitude), approximately what heading should the pilot begin rolling out of the turn to accurately reach a heading of North (360°)?

<p>050 degrees (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While flying on a heading of south and initiating a turn to the west in the Northern Hemisphere, what is the initial indication on a magnetic compass due to turning error?

<p>The compass will momentarily lead, showing a faster turn to the west. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions will result in the most accurate magnetic compass heading indication?

<p>In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a standard rate turn correspond to, and how can a pilot recognize it using flight instruments?

<p>3 degrees per second, indicated by a standard needle width deflection on the turn coordinator. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While on an easterly heading, a pilot experiences acceleration. According to the ANDS principle, how will this acceleration initially affect the magnetic compass reading in the Northern Hemisphere?

<p>The compass will indicate a turn towards the north. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the aircraft deviation card, and how should a pilot use it?

<p>It provides headings to steer to compensate for compass errors caused by the aircraft's magnetic fields. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot turns from a heading of 030 to 360. According to the magnetic compass turning errors, will he or she have to overshoot or undershoot and why?

<p>The pilot will undershoot due to the effects of UNOS. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, what is the relationship between lift, weight, thrust, and drag?

<p>The four forces are in equilibrium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, how does air striking the underside of an airplane wing contribute to lift?

<p>Air striking below the wing pushes the wing upward. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What force opposes thrust?

<p>Drag (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If an object is in motion, what does Newton's First Law of Motion state about its tendency?

<p>It will remain in motion with the same velocity unless acted upon by an external force. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of aerodynamics, which force is defined as the downward pull toward the Earth?

<p>Weight (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aerodynamic force opposes weight?

<p>Lift (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the forward force that propels an aircraft through the air?

<p>Thrust (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Newton's Second Law of Motion (F=ma), how can a bullet and a bulldozer potentially have the same force?

<p>If the bullet has significant acceleration and the bulldozer has a high mass. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between indicated airspeed and altitude regarding stall speed?

<p>The indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls remains the same regardless of altitude. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between angle of attack (AOA) and stall?

<p>Stalls always occur at the same AOA regardless of airspeed, weight, or flight attitude. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft wing stalls when:

<p>there is insufficient lift produced to overcome the force of weight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Up to what point will increasing the angle of attack (AOA) increase lift?

<p>Until the maximum coefficient of lift (CLMAX) is reached which is the critical AOA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical angle of attack (AOA)?

<p>The angle at which the aircraft's stall always occurs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does airflow behave as an aircraft nears its critical angle of attack?

<p>Airflow begins to separate from the top of the wing, starting at the rear. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does airflow behave when an aircraft is beyond its critical angle of attack?

<p>Airflow completely separates from the top of the wing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common method for pilots to determine the approximate stall point in a Cessna 172?

<p>Indicated airspeed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does an aircraft's high-lift device have on flight?

<p>Reduces the thrust required to produce lift, allowing takeoff at a lower speed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are changes in airspeed typically used to control lift during flight?

<p>By adjusting the power setting to increase or decrease lift. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Bernoulli's Principle, what is the relationship between the velocity and pressure of a fluid?

<p>As velocity increases, pressure decreases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between an aircraft's Center of Gravity (CG) and the Center of Lift (CL) for optimal longitudinal stability?

<p>The CG should be located forward of the CL. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the lift equation L = CL x ½pv² x S, what does 'v' represent, and how does it affect lift?

<p>Velocity; faster airspeed generates more lift, proportionally to the square. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased thrust affect the Tail Down Force (TDF) and Angle of Attack (AOA) in an aircraft?

<p>More thrust increases the TDF, leading to a higher AOA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Tail Down Force (TDF) in maintaining longitudinal stability?

<p>To provide an opposing force to the CG, keeping the aircraft balanced. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action must a pilot take to maintain the same amount of lift if airspeed decreases, assuming no other factors change?

<p>Increase the angle of attack (AOA). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a longitudinally stable aircraft tend to do after being displaced from its trimmed angle of attack (AOA)?

<p>Return to its trimmed AOA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors, when increased, would cause an increase in air density?

<p>Pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the shape of the wing, specifically the curve of the wing's upper surface, contribute to lift generation according to Bernoulli’s principle?

<p>It increases air velocity, decreasing pressure above the wing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between the Center of Lift (CL), also known as Center of Pressure (CP), and the aircraft's balance?

<p>The Center of Lift is an imaginary point where the aircraft would balance if suspended. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Around which of the aircraft axes does longitudinal stability act?

<p>Lateral axis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the lift equation $L = C_L \times \frac{1}{2}pv^2 \times S$, which variable is LEAST likely to be directly controlled by the pilot during flight?

<p>$p$ (Air Density) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot increases the angle of attack during a constant altitude turn. What is the expected effect, if any, on the stall speed?

<p>Stall speed will increase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is understanding both Bernoulli's Principle and Newton's Third Law important for pilots in comprehending lift?

<p>Lift is a result of both: Bernoulli's Principle explains pressure differences, while Newton's 3rd Law explains downwash and reaction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes positive static stability in an aircraft?

<p>The aircraft tends to return to its original position after being disturbed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does propwash contribute to adverse yaw in propeller aircraft?

<p>By pushing the tail right &amp; swinging the nose left. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between maneuverability and controllability?

<p>Maneuverability is about how easily an aircraft can be maneuvered and withstand stress, while controllability is about the aircraft's response to control inputs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft stalls when exceeding critical AOA because:

<p>The airflow separates from the wing's upper surface, disrupting lift. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft's directional stability primarily comes from:

<p>The vertical stabilizer, as it acts like a weather vane. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of dynamic stability?

<p>The aircraft oscillates after being disturbed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft experiencing neutral static stability will:

<p>Maintain a constant attitude after being disturbed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes secondary stalls?

<p>Continuing to fly at an insufficient airspeed for the AOA after initial stall recovery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft weighing 3,000 lbs is in a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude. Using the Load Factor Chart, approximately how much weight is the aircraft's structure required to support?

<p>4,200 lbs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between an aircraft's weight and its maneuvering speed ($V_A$)?

<p>$V_A$ decreases with decreasing weight. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 'Limit Load Factor' represent?

<p>The maximum load factor an aircraft can withstand before structural damage or failure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An aircraft is flying above its maneuvering speed ($V_A$). What potential risk exists if the pilot makes abrupt control movements?

<p>The aircraft's airframe could be overstressed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the load factor experienced by an aircraft in flight?

<p>Load factor increases as angle of bank increases if altitude is maintained. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can an aircraft roll to a 90° angle of bank (AOB) without increasing the load factor?

<p>When the pilot does not try to maintain altitude by pulling back on the yoke. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the load factor on an aircraft in level flight at a 0° angle of bank?

<p>1.0 G (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot reduces the weight of an aircraft. What adjustments should the pilot expect to make during flight, considering maneuvering speed ($V_A$)?

<p>Reduce $V_A$ because the aircraft is more susceptible to gusts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot flying in an area with radar coverage requests traffic advisories. What type of service is the pilot requesting from ATC?

<p>Assistance with avoiding potential traffic conflicts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would ATC most likely issue a safety alert to an aircraft?

<p>The aircraft is observed to be in close proximity to terrain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)?

<p>To continuously broadcast recorded non-control airport information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is approaching an airport without an operating control tower. Which radio frequency should the pilot primarily use for self-announcing their position and intentions?

<p>The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) designated for that airport. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After experiencing complete radio failure in flight, a pilot decides to continue the flight to the planned destination within controlled airspace. What is the pilot's most appropriate initial action upon approaching the destination airport?

<p>Squawk 7600 and proceed with a normal approach, expecting ATC to provide light gun signals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which resource provides non-regulatory guidance on recommended ATC procedures and basic flight information?

<p>Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a pilot wants to understand the legal definition of a specific aviation term, where should they look?

<p>FAR Part 1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which FAR Part outlines the requirements for pilot certification, including ratings and endorsements?

<p>FAR Part 61 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A certificated pilot is considering performing a preventative aircraft maintenance task. According to regulations, which FAR provides information on whether this is permissible?

<p>FAR Part 43 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A commercial pilot is wondering what documents that make up a flight, may be requested by law enforcement or other officials. Where could he find a list of the general operating and flight rules?

<p>FAR Part 91 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the 'IDENT' feature on an aircraft transponder?

<p>To temporarily highlight the aircraft's radar return on ATC displays for identification purposes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should a pilot select the 'ALT' mode on the transponder?

<p>Anytime the aircraft is in operation to allow ATC to see your altitude. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is instructed by ATC to 'Squawk VFR'. Which transponder code should the pilot enter?

<p>1200 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'ADS-B Out' primarily provide to ATC and other aircraft?

<p>The aircraft's GPS location, altitude, ground speed, including a unique aircraft ID. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit of ADS-B 'In' for pilots?

<p>ADS-B In provides traffic information (TIS-B), NOTAMs (FIS-B), &amp; weather (FIS-B). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Above FL180 in the United States, which ADS-B frequency is mandatory?

<p>1090 ES (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the 'FUNC' key on a transponder?

<p>To switch from the default screen to screens displaying Pressure Altitude, GPS, Flight ID, or Brightness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot receives the instruction 'Stop Altitude Squawk' from ATC. What action should the pilot take?

<p>Turn off the automatic altitude reporting feature (ALT) of your transponder. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If ATC advises "Traffic 3 o'clock, 5 miles, eastbound" while you are heading north, where should you look?

<p>Directly to your right. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While flying on a heading of 180°, ATC reports "Traffic 9 o'clock, 3 miles, northbound." In what direction should you look for the traffic?

<p>East (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

ATC issues a traffic advisory: "Traffic 12 o'clock, 10 miles, westbound." If you are flying a heading of 090°, where should you primarily focus your scanning?

<p>Directly ahead (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are flying on a heading of 000°. ATC states, "Traffic 2 o'clock, 7 miles, eastbound." Where should you look?

<p>The Southwest quadrant. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On a heading of 090°, ATC advises, "Traffic 11 o'clock, 4 miles, northbound." Which general direction is the traffic relative to your aircraft?

<p>Ahead and to the left. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

ATC issues a traffic advisory stating, "Traffic 6 o'clock, 1 mile, westbound." If your heading is 360°, where is the traffic?

<p>Directly behind you. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are flying a heading of 270 degrees. ATC calls out traffic at "one o'clock, two miles, southbound". Where should you look?

<p>Southwest - between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you are on a heading of 360 degrees and ATC calls out traffic at "10 o'clock, 2 miles, southbound", where should you look?

<p>Northwest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of an Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)?

<p>To control IFR aircraft in controlled airspace during the enroute phase of flight. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)?

<p>Controlling IFR flights within a specified radius of an airport, typically 5-50NM. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a VFR pilot requests flight following from Seattle Approach, what information should the pilot include in the initial call?

<p>Aircraft type, position, altitude, and destination, and request. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit of ADS-B Out for air traffic control?

<p>It transmits line-of-sight signals from aircraft to ATC ground receivers and to other aircraft. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which services are provided under VFR flight following?

<p>Traffic advisories, emergency assistance, and Special Use Airspace (SUA) advisories. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the identifier code for Seattle Center, and how should pilots refer to it in communications?

<p>ZSE; pilots should call them 'Seattle Center'. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a pilot observes another aircraft in close proximity that presents a collision hazard, what services might ATC provide under VFR flight following?

<p>ATC may issue a safety alert to the pilot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the services provided by Approach Control versus Center (ARTCC)?

<p>Approach Control provides sequencing and vectoring for approaches, while Center focuses on enroute traffic separation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is planning a flight and needs to determine if there are any temporary obstructions near the departure airport. Which is the most appropriate resource to consult for this information?

<p>Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is reviewing a NOTAM that includes the identifier '!PWT 01/004'. What does 'PWT' most likely indicate?

<p>The three-letter identifier code for a particular airport. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided content, what is the height reference used for the obstacle height indicated in parenthesis in the obstacle tower NOTAM example?

<p>Height above Ground Level (AGL). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot wants to find information about acceptable methods for complying with a specific Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR). Which publication would be most helpful?

<p>Advisory Circulars (ACs) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can pilots typically access Advisory Circulars (ACs)?

<p>By accessing them online through the FAA website. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot reads a NOTAM stating that a runway lighting system is 'U/S'. What does this abbreviation indicate?

<p>The lighting system is unserviceable or not operating. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pilot is reviewing a braking action NOTAM for an airport. What type of airport information might be contained in the NOTAM?

<p>LAHSO rules. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the example NOTAM, what do the numbers '2301300402-2305012359' represent?

<p>The outage is expected to last from January 30, 2023 until May 01, 2023. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Private Pilot Certificate

A certification allowing you to fly for personal or recreational purposes, not for compensation or hire.

Advanced Ground Instructor (AGI)

Instructor rating that allows one to provide ground instruction.

Instrument Ground Instructor (IGI)

Instructor rating that allows one to provide ground instruction for instrument ratings.

Category Rating

A rating on a pilot certificate that specifies the type of aircraft that can be flown (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft).

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Class Rating

A rating on a pilot certificate that specifies the specific characteristics within a category of aircraft that can be flown (e.g., single-engine land, multi-engine sea).

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Single Engine Land (SEL)

Rating that allows you to fly an airplane with one engine, on land.

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Instrument Rating

An additional rating on a pilot certificate that allows a pilot to fly in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).

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Goal of Ground School

To successfully pass the FAA written exam.

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FAA Manuals and Handbooks

Documents provided by the FAA that contain important information for pilots and aviation professionals

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Nav Plotter

A tool used for measuring distances and directions on aeronautical charts

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E6B Flight Computer (Whiz Wheel)

A circular slide rule used in aviation for flight planning calculations, like time, distance, and fuel consumption

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Sectional Chart

A detailed map used by pilots for navigation, showing airports, landmarks, and other important features

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FAA Written Exam

The first written test required in the certification process

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Medical Certificate

A medical certificate required for pilots, indicating they meet the health standards to fly

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FAA Practical Test (Checkride)

The final practical exam for pilot certification, which includes both an oral and a flight component

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FARs

Regulations outlined by the FAA

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Aircraft Category

Broad grouping of aircraft (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft).

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Aircraft Class

Specific make/model within a category (e.g., single-engine land).

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Aircraft Category Examples

Normal, Utility, Acrobatic

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When is an endorsement needed?

To fly tailwheel, complex, high-performance, or high-altitude aircraft.

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Complex Airplane Definition

An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller.

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High-Performance Airplane

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

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High-Performance PIC Requirements

Receive ground and flight instruction from an authorized instructor, who then endorses your logbook.

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Complex Airplane Endorsement

Receive training and an endorsement.

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Role of the FAA

Governs flight training, commercial and general aviation, and issues Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs).

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Fixed Base Operators (FBOs)

Provide services like aircraft rental, fueling, maintenance, parking and pilot supplies.

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Air Traffic Control (ATC)

Exists to help pilots, prefers standardized communication and can assist in tight situations (but are not "sky cops").

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Other Aviation Organizations

Aviation organizations besides the primary regulatory body (FAA).

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Stage 1 Flight Training

Pre-Solo Training, Basic Maneuvers, Airport Operations, and Crosswinds.

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Crew Resource Management (CRM)

Using all available resources effectively to ensure flight safety.

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Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

Process to make sound decisions in aviation, considering all available information.

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Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

Applying CRM principles when you're the only pilot.

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The 5P Approach

A method to manage various aspects of a flight by using a checklist.

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IM SAFE Checklist

A self-assessment checklist to ensure a pilot is fit to fly.

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Plan (5P Approach)

Includes weather, route, fuel, and publications.

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Plane (5P Approach)

Addresses airframe, systems, equipment, and avionics.

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Passenger (5P Approach)

Inquiring about discomfort, anxiety or the passenger's desire to arrive.

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Blood Alcohol Level for Pilots

Legally, your blood alcohol level must be below 0.04 percent to fly.

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Aviation and Scuba Diving Risks

Aviation and scuba diving can be dangerous because the reduction of pressure during flight can cause scuba divers to experience decompression sickness.

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Waiting Period After Non-Decompression Dive

After non-decompression stop diving, wait 12 hours before ascending to below 8,000 feet MSL.

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Waiting Period After Decompression Dive

After decompression stop diving, wait 24 hours before ascending to below 8,000 feet MSL.

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Pressure Effects in Flight

Always be aware of pressure effects on ears, sinuses, dental work, and gastrointestinal pain while flying.

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Fitness for Flight

Maintain overall fitness, manage stress and fatigue, and be mindful of noise while flying.

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Checkride Mindset for Flight

Use checklists, be precise, and stay ahead of the airplane.

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Importance of Scanning

Constantly scan instruments and the outside world and avoid fixating on any single element.

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Aircraft Wing

A primary section of an aircraft providing lift.

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Aircraft Tail

Section of the aircraft providing stability and control; includes the horizontal and vertical stabilizer.

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Trim System

Small surfaces that relieve control pressures and enhance stability.

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Shimmy Damper

A hydraulic cylinder that dampens rapid movements of landing gear.

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Oleo Strut

Air-oil hydraulic shock absorber used in landing gear.

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Constant-Speed Propeller

Adjusts blade angle to maintain optimal thrust, improving efficiency.

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Blade Angle (Propeller)

The angle of the propeller blade relative to its rotation plane, affecting thrust.

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Alternator (Aircraft)

Powers electrical components and recharges the battery during flight.

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Battery (Aircraft)

Stores electrical energy and assists in starting the engine.

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Ammeter Function

Indicates if the alternator is charging the battery or if the electrical system is drawing solely from battery power.

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Annual Aircraft Inspection

Ensures the aircraft meets safety standards; required annually.

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VFR Day Equipment ('A TOMATO FLAMES')

Airspeed Indicator, Tachometer, Oil Pressure Gauge, Manifold Pressure, Altimeter, Temperature Gauge, Oil Temp Gauge, Fuel Gauge, Landing Gear Indicator, Anticollision Lights, Magnetic Compass, ELT, Safety Belt

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VFR Night Equipment ('FLAPS')

Fuses, Landing Light, Anticollision Lights, Position Lights, Source of Electrical Energy

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Aircraft Placards

Warnings, operating limitations, and reference information found in the POH.

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Placarding Rule

You cannot placard an instrument required for flight under 14 CFR 91.205.

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Inoperative Instruments

Non-essential instruments can be marked as 'INOPERATIVE'.

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Inoperative Equipment Procedure

  1. Check 14 CFR 91.213; 2. MEL; 3. KOEL; 4. 14 CFR 91.205
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MEL (Minimum Equipment List)

Minimum Equipment List, a list of equipment that must be functional for specific operations.

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Knots (kts)

Speed expressed in nautical miles per hour (1 knot = 6076 feet)

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MPH

Speed expressed in statute miles per hour (1 mph = 5280 feet).

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VX

Best angle of climb; altitude will increase over a short distance.

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VY

Best rate of climb; altitude will increase in the shortest amount of time.

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VS0

Stalling speed in the landing configuration (flaps down). Bottom of the WHITE arc on the airspeed indicator.

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VS1

Stalling speed in a specified configuration (flaps up). Bottom of the GREEN arc on the airspeed indicator.

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VFE

Maximum flaps extended speed. Top of the WHITE arc on the airspeed indicator.

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VA

Maneuvering speed; decreases with lighter weight.

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Altimeter Reading Formula

Calculates indicated altitude based on altimeter setting changes: ((Previous Setting - Current Setting) x 1000) + Field Elevation.

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Incorrect Altimeter Setting

If the altimeter is set to 29.92 in.Hg but the current setting is 30.00 in.Hg, the altimeter will under-read. Indicated altitude is 1,920 feet MSL at a field elevation of 2,000 feet MSL.

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Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)

A gyroscopic instrument indicating rate of climb or descent.

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Gyroscopic Instruments

Instruments relying on a spinning rotor or gyroscope for operation and stability: Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator.

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Gyroscopic Principles

Two principles behind gyroscopic instruments: Rigidity in space (maintaining the same orientation) and Precession (reaction to applied force).

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Vacuum Instruments

Instruments that are powered by a vacuum system, typically including the attitude indicator and heading indicator.

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Attitude Indicator

Displays the aircraft's pitch and bank relative to the horizon.

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Heading Indicator

A gyroscopic instrument showing aircraft heading; must be periodically aligned with the magnetic compass.

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Rate of Turn

The rate at which an aircraft changes its heading, typically measured in degrees per second.

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Turn Coordinator

An instrument that indicates the rate of turn and coordination of the aircraft.

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Turn and Slip Indicator

Indicates turn rate but NOT coordination.

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Deviation

Errors in a magnetic compass caused by magnetic fields within the aircraft.

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Deviation Card

A card in the aircraft that provides headings to steer to compensate for compass errors.

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Magnetic Dip

Compass error where the compass dips towards the North or South, especially on East or West headings.

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ANDS

Describes compass errors during acceleration or deceleration on East or West headings.

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UNOS

An Undershoot North, Overshoot South guideline for rollout from turns to the North or South.

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Lift

The upward force that opposes weight, keeping an aircraft aloft.

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Weight

The downward force caused by gravity acting on the aircraft's mass.

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Thrust

The forward force that propels the aircraft through the air.

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Drag

The force that opposes thrust, slowing the aircraft.

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Equilibrium of Forces

Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are balanced in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

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Newton's 1st Law

An object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force.

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Newton's 2nd Law

Force equals mass times acceleration (F=ma).

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Newton's 3rd Law

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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Bernoulli's Principle

As fluid speed increases, internal pressure decreases.

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Chord Line

Imaginary line from the leading to trailing edge.

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Leading Edge

The most forward point of the wing.

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Trailing Edge

The rear tip of the wing.

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Coefficient of Lift (CL)

Wing shape, camber, and angle of attack.

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Air Density (Rho)

Air molecules in a given space, affecting lift.

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Decreasing Speed

Pilot must increase the angle of attack.

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Lift Summary

Lift comes from downwash (Newton) and pressure differences (Bernoulli).

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Angle of Attack (AOA)

The angle between the wing's chord line and the relative wind.

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Critical Angle of Attack

The AOA at which an aircraft stalls, regardless of airspeed, weight, or flight attitude.

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Stall

Disruption of smooth airflow over an airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift.

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Stall Airspeed vs. Altitude

Indicated airspeed at stall remains the same regardless of altitude.

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AOA and Lift Relationship

Angle of Attack (AOA) vs. Coefficient of Lift (CL)

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CLMAX

The maximum value of the coefficient of lift before a stall occurs.

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Lift During Stall

The aircraft is still producing lift in a stall, but it is not enough to overcome the force of weight.

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Wing Taper

Wing shape where the wing narrows towards the tip.

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Reduced Thrust for Lift

Reducing thrust to decrease lift-off speed.

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Pilot Control of Lift

Changing airspeed, angle of attack, and high-lift devices.

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Three Axes of Flight

Pitching, rolling, and yawing.

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Longitudinal Stability

Tendency of aircraft to return to trimmed AOA after displacement.

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Elevator Controls

Forward/aft yoke pressure.

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Aileron Controls

Turning the yoke left/right.

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Rudder Controls

Pushing rudder left/right.

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CG Position

Weight distribution on the aircraft.

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Directional Stability

An aircraft's resistance to changes in its orientation around the longitudinal axis.

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Positive Static Stability

The tendency of an aircraft to return to its original position after being disturbed.

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Positive Dynamic Stability

The quality of an oscillating aircraft gradually returning to its original state.

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Maneuverability

Aircraft characteristic allowing easy maneuvering and stress resistance.

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Controllability

The ability of an aircraft to respond effectively to pilot control inputs.

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Secondary Stalls

Stalls that occur after recovering from an initial stall due to insufficient airspeed and excessive AOA.

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Adverse Yaw

Adverse Yaw arises from uneven drag when ailerons deflect for a turn.

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Load Factor

The force experienced by an aircraft, expressed in 'G' units, relative to its weight.

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Angle of Bank (AOB)

The angle between the aircraft's wings and the horizon.

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Load Factor at 0° AOB

At 0 degrees AOB, the Load Factor is 1, equivalent to the aircraft's normal weight.

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Calculating Aircraft Weight in a Turn

Aircraft weight multiplied by the load factor (n) at a given AOB.

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Limit Load Factor

Amount of stress (Gs) an aircraft can handle before damage.

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Maneuvering Speed (VA)

Maximum airspeed for full, abrupt control movement without overstressing the aircraft.

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VA and Weight Relationship

VA decreases with decreasing weight, making the aircraft more susceptible to gusts and turbulence.

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V-g Diagram

A diagram illustrating the aircraft's operational limits in terms of load factor (G) and airspeed (V).

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RADAR

RAdio Detection And Ranging, using radio waves to detect objects.

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Transponder

Device that replies to radar signals with aircraft identification and altitude.

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ADS-B

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast, a surveillance technology where aircraft broadcasts its position.

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FAA Radar Systems

FAA run systems using radar to manage air traffic.

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VFR Radar Services

Radar services provided to VFR aircraft, including traffic advisories and safety alerts.

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122.8 MHz

A frequency used for self-announce procedures at uncontrolled airports, and for other advisory purposes.

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Chart Supplement

Provides information on airports, facilities, and certain procedures; updated every 56 days.

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Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs)

Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations; contains aviation regulations.

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Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

A reference guide, provided by the FAA, containing essential information and recommended procedures for flying in the U.S..

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FAR Part 91

A regulatory document containing general operating and flight rules for pilots.

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IDENT

Transponder setting that activates a special identification pulse on ATC radar displays for 18 seconds.

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VFR Squawk Code

Transponder code indicating Visual Flight Rules. Set to 1200.

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SBY (Standby)

Transponder setting: Power is on, but the transponder does not reply to ATC interrogations.

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ALT (Altitude)

Transponder setting: Reports altitude to ATC in addition to Mode A/C/S information.

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Squawk (4-digit code)

ATC instruction: Set your transponder to the specified four-digit code.

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ADS-B Out

System that sends aircraft's GPS location, altitude, speed, and ID to ground stations and other aircraft.

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ADS-B In

System that receives traffic, NOTAMs and weather information.

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1090 ES

ADS-B broadcasts on 1090 MHz, mandatory above FL 180, but doesn't provide FIS-B.

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FAA ARTCC

Primarily used by IFR aircraft in controlled airspace during the enroute phase of flight.

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ATC Approach Control (TRACON)

Facility that controls IFR flights within its area of responsibility, and VFR traffic when workload permits.

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Flight Following

Provides traffic advisories, emergency assistance, and SUA advisories to VFR pilots.

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ARTCC Services

Air Route Traffic Control Center issues route assignments, assigns altitudes, provides traffic separation & vectors, issues NOTAMs, & provides current weather info.

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Traffic Advisory Meaning

Locate traffic at your one o'clock position, two miles away, moving southbound.

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TRACON Services

Terminal Radar Approach Control provides routing and altitude instructions, safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring, traffic sequencing, approach vectoring, and weather/airfield conditions.

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One O'Clock Position

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right.

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ARTCC Identifier

A 3-letter code is used to identify each ARTCC (Air Route Traffic Control Center).

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10 O'Clock Position

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the left.

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Northwest Quadrant

270° - 000° compass heading.

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TRACON Airspace

Area controlled between 5-50 NM from the primary airport.

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Northeast Quadrant

000° - 090° compass heading.

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Southwest Quadrant

180° - 270° compass heading.

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Southeast Quadrant

090° - 180° compass heading.

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Traffic at 10 O'Clock

Traffic is located in the northwest quadrant from your position.

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NOTAM

A notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component of, or hazard in, the National Airspace System.

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Obtaining NOTAMs

Flight Service provides NOTAMs during briefings; also available online via FAA tools.

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NOTAM Content

NOTAMs can include airport data not graphically shown on charts, like LAHSO, airport services, and runway lighting.

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Advisory Circulars (ACs)

Non-regulatory FAA publications that provide guidance for compliance with airworthiness regulations, pilot certification, operational standards, training standards, and other rules within the FARs.

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AC Guidance

ACs offer guidance on methods to comply with the Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs).

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Accessing ACs

ACs are accessible online for free through the FAA Advisory Circulars website.

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AC Information Type

Nonregulatory information, including guidance on methods to comply with FARs.

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Exam Preparation Review

To ensure fitness of flight, review prior slide presentations and notes.

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Study Notes

Zoom Live and Recorded

  • Zoom links are provided via email
  • Session videos are available on the class Drive

Useful Tool Books

  • FAA Manuals and Handbooks are available for free download

Best Aviators

  • Fly every flight like it's your checkride, use checklists, and be precise

I'M SAFE checklist

  • F-atique- (tired and not rested)
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