111 Questions
What is the major difference in disease distribution between ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease (CD)?
UC affects only the colon, while CD can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract.
Which of the following is NOT considered as a potential etiology for inflammatory bowel disease?
Psychological factors
What is the genetic role of NOD2 in the pathophysiology of Crohn’s disease?
1 copy of NOD2 increases CD risk by 2-4x.
How are first-degree relatives of patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) affected in terms of risk?
They have up to a 20x increased risk of developing IBD.
Which diagnostic test is commonly used to assess the severity and extent of ulcerative colitis (UC)?
Colonoscopy
What distinguishes intermediate colitis from the types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) like UC and CD?
*Intermediate colitis is not a recognized type within IBD.
Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor for Ulcerative Colitis?
Age over 40 at diagnosis
What is a distinguishing feature of Crohn's Disease compared to Ulcerative Colitis?
Transmural involvement
Which of the following clinical signs is more specific to Crohn's Disease?
Weight loss, fever, and night sweats
Which diagnostic test is essential for confirming Crohn's Disease?
Pathological evaluation
What distinguishes distal from extensive Ulcerative Colitis?
Involvement proximal to the splenic flexure
Why is 'cobblestone' appearance mentioned in relation to Crohn's Disease?
To highlight the discontinuous nature of the disease
Which of the following lifestyle factors is NOT considered a potential etiology for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
Protein
What is a common clinical feature that helps differentiate Ulcerative Colitis (UC) from Crohn's Disease (CD)?
Rectal bleeding
Which medication is NOT listed as a potential etiology for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
Hygiene
Which of the following is a severe complication more commonly associated with Ulcerative Colitis (UC) than Crohn's Disease (CD)?
Colonic stricture
What is a common extraintestinal manifestation seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease?
Arthritis
Which clinical presentation is more characteristic of Crohn's Disease compared to Ulcerative Colitis?
Local complications like anal fissures
Which biologic agent targeting TNF-α is described as fully humanized with no murine sequences?
Adalimumab
What is a possible adverse effect associated with the subcutaneous delivery of a biosimilar version of infliximab?
Warm, red, swollen, or painful skin, blisters, skin sores
Which of the following is a potential side effect of a biologic agent targeting TNF-α according to information from PubMed Health?
Seizures, numbness, tingling, problems with vision, speech, or walking
Which biologic agent is delivered subcutaneously and considered a new drug due to its delivery method?
Certolizumab pegol
What distinguishes adalimumab from infliximab in terms of their composition?
Adalimumab is fully humanized with no murine sequences while infliximab contains murine sequences.
Which of the following potential side effects is associated with the subcutaneous delivery of a biosimilar version of infliximab?
Warm, red, swollen, or painful skin, blisters, skin sores
Which biologic agent is a humanized antigen-binding fragment (Fab) directed against TNF-α conjugated to polyethylene glycol?
Certolizumab pegol
Which biologic agent targets the cellular adhesion molecule α4-integrin and carries a risk of developing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)?
Natalizumab
Which possible adverse effect is specifically associated with Vedolizumab?
Fever, chills, cough, runny or stuffy nose, sore throat, and body aches
Which biologic agent is a humanized IgG-I monoclonal antibody that binds to integrin and blocks the binding of MAdCAM-1 to a4b7 integrin?
Vedolizumab
Which biologic agent inhibits soluble and membrane-bound TNF-α as well as signaling through both the p55 and p75 TNFα receptors in vitro?
Certolizumab pegol
Which possible adverse effect includes itching or hives, swelling in face or hands, and trouble breathing?
Allergic reaction: Itching or hives, swelling in face or hands, swelling or tingling in the mouth or throat, chest tightness, trouble breathing
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of thiopurine to 6-methyl-mercaptopurine?
Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)
What is the primary mode of action of infliximab, a biologic agent targeting TNF-α?
Binds TNF-α and inhibits its inflammatory effects
Which biologic agent targeting TNF-α is associated with a warning on government websites regarding hepatic injuries?
Infliximab
What adverse effect is commonly associated with Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor?
Increased risk of infections due to lowered immune system ability
What is the FDA-approved biologic agent targeting TNF-α that was approved around 2023?
Infliximab-dyyb
Which enzyme inhibition is a key mechanism of action for methotrexate, a drug used in inflammatory diseases?
Dihydrofolate reductase
What is the typical timeframe for Budesonide (Uceris®) 2 mg rectal foam to show efficacy in patients with mild to moderate disease in the colon?
3-6 months
Which enzyme activity should be assessed before starting Thiopurines like Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine for IBD patients?
TPMT activity
Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of Metronidazole in treating inflammatory bowel disease?
Neuropathy
What is the mechanism of action of Ciprofloxacin when used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease?
Inhibits DNA-gyrase promoting breakage of DNA
Which enzyme activity level guides dosing adjustments of Thiopurines to prevent myelosuppression?
TPMT activity
Which medication is indicated for active steroid-refractory or steroid-dependent IBD and requires 3-6 months for efficacy to be seen?
Azathioprine
What is the maximum recommended duration for Budesonide CIR in managing Crohn's disease?
4 months
Which pharmacological agent has been shown to have similar efficacy to mesalamine in Crohn's disease treatment according to the guidelines?
Ciprofloxacin
What is the recommendation for 5-ASAs in the maintenance of Mild-Moderate Crohn's disease?
Not recommended for maintenance
Which of the following statements about Metronidazole and Ciprofloxacin in Crohn's disease treatment is TRUE?
Neither should be used as primary therapy
Which of the following pharmacological agents is NOT recommended for the maintenance of Mild-Moderate Crohn's disease?
5-ASAs
What is a key limitation of using Mesalamine alone in Crohn's disease induction therapy?
No significant difference compared to placebo
Which medication is generally used for induction, remission, and mucosal healing in Moderate-Severe Crohn's Disease?
Budesonide
What is the recommended alternative treatment in Step 3 for Moderate-Severe Crohn's Disease after a failed anti-TNF-α therapy?
Add monoclonal antibody
What is the common approach to maintenance in Crohn's Disease according to guidelines?
Use what worked to achieve induction
Which statement about immunomodulators in Crohn's Disease is accurate?
Immunomodulators help to reduce the rate of antibodies formation
What is the recommended treatment approach for Severe-Fulminant Crohn's Disease in case of bowel obstruction?
High-dose IV methylprednisolone with bowel rest
Which medication is considered ineffective for the maintenance of Moderate-Severe Crohn's Disease according to guidelines?
Systemic steroids
What is the primary consideration when choosing maintenance therapy for Crohn's Disease?
Continue the medication that induced remission
Which scoring system is used for staging liver disease, including cirrhosis, based on specific criteria such as ascites and bilirubin levels?
Child-Pugh Classification Score
What is the purpose of the MELD score in liver disease management?
To predict the need for liver transplantation
Which diagnostic imaging modality is typically used as the first-line investigation in evaluating liver pathologies?
Ultrasound (US)
In liver cirrhosis, which factor is NOT part of the criteria used in the Child-Pugh Classification Score for staging?
Platelet count
What is a recommended preventive measure in patients with cirrhosis to reduce the risk of progression and complications?
Receiving vaccinations for hepatitis A and B
What are some common risk factors for the development of liver cirrhosis?
Alcohol abuse, chronic viral hepatitis, autoimmune hepatitis
Which of the following is a complication associated with decompensated cirrhosis?
Variceal bleeding
What are some stigmata of chronic liver disease that can be observed in patients with cirrhosis?
Splenomegaly and spider angiomata
What is a common cause of primary sclerosing cholangitis, a condition less commonly associated with liver cirrhosis?
Autoimmune hepatitis
Which of the following is a function of the liver that gets impaired in patients with cirrhosis leading to complications?
Regulation of blood sugar levels
What is the primary mechanism of action for using beta blockers in portal hypertension?
Decreasing splanchnic blood flow
Which condition can be a consequence of portal hypertension due to liver cirrhosis?
Esophageal varices
In patients with ascites and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which antibiotic is commonly used for prophylaxis?
Ciprofloxacin
Which medication is commonly used in the pharmacologic management of varices to reduce the risk of bleeding?
Vasopressin
What is the primary difference between propranolol and nadolol in relation to dosing for portal hypertension?
Nadolol has a longer half-life than propranolol
What is the primary goal when titrating Propranolol or Nadolol for varices prophylaxis?
Achieving a 25% reduction in heart rate
What is the mechanism of action of Beta blockers like Propranolol in varices prophylaxis?
Inhibiting glucagon activity
What is the preferred treatment for bleeding varices during an acute episode?
Endoscopic band ligation
Which pharmacological agent is recommended for slowing or stopping bleeding in cases of variceal hemorrhage?
Vasopressin
When should antibiotics be considered in patients with liver cirrhosis and ascites?
For patients with signs of ascites or infection
Which system is activated due to NO and hypotension in the pathophysiology of ascites?
RAAS system
Which enzyme is responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the RAAS system related to the pathophysiology of ascites?
ACE inhibitor
What is the primary effect of angiotensin II binding to the AT1 receptor in the pathophysiology of ascites?
Increased aldosterone production
Which of the following consequences does NOT arise from the activation of the RAAS system in response to NO and hypotension in ascites?
Decreased renin release
What effect does splanchnic vasodilation have on arterial perfusion pressure in the pathophysiology of ascites?
Increases
What does a SAAG (serum-ascites albumin gradient) value of ≥1.1 g/dL and Ascitic Protein <2.5 g/dL indicate?
Fluid accumulation due to portal hypertension
Which statement is true regarding the treatment of Grade 3 Ascites?
Therapeutic paracentesis can cause circulatory collapse
Which medication is commonly used for maintenance in patients with ascites?
Diuretics
What is the primary cause of fluid accumulation in ascites when SAAG is <1.1 g/dL?
Cancer
Which adverse effect is associated with furosemide but not spironolactone when used in ascites treatment?
Hypokalemia
What is the primary role of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy?
Reducing ammonia reabsorption
Which medication is NOT recommended for long-term use in hepatic encephalopathy due to peripheral neuropathy risk?
Metronidazole
What is the classification system used to subdivide hepatic encephalopathy based on the underlying cause?
Type A, Type B, Type C
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of hepatic encephalopathy?
Severe abdominal pain
What is the potential consequence of excessive ammonia intake in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?
Altered mental status
In the West Haven Criteria grading system for hepatic encephalopathy, which grade is characterized by somnolence, severe confusion, aggressive behavior, and asterixis?
Grade III
Which factor necessitates cautious dosing of lactulose in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?
Risk of nephrotoxicity
What is the primary diagnostic method for hepatic encephalopathy that involves excluding other possible causes?
Diagnosis of exclusion
What is the main purpose of adding a second agent in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy for patients who are unresponsive to lactulose alone?
Achieving short-term relief
Which of the following substances is NOT implicated in causing changes in astrocytes leading to brain edema in hepatic encephalopathy?
Serotonin
What is the most common etiology of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis in patients with cirrhosis?
Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Which of the following is NOT a medication contributor to the development of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis?
Antibiotics
What is the confirmatory laboratory finding for diagnosing Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites?
>250 white blood cells/mL in ascitic fluid
Which antibiotic is the preferred empiric treatment for Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis in patients with no risk of multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs)?
Ceftriaxone
What is the recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis?
10-14 days
What is the primary prophylaxis recommended for inpatients with cirrhosis and certain complications even if they have not had spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) before?
No prophylactic treatment is recommended
What are the conditions that warrant primary prophylaxis for SBP in patients with cirrhosis and other complications?
Ascitic fluid protein <1.5 g/dl + renal dysfunction
Who should receive secondary prophylaxis for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) and for how long?
Patients with cirrhosis regardless of prior SBP episodes should receive it indefinitely
Why is daily dosing of antibiotics preferred over intermittent dosing for SBP prophylaxis?
Daily dosing minimizes the selection of resistant flora
What is the appropriate duration of secondary prophylaxis for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)?
Indefinitely unless liver transplant is done
In hepatorenal syndrome, what is the primary pathophysiological mechanism that leads to renal impairment?
Vasoconstriction leading to kidney hypoperfusion
What is a major diagnostic criterion for identifying hepatorenal syndrome (HRS-AKI)?
Development of shock
What is a recommended non-pharmacologic management strategy to prevent hepatorenal syndrome in patients with elevated serum creatinine levels?
Administer albumin daily up to 100 g/day
What is the primary prophylactic treatment approach recommended for inpatients with cirrhosis who have not experienced spontaneous bacterial peritonitis before?
Administer albumin along with antibiotics
Which medication intervention may be necessary for patients with hepatorenal syndrome until they undergo liver transplant?
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
Which parameter is essential for diagnosing hepatorenal syndrome after withdrawal of diuretics in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites?
Acute kidney injury (AKI)
Learn about the diagnostic methods for ulcerative colitis, including stool cultures, lab testing like ESR/CRP and CBC/CMP, and sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy with biopsy. Understand the different scales available to assess the severity of ulcerative colitis based on clinical signs and symptoms.
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