GI 653 practice exam (lecture 7+)

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the progression of gingivitis to periodontitis?

Amount of plaque

Composition of plaque

Capacity of animal to respond to bacterial challenge

Amount of saliva produced (correct)

What is the advanced periodontal disease flora primarily composed of?

Non-motile Gram + Aerobic Cocci

Motile Gram + Anaerobic Cocci

Motile Gram - Anaerobic Rods/Spirochetes (correct)

Non-motile Gram - Aerobic Rods/Spirochetes

Which stage of periodontal disease is characterized by up to 25% attachment loss?

Stage 2: early PD- up to 25% AL (correct)

Stage 3: moderate PD- 25-50% AL

Stage 1: gingivitis- no attachment loss

Stage 4: severe PD- > 50% AL

Which of the following is an indication for gingivectomy?

Gingival hypertrophy or hyperplasia Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential sequelae of untreated endodontic disease?

Abscess formation Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is at risk of injury during marsupialization of ranulas or pharyngeal sialoceles?

Facial nerve Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve should be ligated at the rostral landmark for marsupialization of ranulas or pharyngeal sialoceles?

Lingual nerve Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of making a large incision into the fluid pocket during marsupialization?

To allow drainage of saliva into the mouth Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome of marsupialization if the underlying pathology is still present?

Recurrence Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of pneumoperitoneum?

Hollow viscous rupture Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of hepatomegaly?

Rounded caudoventral margins Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a cause of generalized splenomegaly on radiographs?

Infiltrative neoplasia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of the spleen?

Head is fixed in the left cranial abdomen Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely diagnosis when both the liver and spleen are enlarged?

Lymphoma Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a disadvantage of direct radiography (DR) for acquiring digital dental rads?

The sensor is only one size Signup and view all the answers

Which radiographic positioning technique is good for radiographing all teeth?

Bisecting angle Signup and view all the answers

What does a widened periodontal ligament, alveolar bone loss, and decreased alveolar bone density indicate in dental rads?

Periodontal disease Signup and view all the answers

What does periapical lysis imply in dental rads?

The tooth is dead and needs to be extracted Signup and view all the answers

Which type of tooth resorption in cats is more common?

Type 2: root replaced by bone (replacement) Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical abnormality is NOT seen in evaluation of neoplasia in feline dentistry?

Tooth resorption Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true in feline dentistry?

Canines are always X04 Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of tooth resorption in feline dentistry?

Lesions present with defects in enamel, dentin, and/or cementum Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding feline chronic gingivostomatitis?

Often requires extraction of all premolars and molars Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common surgical procedure for chronic otitis externa/media and other external/middle ear pathologies?

Total ear canal ablation and bulla osteotomy Signup and view all the answers

Which structures should be cautious of during TECA-BO?

Facial nerve, caudal auricular vein, retroglenoid vein Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical procedure is performed for otitis media without concurrent otitis externa, auditory polyp, or middle ear neoplasia?

Ventral bulla osteotomy Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common salivary pathology characterized by the accumulation of saliva in a pocket within the subcutaneous tissue?

Sialocele Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for acquired megaesophagus?

Vascular ring anomaly Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic tool for megaesophagus?

Ultrasound Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of prokinetics for the treatment of megaesophagus?

Prokinetics can be used in cats because they work at the distal 1/3 of the esophagus which is lined with smooth muscle. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential complication of esophageal foreign body?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of vomiting?

Renal disease Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of the afferent pathways of the emetic center?

Central afferents Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of the treatment approach for vomiting?

Administering antibiotics Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential consequence of chronic vomiting?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is NOT centrally acting (EC, CRTZ)?

Anticholinergics Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs must the patient be hydrated before use for vomiting?

Phenothiazines Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is NOT recommended due to their potential to cause GI stasis and ileus?

Anticholinergics Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is responsible for the failure of relaxation and acceptance of food in cricopharyngeal dysphagia?

Cricopharyngeus muscle Signup and view all the answers

How is cricopharyngeal dysphagia distinguished from other causes of dysphagia?

Fluoroscopy Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can cause symptoms like regurgitation, weight loss, hypertrophy osteopathy, and blood in saliva/vomit?

Esophageal neoplasia Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of esophageal stricture?

Reflux under anesthesia Signup and view all the answers

Which type of anomaly encircles the esophagus, causing focal constriction?

Vascular ring anomalies Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure is commonly used to bypass the oral cavity and pharynx for feeding and to monitor regional anatomy?

Esophagostomy tube placement Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure involves the use of autologous tissues or artificial materials to either buttress a closure or replace a portion of the esophageal wall?

Esophageal patching Signup and view all the answers

What is a hallmark symptom of esophageal disease?

Regurgitation Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common location for esophageal foreign bodies?

Upper esophageal sphincter Signup and view all the answers

Which liver enzyme is relatively liver specific in small animals and also elevated with regeneration?

ALT Signup and view all the answers

Which liver enzyme is cholestatic and often has a latency of 2-3 days before an increase is seen?

ALP and GGT Signup and view all the answers

Which breed is NOT commonly associated with copper associated chronic hepatitis?

Golden Retriever Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment of choice for copper associated chronic hepatitis?

Chelation therapy Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pancreatitis in cats?

Hepatic encephalopathy Signup and view all the answers

The level of rise parallels the degree of injury in this liver enzyme:

ALT Signup and view all the answers

What does a rise in liver enzyme levels indicate about liver function?

Does not correlate with liver function Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the three most common clinical signs of hepatic disease in cats?

Anorexia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following liver enzymes would you expect to be the MOST elevated in an animal with a portosystemic shunt?

ALT Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common dental disease in ferrets?

Periodontal disease Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Helicobacteriosis in ferrets?

Gastric biopsies are commonly performed to diagnosis Helicobacteriosis Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of oral ulceration in ferrets?

Dental disease Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a con to using percutaneous decompression using U/S or tympany in GDV cases?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

How is the stomach assessed during an abdominal explore following decompression de-rotation?

By assessing the omentum covering the stomach Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure may be performed in cases of splenic thrombosis/necrosis?

Splenectomy Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) in dogs?

Increased ventilatory capacity Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of gastric decompression in the treatment of GDV?

To improve venous return and cardiac output Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of splenomegaly on radiographs in dogs?

Pancreatitis Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical procedure is recommended for cases of hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy with mucosal hypertrophy?

Y-U pyloroplasty Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging modality allows for concurrent biopsy and aids in surgical planning for gastric neoplasia?

Gastroscopy Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gastric neoplasia in dogs is most commonly located in the pyloric antrum and has an aggressive behavior with early metastasis?

Adenocarcinoma Signup and view all the answers

Which congenital anomaly of the esophagus is most commonly associated with young German Shepherd Dogs and is typically considered a surgical emergency?

Gastroesophageal intussusception Signup and view all the answers

Which surgical procedure is recommended for cases of gastroesophageal intussusception in young German Shepherd Dogs?

Left sided gastropexy Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gastric neoplasia in cats is typically high grade and has a poor prognosis?

Lymphoma Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statement describes the radiographic appearance of a mechanical ileus?

Segmental dilation is seen unless the obstruction is in the distal small intestine Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal size of the small intestine in dogs, expressed as the maximal serosa-serosa diameter divided by the height of L5?

Less than 1.6 Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the top differential for reduced kidney size radiographically?

Chronic renal disease Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of increased kidney size in a unilateral manner radiographically?

Hydronephrosis Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of altered kidney size with large and irregular margins in a bilateral manner?

Metastatic neoplasia Signup and view all the answers

All of the following statements describe hepatic vascular anomalies EXCEPT:

Acute ligation is the surgery of choice Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following breeds is NOT commonly associated with gallbladder mucocele?

German Shepherds Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false regarding splenic disease?

During a splenectomy, you should complete your explore first and then control active bleeding Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a life threatening complication of acute pancreatitis?

Biliary obstruction Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following liver enzymes will have the highest increase with cholestasis?

ALP Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the common bile duct in cats?

To transport bile acids from the gallbladder to the duodenum Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of gastric decompression in the treatment of GDV?

Improve venous return and cardiac output Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of esophageal stricture?

Doxycycline Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign of gastric foreign bodies?

Profuse vomiting Signup and view all the answers

What is a common bloodwork finding in cases of gastric foreign bodies?

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis Signup and view all the answers

What is the displacement of the stomach or other organs through the esophageal hiatus into the chest called?

Hiatal hernia Signup and view all the answers

Which artery supplies the majority of blood to the spleen?

Splenic artery Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of atraumatic abdomen?

Neoplasia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a con associated with autotransfusion?

Risk of infection Signup and view all the answers

What is the first line therapy for ventricular arrhythmias associated with GDV and splenic disease?

Lidocaine Signup and view all the answers

Which splenectomy approach is faster, best for critical cases, and requires identification of pancreatic branches?

Ligation of splenic artery and vein upstream of hilar branches plus short gastrics/gastroepiploics as needed Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a negative prognostic indicator for GI stasis in small mammals?

Hyperglycemia: > 200 mg/dl Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT of the most common bacteria that cause dysbiosis in rabbits

Helicobacter Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following small mammals is NOT a hind gut fermenter?

Hamster Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT one of the most common clinical signs of feline hepatic diseases?

Anorexia Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of jaundice in cats with hepatic lipidosis?

Hepatic lipidosis Signup and view all the answers

What can prolonged retention of ingesta in the cecum lead to?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of septic peritonitis in cats and dogs?

Ruptured GI viscus Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diagnostic tests should be avoided in patients with suspected peritonitis?

Radiographs with contrast (barium) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?

Idiopathic Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pancreatitis in cats?

Hypertriglyceridemia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is false regarding the diagnosis of pancreatitis?

Increased pancreatic lipase is indicative of pancreatitis Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following liver enzymes is relatively liver specific in cats, but is non-specific in dogs?

A and B Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical signs is NOT seen in the progressed form of chronic hepatitis?

PU/PD Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hepatic diseases is NOT properly matched to its treatment?

Hepatic encephalopathy: High protein diet Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is FALSE regarding ferret diets?

A ferret's diet should be high in carbs and low in fiber Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following disorders is incorrectly matched with its surgical approach?

All are correctly matched Signup and view all the answers

A SI max/L5 > or = to _____ indicates a likely obstruction.

2.4 Signup and view all the answers

Radiographically, plication and hairpin turns are indicative of:

Linear foreign body Signup and view all the answers

Which of these stones can be seen radiographically?

A and B Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a contributor to the blood supply of the spleen?

Right gastroepiploic artery Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is false regarding splenic torsions?

Derotate the spleen prior to preforming a splenectomy to ensure that important blood supply is not compromised Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is correct?

A and C Signup and view all the answers

Which view is best for identifying pyloric outflow obstructions?

LLAT Signup and view all the answers

A gravel sign on radiographs is seen with which disorder?

Chronic/partial pyloric outflow obstruction Signup and view all the answers

Fetal mineralization is visible on radiographs after ___ days.

45 Signup and view all the answers

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia pyometra complex is associated with ______ stimulation during diestrus/luteal phase.

Progesterone Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following GI disorders will have a kiwi fruit appearance of abdominal ultrasound?

Gallbladder mucocele Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is false regarding cholangitis complex in cats?

The neutrophilic form typically affects cats < 4 years old Signup and view all the answers

Which liver enzyme will have the highest increase with hepatic lipidosis?

ALP Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following acute diarrhea disease mechanism is associated with malabsorption/maldigestion?

Osmotic diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following disease mechanisms of acute diarrhea is associated with components already apart of the body are being lost into the intestinal lumen?

Permeability diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following disease mechanisms of acute diarrhea is associated with the triggering of enterocytes to release sodium into the lumen of the gut?

Secretory diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lab abnormalities is seen with acute hemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome (AHDS)?

High PCV with a low TP Signup and view all the answers

What is the hallmark sign seen on CBC in dogs with parvoviral enteritis?

Leukopenia Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common clinical sign seen in canine chronic enteropathy?

Diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common clinical sign seen with protein losing enteropathy?

Chronic weight loss Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a comorbidity associated with feline chronic enteropathy?

Hepatic lipidosis Signup and view all the answers

The most common chemistry finding associated with chronic enteropathy is:

Panhypoproteinemia Signup and view all the answers

What is the first line treatment for uncomplicated chronic enteropathy?

Dietary change Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment of choice for stable protein losing enteropathy patients?

Low protein diet Signup and view all the answers

What is the best radiographic view for a foreign body stuck in the pylorus?

LLAT Signup and view all the answers

What is the thickest layer of skin?

Subcutis (hypodermis) Signup and view all the answers

Which dermatologic lesion is < 1 cm and flat circumscribed lesion associated w/ color change?

Macule Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lesions is a flat topped elevation greater than 1 cm, formed of coalescing papules or dermal infiltration?

Plaque Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following lesions is known as an accumulation of dried exudate, keratin, serum, blood, cells, scales, or medication adherent to skin surfaces?

Crust Signup and view all the answers

Which lesion is a circular scale w/ erythema. Remanent of pustule or vesicle?

Epidermal collarette Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration in dermatology?

Erosion does not penetrate the dermis, whereas ulceration does. Signup and view all the answers

What is the holding layer of the small intestine?

Submucosa Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding an enterotomy is false?

Enterotomy incision is made on the antimesenteric surface oral to the foreign body Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a predictor of septic peritonitis post-op?

Hypokalemia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding sarcoptic mange (scabies) is false?

No zoonotic potential Signup and view all the answers

Where does Demodex canis live?

Follicles Signup and view all the answers

Which Demodex is the only contagious species, is often pruritic, and lives on the surface?

Demodex gatoi Signup and view all the answers

Which dermatologic parasite is very pruritic, has hook like mouthparts, and is known as "walking dandruff"?

Cheyletiellosis Signup and view all the answers

Which type of perianal tumor is most common in intact male dogs (testosterone driven)?

Perianal adenoma Signup and view all the answers

Which perianal neoplasm may be associated with hypercalcemia?

AGASACA Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common malignant rectal tumor in dogs?

Adenocarcinoma Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Surgical Procedures for Ear and Salivary Gland Pathologies

Aural hematoma is a common condition caused by excessive head shaking/scratching/rubbing, resulting in the rupture of blood vessels in the pinna.
Treatment options for aural hematoma include addressing the underlying cause, ear cytology and culture, otoscopy, and conservative or surgical management.
Surgical treatment of aural hematoma involves creating an S-shaped incision to drain the hematoma and using stent sutures to tack the skin and cartilage together.
Pannectomy is a surgical procedure performed for neoplasia affecting the ear, commonly mast cell tumors (MCT) in dogs and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) in cats.
Total ear canal ablation and bulla osteotomy (TECA-BO) is the most common surgical procedure for chronic otitis externa/media and other ear pathologies.
TECA-BO involves removing the lateral wall of the ear canal, completely removing the canal epithelium, widening the external acoustic meatus, and performing bulla osteotomy.
Facial nerve, caudal auricular vein, retroglenoid vein, external carotid artery, maxillary vein, and internal carotid artery are important structures to be cautious of during TECA-BO.
Ventral bulla osteotomy is performed for otitis media without concurrent otitis externa, auditory polyp, or middle ear neoplasia, especially in cats.
Major salivary glands include the mandibular, sublingual, parotid, and zygomatic glands, and cats have an additional molar gland.
Sialocele is the most common salivary pathology, characterized by the accumulation of saliva in a pocket within the subcutaneous tissue.
Sialocele can present in various locations, including the submandibular, sublingual, zygomatic, and pharyngeal regions.
Surgical excision of the involved salivary glands with concurrent drainage is the treatment of choice for sialocele. Salivary gland neoplasia, sialolithiasis, and salivary gland carcinomas are other salivary gland pathologies that may require surgical intervention.

Esophageal Disorders: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

The esophagus is divided into the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.
Cricopharyngeal dysphagia is a congenital swallowing disorder caused by the failure of the cricopharyngeus muscle to relax and accept food.
Achalasia is a condition characterized by asynchrony and repeated attempts to swallow.
Esophageal foreign bodies are fairly common, with bones being common in dogs and fish hooks and needles in cats. Symptoms include regurgitation, hypersalivation, and gagging.
Esophageal neoplasia, such as SCC and sarcomas, is rare but can cause symptoms like regurgitation, weight loss, and blood in saliva/vomit.
Esophageal stricture is a narrowing of the esophagus that causes obstruction, most commonly caused by reflux under anesthesia.
Esophageal fistulas are very rare and result in the development of a fibrous tract connecting the esophagus to the bronchus, trachea, or lung.
Vascular ring anomalies are abnormal developments of fetal vessels that encircle the esophagus, causing focal constriction. The most common type is PRAA with a left ligamentum arteriosum.
Esophageal surgery carries a higher risk of complications compared to other GI surgeries and requires gentle handling to avoid impacting the blood supply.
Esophagostomy tube placement is a common procedure used to bypass the oral cavity and pharynx for feeding and to monitor regional anatomy.
Esophagotomy is commonly performed for foreign body removal, and closure can be done with a single or double layer interrupted pattern.
Esophageal patching involves the use of autologous tissues or artificial materials to either buttress a closure or replace a portion of the esophageal wall.
Swallowing involves several phases, including the oropharyngeal phase, pharyngeal subphase, cricopharyngeal subphase, esophageal phase, and gastroesophageal propulsion. Regurgitation is a hallmark symptom of esophageal disease.

Lecture 18: The Stomach Anatomy and Surgical Diseases

Anatomy of the stomach includes four major divisions: cardia, body, fundus, and pylorus.
Surgical diseases of the stomach include gastric foreign body (FB), hiatal hernia, gastroesophageal intussusception, hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy, and gastric neoplasia.
Gastric foreign bodies are common and present with clinical signs such as vomiting, dehydration, abdominal pain, and melena.
Diagnosis of gastric foreign bodies can be made using plain films, contrast studies, or ultrasound.
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is a common bloodwork finding in cases of gastric foreign bodies.
Treatment for gastric foreign bodies includes rehydration, endoscopic removal, or surgery.
Hiatal hernia is the displacement of the stomach or other organs through the esophageal hiatus into the chest.
Hiatal hernias can be congenital or acquired and present with symptoms such as regurgitation, vomiting, dysphagia, and weight loss.
Diagnosis of hiatal hernias can be made using radiographs, contrast studies, or endoscopy.
Treatment for hiatal hernias may include medical management with gastroprotectants and prokinetics, or surgical procedures such as gastropexy or esophagopexy.
Gastroesophageal intussusception is the invagination of the stomach into the distal esophagus and is more common in young German Shepherds.
Treatment for gastroesophageal intussusception may require a ventral abdominal approach, reduction of the stomach back into the abdomen, and left-sided gastropexy.
Hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy is a pyloric outflow obstruction caused by benign hypertrophy of the muscularis or mucosa, and can be congenital or acquired. Treatment options include medical management or surgical techniques such as pyloromyotomy or gastroduodenostomy.

Lecture 19: Abdominal Radiography and Common Gastric Pathologies

Abdominal radiography can be used to assess the gastrointestinal tract, with the descending colon always on the left side in a ventrodorsal view.
The stomach anatomy differs between dogs and cats, with the entire stomach lying more left of midline in cats.
Gas and fluid patterns in the stomach can vary depending on the position of the patient, with gas in the pylorus and fluid in the fundus in a left lateral view.
Gastrography, using positive contrast agents such as barium, can be used to identify the location of the stomach, evaluate mucosal margins, and assess gastric emptying.
Common gastric pathologies include gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV), food bloat, gastric foreign bodies, and pyloric outflow obstruction.
GDV is a surgical emergency and can be diagnosed using radiographs that

Diagnosis and Management of Peritonitis and Pancreatitis in Cats and Dogs

Peritonitis is a serious condition that can lead to death, with a 3x greater risk of death if the patient has a 7 mg/dl increase in blood urea nitrogen.
Stabilization of peritonitis patients should include immediate attention to heart rate, body temperature, and abdominal distension.
Medical management should be attempted before surgery, with treatment including fluid administration, feeding, critical care, and analgesia.
The most common and easiest at-home treatment for peritonitis is the administration of meloxicam, buprenorphine, oxymorphone/hydromorphone, and lidocaine.
Peritonitis is often associated with a severe inflammatory response, fibrin deposition in the abdomen, ileus, and reflex rigidity.
Common causes of peritonitis include primary and secondary types, as well as mechanical, chemical, and septic causes.
Septic peritonitis is the most common type and can be caused by various factors, including ruptured GI viscus, foreign bodies, neoplasia, and urosepsis.
Clinical presentation of peritonitis includes lethargy, inappetence, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and possible arrhythmias.
Diagnostic tests for peritonitis include complete blood count, chemistry panel, radiographs, ultrasound, and abdominocentesis/fluid analysis.
Stabilization of peritonitis patients requires intravenous fluid resuscitation, correction of acidemia and electrolyte disturbances, and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Surgical treatment of peritonitis involves abdominal exploration, decontamination, and lavage, as well as the placement of a closed suction drain.
Post-operative care for peritonitis patients is critical, with days 3-5 being the most worrisome. The prognosis for peritonitis patients is guarded, even with aggressive treatment.
Pancreatitis can be acute or chronic, with idiopathic being the most common cause. It can lead to life-threatening complications such as systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and necrotizing pancreatitis.
Diagnosis of pancreatitis is challenging, with criteria including compatible clinical signs, increased serum concentrations of pancreatic lipase, exclusion of competing differential diagnoses, and compatible imaging findings.
Treatment for pancreatitis involves supportive care, including IV fluids, analgesia, anti-emetics, early enteral nutrition, and specific therapies for chronic cases.
Common complications of pancreatitis include SIRS, DIC, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, acute respiratory distress syndrome, biliary tract obstruction, and gastroparesis.

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Test your knowledge of surgical procedures for ear and salivary gland pathologies with this quiz. Learn about treatment options for aural hematoma, neoplasia affecting the ear, chronic otitis externa/media, and more. Explore important structures to be cautious of during surgery and discover common salivary gland pathologies that may require surgical intervention.