Module 5 Pharmacology Lecture
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Questions and Answers

What factor primarily influences Charlotte's reduced snowfall compared to areas slightly to its west?

  • A heat dome effect consistently deflects snowstorms away from Charlotte.
  • Charlotte's higher elevation prevents snow accumulation.
  • Charlotte is shielded by the foothills of mountains, blocking snowfall. (correct)
  • The proximity to the ocean moderates Charlotte's winter temperatures.

How does the speaker describe the local reaction in Charlotte when there is even a small amount of snow?

  • People in Charlotte generally ignore minor snowfalls.
  • A small amount of snow is considered a pleasant change.
  • The residents of Charlotte are well-prepared for heavy snow.
  • Even a little snow in Charlotte is seen as a major event. (correct)

What type of precipitation does the speaker prefer driving on, and why?

  • The speaker prefers driving on snow rather than a wintry mix. (correct)
  • The speaker prefers driving on ice for the challenge it presents.
  • The speaker prefers driving in wintry mix due to better traction.
  • The speaker avoids driving in any winter precipitation for safety reasons.

What is implied about the speaker's potential consideration of a 'bearded lady' look?

<p>Mask-wearing diminishes the social impact of having a beard. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What observation is made about the boy filter and its resemblance to someone familiar?

<p>The filter makes the user look exactly like their brother. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the conversation, what weather event occurred in Charlotte shortly before the discussion?

<p>Charlotte had a period of unusually warm weather. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the speaker mean when they say '10 years can go ham'?

<p>The speaker believes aging leads to excessive behavior. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the speakers doing while discussing the weather and filters?

<p>Participating in a quiz. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known allergy to sulfonamides requires a diuretic. Which diuretic class should be used with caution due to potential cross-reactivity?

<p>Thiazide diuretics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for heart failure. What electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur as a direct result of this medication?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is most characteristic of loop diuretics?

<p>Inhibition of the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with pulmonary edema and requires rapid diuresis. Which diuretic would be the MOST appropriate choice?

<p>Furosemide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What is the primary mechanism by which this drug lowers blood pressure?

<p>Increasing the excretion of sodium and water (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is the primary mechanism by which spironolactone reduces ascites?

<p>Blocking the effects of aldosterone on sodium reabsorption in the kidneys (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diuretic is most likely to cause hyperkalemia as a significant adverse effect?

<p>Amiloride (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking a loop diuretic is also prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance caused by the diuretic could increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?

<p>Hypokalemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with increased intracranial pressure is given mannitol. What mechanism underlies the use of mannitol in this situation?

<p>Creation of an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain into the bloodstream (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with the use of acetazolamide?

<p>Metabolic acidosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with angle-closure glaucoma requires medication to rapidly reduce intraocular pressure. Which diuretic is most appropriate?

<p>Acetazolamide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is started on a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. What effect would this medication have on serum calcium levels?

<p>Increased serum calcium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following diuretics is an aldosterone antagonist?

<p>Spironolactone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with heart failure is prescribed both a loop diuretic and an ACE inhibitor. What is the primary reason for using this combination?

<p>To counteract the diuretic-induced activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking a diuretic develops muscle cramps and weakness. Which electrolyte imbalance is MOST likely to be the cause?

<p>Hypomagnesemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is vasoconstriction important in the area of a damaged blood vessel during the initial stages of hemostasis?

<p>To encourage complete stasis, ensuring blood components remain local to the damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of nitric oxide (NO) released by endothelial cells in normal blood vessels?

<p>Promoting vasodilation to improve blood flow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does prostacyclin contribute to maintaining normal blood vessel function?

<p>By preventing activation and aggregation of platelets. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial response when the endothelial layer of a blood vessel is damaged, exposing the collagen beneath?

<p>Adhesion of platelets to the exposed collagen with the help of von Willebrand factor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of von Willebrand factor (vWF) in primary hemostasis?

<p>To facilitate the adhesion of platelets to collagen in the sub-endothelial layer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with von Willebrand disease, what would be the expected change in bleeding time and why?

<p>Increased bleeding time due to impaired platelet adhesion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might DDAVP (desmopressin) be administered to a patient with von Willebrand disease?

<p>To promote the release of stored endogenous von Willebrand factor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient with a bleeding disorder has a normal platelet count but prolonged bleeding time, which of the following deficiencies is most likely the cause?

<p>Von Willebrand factor deficiency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the sequence of events in primary hemostasis after a blood vessel injury?

<p>Adhesion, activation, aggregation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a condition that impairs their ability to produce serotonin at the site of a vascular injury. What immediate effect would this most likely have on primary hemostasis?

<p>Impaired vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood flow at the injury site. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for the body to maintain a balance between procoagulation and anticoagulation?

<p>To allow for quick response to vessel injury without causing inappropriate clotting. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the exposure of collagen during blood vessel injury initiate the process of hemostasis?

<p>By providing a binding site for von Willebrand factor, which then binds platelets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a new drug that aims to improve primary hemostasis. Which of the following mechanisms would be the MOST promising target for this drug?

<p>Promoting the release of von Willebrand factor from endothelial cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's lab results show normal levels of all coagulation factors, but their bleeding time is prolonged. Which of the following tests would be most useful in determining the cause of the prolonged bleeding?

<p>Von Willebrand factor assay (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cardiologist is deciding whether to prescribe a medication that affects components of hemostasis. What information about the patient is MOST important when making this decision?

<p>The patient's history of bleeding disorders or thrombotic events. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which factor directly activates Factor 7?

<p>Factor 3 (Thromboplastin) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT typically explicitly listed in coagulation pathways despite its essential role?

<p>Calcium (Factor 4) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of activation in the intrinsic pathway?

<p>12 -&gt; 11 -&gt; 9 -&gt; 8 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deficiency in which factor leads to Hemophilia B?

<p>Factor 9 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the intrinsic pathway in coagulation?

<p>Amplification of the initial coagulation response (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of blood coagulation, what does the term 'propagation' refer to?

<p>The final phase leading to the common pathway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient with issues in the intrinsic or extrinsic pathways still form clots that are unstable?

<p>Because the clot does not progress to the stable fibrin clot stage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Factor 13 in the final common pathway?

<p>Covalent bonding to stabilize the fibrin clot (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the final common pathway, what complex is responsible for converting prothrombin into thrombin?

<p>Factor 10a and 5 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does thrombin play in the final common pathway?

<p>It converts fibrinogen to fibrin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following coagulation factors is also known as Christmas factor?

<p>Factor IX (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the amplification stage, which factor is bypassed in the intrinsic pathway countdown?

<p>Factor 10 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase of coagulation is thrombin primarily formed?

<p>Propagation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the clots formed in patients with intrinsic and extrinsic pathway issues typically differ from normal clots?

<p>They are less stable and prone to seepage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following sequences accurately represents the final common pathway?

<p>10 -&gt; 5 -&gt; Prothrombin -&gt; Thrombin -&gt; Fibrinogen -&gt; Fibrin -&gt; 13 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary role of thromboxane A2 in primary hemostasis?

<p>Promoting vasoconstriction and platelet activation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does prostacyclin contribute to the regulation of primary hemostasis?

<p>By inhibiting platelet aggregation to prevent excessive clot formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes secondary hemostasis from primary hemostasis?

<p>Secondary hemostasis results in a stable, cross-linked clot, while primary hemostasis forms a temporary platelet plug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which event characterizes the initiation phase of secondary hemostasis, particularly within the extrinsic pathway?

<p>Exposure of tissue factor due to damage outside the vascular compartment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do activated platelets change their morphology during primary hemostasis, and what is the functional significance of this change?

<p>They transform into a 'starfish' shape with extended appendages to enhance aggregation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of von Willebrand factor (vWF) in the initial stages of primary hemostasis?

<p>To mediate the adhesion of platelets to exposed subendothelial collagen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors are known to be vitamin K-dependent in the coagulation cascade?

<p>Factors II, VII, IX, and X (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During primary hemostasis, what is the combined role of ADP and thromboxane A2?

<p>To activate and promote the aggregation of platelets. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of fibrinogen in the context of platelet aggregation?

<p>It binds to receptors on activated platelets, helping to link them together. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the initial platelet plug formed during primary hemostasis considered 'temporary'?

<p>Because it lacks the stability provided by fibrin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor does the term 'thromboplastin' refer to, and from where is it derived?

<p>Factor III, derived from the vascular wall. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a deficiency in Factor VIII. Based on the information, during which phase of hemostasis would this deficiency have the most impact?

<p>Amplification and propagation of secondary hemostasis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating new drugs to prevent thrombosis. Which of the following mechanisms would be most effective in preventing the initial formation of a platelet plug?

<p>Inhibiting the release of von Willebrand factor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with liver disease, synthesis of several clotting factors is impaired. Which stage of hemostasis will be most directly affected?

<p>Stabilization of the fibrin clot during secondary hemostasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a genetic defect that prevents platelets from changing shape upon activation, which aspect of primary hemostasis would be most directly impaired?

<p>The aggregation of platelets to form a plug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor directly contributes to stabilizing a blood clot?

<p>Increased levels of fibrin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking a Gp 2b 3a inhibitor. What is the primary target of this medication?

<p>Blocking the receptor that links final pieces of the clot (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Prothrombin Time (PT) primarily assess?

<p>The extrinsic and final common pathway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition would MOST likely cause a prolonged PT value?

<p>Warfarin use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to standardize which coagulation test across different laboratories?

<p>Prothrombin Time (PT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with liver dysfunction is likely to have a prolonged PT due to:

<p>Impaired synthesis of clotting factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What coagulation pathway does the Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) primarily assess?

<p>Intrinsic and final common pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hemophilia is MOST likely to have a prolonged:

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect primarily by affecting the:

<p>Intrinsic pathway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is LEAST likely to prolong the aPTT?

<p>Factor VII deficiency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Activated Clotting Time (ACT) is primarily used to monitor:

<p>The extent of heparinization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor can falsely prolong Activated Clotting Time (ACT)?

<p>Hypothermia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In preparation for a major surgery, a fibrinogen level of at least what value (mg/dL) is generally desired?

<p>$&gt;150$ mg/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery and their INR is 1.8. What is the MOST appropriate action?

<p>Delay the surgery and consult with the surgeon, as the INR is likely too high. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is on an anticoagulant. In the context of the perioperative period, what is the MOST important consideration regarding the drug?

<p>Whether to continue, hold, or adjust the anticoagulant regimen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When determining whether to continue or discontinue an anticoagulant before surgery, what factors are considered in the risk-benefit analysis?

<p>The patient's bleeding risk if anticoagulants are continued, and clotting risk if they are stopped. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient undergoing a liver resection have different anticoagulant considerations compared to someone undergoing carpal tunnel surgery?

<p>Different types of surgery carry varying levels of risk regarding bleeding and clotting. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following patients would bridge therapy with low molecular weight heparin most likely be considered during the perioperative period?

<p>A patient with mechanical heart valves and a high risk of clotting undergoing a major surgery. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for anesthesiologists to assess a patient’s anticoagulant status during pre-operative assessment?

<p>To evaluate the risk of bleeding or clotting complications during and after surgery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might the administration of Toradol (ketorolac) be reconsidered in a patient undergoing surgery?

<p>It can interfere with platelet function and increase bleeding risk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes unfractionated heparin from low molecular weight heparin?

<p>Unfractionated heparin contains a mix of high and low molecular weight molecules, while low molecular weight heparin contains only low molecular weight molecules (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a medication is labeled as 'low molecular weight heparin', what can be definitively inferred about its composition?

<p>It has been processed to remove the high molecular weight components. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate effect of heparin binding to antithrombin III (AT-III)?

<p>It enhances the activity of antithrombin III. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which coagulation pathway is most directly affected by antithrombin III (AT-III) once it's activated by heparin?

<p>The common pathway, involving thrombin and Factor Xa. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does antithrombin III (AT-III) function as a regulator of coagulation?

<p>It inactivates enzymes that are involved in the formation of thrombin and other coagulation factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what specific way does heparin influence platelet activation?

<p>It inhibits platelet activation through its interaction with antithrombin III. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is on unfractionated heparin, what types of heparin molecules are present in their system?

<p>Both high and low molecular weight heparin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to understand whether a patient received bridge therapy with heparin before surgery?

<p>To assess the degree of anticoagulation and adjust post-operative management accordingly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in how unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are typically referred to in clinical settings?

<p>Unfractionated heparin is commonly referred to as 'heparin,' while low molecular weight heparin is explicitly identified as such. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the origin of unfractionated heparin?

<p>It is naturally occurring and can be derived from animal sources or released by mast cells in the body. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it recommended to use a preservative-free form of heparin in pediatric patients, especially infants?

<p>To prevent potential mortality and morbidity related to preservatives present in some formulations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known antithrombin III deficiency is prescribed heparin. What is a likely consequence?

<p>Heparin resistance, requiring higher doses to achieve a therapeutic effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a pregnant patient requiring anticoagulation, why is monitoring factor Xa levels preferred over aPTT when using heparin?

<p>aPTT is considered less reliable for assessing heparin effectiveness in pregnant patients due to changes in clotting factor levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding neuroaxial anesthesia (spinal or epidural) in a patient receiving anticoagulation therapy?

<p>Potential for hematoma formation in the spinal area, leading to neurological deficits. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is correct regarding heparin and the placenta?

<p>Heparin does not cross the placenta, making it a safer option during pregnancy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on a therapeutic dose of heparin requires an urgent surgical procedure under neuroaxial anesthesia. According to the guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

<p>Delay the procedure, consult with anesthesia, surgery, and other relevant specialists to discuss potential risks and benefits of reversal. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason heparin is often administered subcutaneously as a prophylactic measure?

<p>Subcutaneous administration results in a slower, delayed release and prolonged effect with lower systemic doses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors directly influence the effectiveness of heparin?

<p>Antithrombin III activity, protein binding, and individual genetic responses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should subcutaneous heparin be held before neuroaxial anesthesia

<p>4-24 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You have a patient that cannot tolerate general anesthesia. What course of action could you explore in a hypercoagulable patient?

<p>Reverse their anticoagulation to make the situation safer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is heparin resistant, what deficiency is the initial thought?

<p>Antithrombin 3 deficiency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is receiving heparin intravenously to reach a therapeutic PTT, what kind of dose are they most likely receiving?

<p>Boluses and maybe an infusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pathway(s) does heparin primarily affect?

<p>Intrinsic and final common pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major site of action for heparin?

<p>10a and 2a (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long does subcutaneous heparin take to take effect?

<p>1-2 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a healthcare provider's practice sometimes deviate slightly from textbook guidelines?

<p>Provider interpretation and varying guidelines can lead to slight practice changes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration regarding regional anesthesia for patients on low-dose anticoagulants?

<p>The type of regional anesthetic and area of insertion influence the decision. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the target range for Activated Clotting Time (ACT) during heparin therapy, according to the information?

<p>350-400 seconds (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does platelet factor 4 (PF4) play in Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

<p>Antibodies form against PF4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic sign of a severe reaction to heparin, potentially indicating HIT?

<p>Severe thrombocytopenia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) primarily inhibit the coagulation cascade?

<p>Greater inhibition of Factor Xa than Factor IIa. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an advantage of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) compared to unfractionated heparin regarding its pharmacological properties?

<p>More predictable effectiveness due to less protein binding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) generally avoided or adjusted in patients with renal dysfunction?

<p>It is cleared by the kidneys. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is protamine not typically used to fully reverse the effects of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

<p>Protamine's response with LMWH is unpredictable. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should low molecular weight heparin be held before surgery, according to the information provided?

<p>12 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What risk is heightened when a patient on low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) undergoes spinal or epidural anesthesia?

<p>Increased risk of hematoma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) needing a peripheral nerve block, what is the recommended delay?

<p>10-12 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is receiving a therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin, how long should it be held before neuroaxial anesthesia?

<p>24 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the instruction emphasize looking up specific guidelines for anticoagulant management on a case-by-case basis?

<p>There are numerous guidelines regarding anticoagulants and neuraxial procedures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial step to consider when creating a care plan involving surgery and a patient on anticoagulants?

<p>Determining when the anticoagulant needs to be stopped based on the planned technique. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of warfarin?

<p>Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, preventing the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are affected by warfarin?

<p>Factors II, VII, IX, and X. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical target INR range for a patient on warfarin therapy?

<p>2.0 to 3.0 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on warfarin is scheduled for an elective surgery. Current recommendations suggest discontinuing warfarin how many days prior to the procedure?

<p>3 to 5 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial treatment for a patient with an elevated INR due to warfarin, who requires emergent surgery?

<p>Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is intravenous vitamin K administered slowly when reversing warfarin?

<p>To avoid anaphylaxis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can affect the effectiveness and dosing of warfarin?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major disadvantage of using vitamin K to reverse warfarin's effects in a patient needing urgent surgery?

<p>It has a delayed onset of action, taking up to 24 hours for full reversal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common indication for warfarin therapy?

<p>Atrial fibrillation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason warfarin is avoided during pregnancy?

<p>It crosses the placenta and can cause congenital malformations and hemorrhage in the fetus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of Vitamin K deficiency is started on Warfarin. How might this impact the Warfarin's onset of action and required dosage adjustments?

<p>The onset of action will be faster, potentially requiring a lower initial dose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor contributes to warfarin's delayed onset of action?

<p>The time required to deplete existing active clotting factors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with liver disease is prescribed warfarin. What adjustments, if any, are typically required?

<p>The dose should be decreased due to impaired metabolism. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC) provides faster reversal of warfarin compared to Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)?

<p>PCC contains concentrated vitamin K dependent factors, where FFP has a lower concentration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the oral bioavailability of warfarin?

<p>It has close to 100% oral bioavailability. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of fondaparinux (Arixtra)?

<p>Indirectly inhibits Factor Xa, but is less effective when Factor Xa is already bound in a complex. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key consideration for fondaparinux (Arixtra) administration prior to surgery?

<p>It should be held 2 days before surgery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do argatroban and bivalirudin exert their anticoagulant effects?

<p>By directly inhibiting thrombin (Factor IIa). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What monitoring is appropriate for argatroban and bivalirudin?

<p>Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) or Activated Clotting Time (ACT). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the manufacturer's recommendation regarding regional anesthesia in patients taking dabigatran (Pradaxa)?

<p>Regional anesthesia is contraindicated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation?

<p>Irreversibly acetylating cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is aspirin typically held 7-10 days prior to surgery, especially at higher doses?

<p>To allow for the production of new, unaffected platelets. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits platelet aggregation by which mechanism?

<p>Irreversibly blocking the ADP receptor P2Y12. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptor is the P2Y12 receptor, which is targeted by clopidogrel (Plavix)?

<p>G-protein coupled receptor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dictates the duration of aspirin's effect on platelet function?

<p>The lifespan of circulating platelets. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for surgery and is currently taking clopidogrel (Plavix). Which test would be most useful in assessing the patient's coagulation status prior to the procedure?

<p>Platelet function assay (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of HIT (Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia) requires anticoagulation. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate alternative?

<p>Fondaparinux (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking both aspirin and clopidogrel following a recent cardiac stent placement. What is the MOST significant risk associated with this dual antiplatelet therapy?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does aspirin's inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) lead to its antiplatelet effect?

<p>By decreasing the production of thromboxane A2. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately differentiates between the mechanisms of action of aspirin and clopidogrel?

<p>Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, while clopidogrel blocks the ADP receptor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In trauma patients, what is the primary concern regarding fibrinolytic shutdown?

<p>Inhibition of endogenous plasminogen activators resulting in potential clot-related complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might administering TXA too late in a trauma patient potentially worsen their condition?

<p>It may further exacerbate an existing fibrinolytic shutdown pathway, increasing the risk of clot-related complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential effect of a deficiency in Protein C or Protein S?

<p>Hypercoagulable state. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do antifibrinolytic medications like Amicar and tranexamic acid (TXA) reduce bleeding?

<p>By inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for administering antifibrinolytic agents like aprotinin during surgery?

<p>To reduce bleeding and the need for blood transfusions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might tranexamic acid (TXA) be preferred over aminocaproic acid (Amicar) in some clinical settings, particularly in Europe?

<p>Amicar has been associated with renal dysfunction concerns. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is aprotinin rarely used in the US currently?

<p>Manufacturers have removed aprotinin due to safety concerns. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of administration for tranexamic acid (TXA) when used by anesthesia providers?

<p>Intravenously (IV). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary adverse effect associated with antifibrinolytic medications?

<p>Thrombus formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario might a surgeon choose to administer tranexamic acid (TXA) topically rather than intravenously?

<p>To minimize potential systemic side effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient factor requires an individualized risk assessment prior to administration of TXA?

<p>History of a DVT or PE. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern when considering the parenteral administration of tranexamic acid (TXA) in a patient with a history of thromboembolism?

<p>Potential systemic effects of the drug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following scenarios would topical TXA administration be considered over intravenous administration?

<p>The patient has a DVT or PE within the last 6 months. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using topical tranexamic acid (TXA) in orthopedic surgeries?

<p>To specifically target local bleeding at the surgical site. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a general contraindication for using TXA?

<p>Known Hypercoagulable State. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to discuss a patient's pre-operative medication and medical history with the surgeon when considering the use of TXA?

<p>To ensure all members of the team are aware of potential contraindications to TXA, like hypercoagulable states. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the potential for GABA blockade in the frontal cortex a safety concern with tranexamic acid (TXA)?

<p>It may increase the risk of seizures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with an uncontrolled seizure history and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following considerations is most important when deciding whether to administer TXA?

<p>The risk of seizure is associated with the TXA dose, with higher doses posing a greater risk. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended dose and timing of tranexamic acid (TXA) administration for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

<p>1 gram as soon as possible after PPH is recognized. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides postpartum hemorrhage, what is another common surgical scenario where tranexamic acid (TXA) is typically administered?

<p>Prior to skin incision in high-risk surgical patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical dose of TXA administered during a surgical case?

<p>1 gram (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is renal dysfunction a concern when considering the use of aminocaproic acid?

<p>There have been reports of renal injury associated with aminocaproic acid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In trauma cases, when should tranexamic acid (TXA) be administered to maximize its benefit?

<p>As soon as possible after the injury. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serious adverse event has been reported due to wrong-site administration of TXA?

<p>Spinal administration resulting in back pain, leg pain, seizures, and cardiac arrest. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon asks for a repeat dose of tranexamic acid (TXA) at the end of a high-risk surgery. What is the primary rationale for this?

<p>To ensure complete hemostasis before closure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is there a risk of administering TXA into the spinal canal?

<p>TXA vials can be mistaken for local anesthetic vials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does tranexamic acid (TXA) exert its antifibrinolytic effect at the molecular level?

<p>It competitively inhibits the binding of plasminogen to fibrin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason a clinician might hesitate to administer tranexamic acid (TXA) to a patient with a recent history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

<p>TXA may increase the risk of further thromboembolic events. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What patient population is at higher risk for wrong-site administration of TXA?

<p>Orthopedic patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While all forms of TXA (oral, topical, IV) have similar efficacy, when might the oral form be particularly useful?

<p>In menstruating women experiencing heavy bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to communicate with the medical team before administering DDAVP to a patient?

<p>To confirm it is still the plan to administer the infusion and to coordinate timing with other procedures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should DDAVP be infused slowly?

<p>To minimize the risk of hypotension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of fibrinogen (Factor I) in clot formation?

<p>Serving as an enzyme substrate for thrombin and plasmin and binding to platelet receptors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might a clinician consider administering fibrinogen to a patient?

<p>In a hemorrhaging patient or one with hemodilution from large-volume crystalloid administration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical target range for fibrinogen levels in most surgical patients?

<p>At least 150 to 200 mg/dL. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cryoprecipitate (cryo) administration impact fibrinogen levels?

<p>One unit per 10 kg increases fibrinogen by 50-70 mg/dL. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of recombinant activated factor VIIa (rFVIIa)?

<p>Forming a complex with tissue factor to activate the extrinsic pathway. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Through which pathway does recombinant factor VIIa exert its effect?

<p>Extrinsic pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might facilities opt for transfusion over recombinant factors to improve clotting ability?

<p>Transfusions are typically quicker, easier, and more readily available. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does Factor XIII play in the coagulation cascade?

<p>Stabilizing the final clot in the final common pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it challenging to accurately dose protamine based on the initial heparin dose?

<p>The circulating concentration of heparin is affected by ongoing metabolism and excretion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely mechanism behind protamine-induced hypotension?

<p>Histamine activation/release. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant risk associated with rapid administration of protamine?

<p>Hypotension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From where is von Willebrand factor released?

<p>Vascular endothelial cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient experience 'heparin rebound' after protamine administration?

<p>The effectiveness of protamine diminishes before heparin is fully cleared. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do absorbable hemostatic agents like Gelfoam and Surgicel work?

<p>They swell when hydrated, causing a mechanical obstruction and promoting clot fomation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation might a surgeon request topical hemostatic agents during a procedure?

<p>When they are having difficulty controlling a bleeder with conventional methods. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which protamine reverses the effects of heparin?

<p>Acid-base neutralization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with high doses of protamine?

<p>Coagulopathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing a surgical procedure, and the surgical team requests Gelfoam. What does this likely indicate?

<p>The surgical team is encountering a bleeder they are having difficulty controlling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the physiological effect of desmopressin (DDAVP) related to hemostasis?

<p>Release of von Willebrand factor and factor VIII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the timing of DDAVP administration important in relation to surgery for patients with von Willebrand disease?

<p>To ensure peak levels of von Willebrand factor coincide with the surgical procedure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides DDAVP, what other treatment options are available for a patient with von Willebrand disease?

<p>Cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical dosage and route of administration for DDAVP in patients with von Willebrand disease undergoing surgery?

<p>0.3 mcg/kg intravenously over 15-30 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug interactions should be considered when administering protamine?

<p>NPH Insulin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the pre-operative nurse in managing a patient with von Willebrand disease who is scheduled for surgery and requires DDAVP?

<p>Initiating the DDAVP infusion and coordinating with the OR nurses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism describes how antithrombin III (ATIII) reduces coagulation?

<p>Forming complexes with factors IIa, Xa, and partially inhibiting factors IX, XI, and XII. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might it be important for anesthesia staff to be aware of a patient's medication list including NPH insulin when administering protamine?

<p>To anticipate potential allergic reactions related to protamine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a patient with nephrotic syndrome be at risk for heparin resistance?

<p>Loss of antithrombin III in the urine, reducing heparin's cofactor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient receiving therapeutic heparin, which laboratory finding would suggest a potential antithrombin III deficiency?

<p>Prolonged aPTT despite adequate heparin dosage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of an inadvertent intrathecal injection of medication, what immediate intervention was used in the case described?

<p>Continuous CSF drainage via EVD and spinal drain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) contribute to fibrinolysis?

<p>By converting plasminogen to plasmin, which then degrades fibrin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the removal of medication via CSF drainage after an inadvertent injection, what potential long-term outcome was observed in the patient?

<p>Full recovery with minimal noticeable deficits (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a healthcare provider do to prevent inadvertent intrathecal injections of medication?

<p>Use medications from clearly labeled containers and avoid keeping similar-looking drugs together. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do endothelial cells contribute to the regulation of the coagulation process?

<p>By regulating coagulation and reversing it when necessary, maintaining vascular patency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of plasmin in the fibrinolytic system?

<p>It degrades fibrin into split products, leading to clot dissolution. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a genetic mutation that impairs the production of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). What condition could this mutation predispose them to?

<p>Increased risk of thrombosis due to reduced clot breakdown. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does activated protein C exert its anticoagulant effects?

<p>By binding to protein S and regulating the anticoagulant side of things. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of recurrent thrombotic events is found to have a protein S deficiency. How does this deficiency contribute to the patient's thrombotic tendency?

<p>By impairing the activation of protein C, leading to decreased inactivation of clotting factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin regarding their mechanism of action?

<p>Unfractionated heparin inhibits more coagulation factors than low molecular weight heparin. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does endogenous heparin, produced by mast cells and basophils, contribute to anticoagulation?

<p>By interacting with antithrombin III and increasing its effectiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential for endothelial cells to regulate the coagulation process and reverse it when necessary?

<p>To maintain vascular patency after hemostasis has completed its job. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel (Plavix) in preventing platelet activation?

<p>Blocking the binding of ADP to the P2Y12 receptor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is developing a drug to enhance fibrinolysis. Which of the following mechanisms would be the MOST promising target for this drug?

<p>Enhancing the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with liver cirrhosis is started on heparin for a thromboembolic condition. Which factor should be closely monitored due to the liver's role in its production?

<p>Antithrombin III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it typically recommended to discontinue clopidogrel (Plavix) before elective high-risk surgery?

<p>To allow for normal platelet function and reduce bleeding risk. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex contribute to anticoagulation?

<p>By activating protein C, which then exerts anticoagulant effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the general recommendation regarding elective high-risk surgery for a patient who has recently undergone percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a drug-eluting stent?

<p>Surgery should generally be avoided for a year if possible. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between cangrelor and clopidogrel in terms of their administration and onset of action?

<p>Cangrelor is an intravenous drug with a rapid onset of action, unlike oral clopidogrel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate half-life of cangrelor, and how quickly do platelets recover function after its discontinuation?

<p>Half-life of 3-6 minutes, with platelet recovery in 30-60 minutes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists like eptifibatide work to prevent clot formation?

<p>By blocking the binding of fibrinogen to the GP IIb/IIIa receptor on platelets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on clopidogrel needs emergency surgery. Which of the following strategies might be used to provide continued antiplatelet effect while minimizing bleeding risk?

<p>Bridging therapy with a short-acting GP IIb/IIIa antagonist like eptifibatide. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which thrombolytic drugs like tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) restore circulation in occluded vessels?

<p>By converting plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is there a contraindication for regional anesthesia or surgery within 48 hours (2 days) of thrombolytic administration?

<p>The risk of bleeding, especially spinal hematoma with neuraxial techniques, is significantly increased. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following thrombolytic administration and prior to a neuroaxial anesthetic, how frequently should a patient be assessed for neurological deficits, and why?

<p>Every 2 hours to detect any signs of spinal cord compression or hematoma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has recently received thrombolytic therapy requires an emergent surgical procedure. Besides the increased risk of bleeding, what other potential side effect should be closely monitored?

<p>Angioedema (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a bare metal stent is scheduled for elective surgery. What is the minimum recommended duration to wait after stent placement before proceeding with surgery, assuming dual antiplatelet therapy is a concern?

<p>1 month (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of PCI on dual antiplatelet therapy is undergoing a high-risk surgery that cannot be delayed. Which strategy is LEAST appropriate for managing their antiplatelet therapy?

<p>Continuing both aspirin and clopidogrel throughout the perioperative period to minimize thrombotic risk. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bridging antiplatelet therapy, what advantage does eptifibatide offer compared to clopidogrel when a patient requires urgent surgery?

<p>Eptifibatide's effects on platelet function are reversible within hours, unlike clopidogrel's irreversible effects lasting several days. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the recommendation to assess a patient every 2 hours for neurological deficits after thrombolytic administration, particularly if a neuroaxial anesthetic has been performed?

<p>To promptly identify and manage spinal hematoma formation causing spinal cord compression. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Temperature Plunge

A sudden and significant drop in temperature after a period of warmth.

Wintry Mix

Precipitation that is a mix of rain and snow.

Snowfall (Excessive)

An excessive amount of snowfall.

Heat Dome

An abnormally warm area, often affecting weather patterns.

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Shielded (From Snowfall)

To protect from weather conditions.

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Out of Control

Becoming uncontrolled or excessive

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A ton

A large amount of snow

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happening

Something that happens

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Drug Class Mechanism

Focus on mechanism of action at the cellular level for each drug class.

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Drug Name Recognition

Recognize drug names within a class and connect them to their mechanism of action.

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Clinical Effects

Understand the clinical effects resulting from a drug's mechanism of action.

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Adverse Effects

Know the adverse effects associated with different drug classes.

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Specific Drug Details

If a specific drug is highlighted, know it in more detail.

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Anesthetic Considerations

Understand anesthetic considerations for commonly used drugs.

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Macro to Micro Learning

Start with a broad understanding of the drug class, then narrow down to specific drugs.

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Drug Comparison

Compare and contrast individual drugs within a class.

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Memorization Required

Unique drug facts need to be memorized.

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Dose and Route Knowledge

If drug doses and routes are provided, they are fair game for testing.

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Test Focus

This test will focus on drug classes.

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Drug Clinical Effects

Clinical effects are the effects of the drug on the patient.

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Drug Adverse Effects

Adverse effects are the undesirable effects of a drug.

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Drug Main Adverse Effects

Main adverse effects are significant/ concerning side effects

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Drug Anesthetic Considerations

Anesthetic considerations are effects that need to be considered during anesthesia

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Time per question

Recommended time per multiple-choice question to simulate board exams.

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Endothelial Cells

Keeps blood vessels open via nitric oxide release, preventing platelet activation and aggregation.

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Nitric Oxide

Vasodilation promotion.

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Prostacyclin

Combine with platelet receptors causing beneficial effects.

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Checks and Balances

The body's ability to respond to injury without overreacting.

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Extrinsic and Intrinsic Damage

Exterior to interior damage of a blood vessel.

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Collagen/Connective Tissue

Layer providing structural support to blood vessels.

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Serotonin

Released to decrease blood flow in the injured area.

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3 Phases of Hemostasis

Adhesion, activation, and aggregation.

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Subendothelial Collagen

Exposed when endothelial cells break, starting the adhesion process.

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Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

Released by endothelial cells to help platelets stick to collagen.

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vWF Function

Anchors platelets to collagen receptors.

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von Willebrand Disease

Disease resulting in increased bleeding time due to vWF deficiency.

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DDAVP

Medication to increase the release of endogenous stores of vWF.

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Cryoprecipitate (Cryo)

Blood product containing factor 8, used to treat vWF deficiency.

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Extrinsic Pathway

Initiated by tissue factor (Factor 3), it's the body's first response to vessel damage.

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Extrinsic Pathway Activation

Factor 3 (thromboplastin) activates Factor 7.

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Calcium (Factor 4)

Essential for coagulation, it's always circulating and assisting.

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Intrinsic Pathway

It amplifies the initial signal from the extrinsic pathway after interior trauma.

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Intrinsic Pathway Order

The sequence is 12, 11, then skips 10, goes to 9, 8, leading to 10.

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Hemophilia A

Deficiency in Factor 8c.

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Hemophilia B

Deficiency in Factor 9.

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Factor 9a Activation

Generated by both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways.

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Intrinsic/Extrinsic Pathway Problems

Leads to unstable clots, causing potential bleeding issues.

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Prothrombin to Thrombin Conversion

Activated Factor 10 forms a complex with activated Factor 5 and calcium to produce...

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Final Common Pathway

The area where the majority of thrombin is created.

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Thrombin (Factor 2a)

It converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

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Factor 13

Forms a stable clot.

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Final Common Pathway Steps

Activated Factor 10, Factor 5, Calcium converts prothrombin to...

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Final Common Pathway

Activated Factor 10, Factor 5, Calcium converts prothrombin to Thrombin, which in turn, converts...

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Cryo Composition

Cryoprecipitate is rich in coagulation factor VIII, factor XIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibrinogen.

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Activated Platelet Shape

Platelets change from a round shape to a 'starfish' shape when activated.

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Thrombin's Role in Activation

Thrombin (Factor IIa) binds to platelet receptors, activating the platelets.

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Thromboxane A2 & ADP

Thromboxane A2 and ADP further activate platelets and promote aggregation.

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Thromboxane A2 Function

It uncovers fibrinogen receptors, helping to link platelets.

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Thromboxane A2 as Vasoconstrictor

A vasoconstrictor that helps reduce blood flow in the injured area.

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Fibrinogen in Aggregation

Platelet aggregation facilitated by fibrinogen binding to activated platelets.

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Temporary Hemostasis

The initial, unstable clot formed by platelet aggregation.

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Prostacyclin Function

It inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent vessel occlusion.

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Secondary Hemostasis

Secondary hemostasis builds a stable clot by weaving fibrin throughout the platelet plug.

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Stable Clot

A stable, cross-linked, water-insoluble clot formed in secondary hemostasis.

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Clotting Factor I

Factor I; essential for clot formation.

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Vitamin K-Dependent Factors

Factors II, VII, IX, and X require vitamin K for their synthesis.

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Extrinsic Pathway Initiation

Damage outside the vascular compartment initiates this.

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Fibrinogen's Role

Helps link platelets together and stabilizes the clot.

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Gp 2b 3a Inhibitor

Inhibits the Gp 2b 3a receptor, preventing platelet aggregation.

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APTT Test

Evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

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PT Test

Evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.

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INR (International Normalized Ratio)

Corrects for variations in reagents used for PT testing, providing a standardized result.

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Elevated INR

Often indicates a need to delay surgery or procedures.

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Prolonged PT Causes

May be prolonged with deficiencies in factors 7 and 5, warfarin use, or liver dysfunction.

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Prolonged PTT Causes

May be prolonged in hepatic dysfunction, leukemia, or with heparin use.

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Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

Monitors heparin's effect

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Factors Prolonging ACT

Can be prolonged by hypothermia, thrombocytopenia, certain drugs and factor deficiencies

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TEG and ROTEM

A test related to hemostasis, clot strength, etcetera.

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Fibrinogen Goal Pre-Surgery

Usually want it a little bit higher, even for some types of surgical cases

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Anticoagulants indications.

Used for a variety of indications like cardiovascular procedures, preventing clots, cardiovascular disease, arrhythmias.

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Clinical site question policy

The patient must talk about looking something up in a textbook instead of Google

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Primary question around anticoagulants

Whether or not we have that patient hold the drug or get the drug or continue it during the perioperative period.

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Anticoagulant Risk-Benefit Analysis

Balancing bleeding risk vs. clot risk when a patient on anticoagulants needs surgery.

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Bridge Therapy

Stopping normal anticoagulants and using low molecular weight heparin until surgery.

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Pre-OP Anticoagulant Assessment

Drugs patients are taking and when they were last taken.

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Unfractionated Heparin

Unseparated heparin molecules, containing both high and low molecular weight molecules .

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Heparin Source

Heparin made up of different sized molecules.

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Heparin Mechanism

Increasing the activity of antithrombin III to inhibit clotting.

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Antithrombin III

A naturally occurring regulator protein that opposes thrombin formation.

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Fractionated Heparin

Low molecular weight heparin is isolated/separated.

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Heparin's Target Factors

Heparin affects Thrombin, Factor 10a, 12a, 11a, and 9a.

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Inhibition of Platelets Activation

Heparin inhibits activation of platelets by fibrin.

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Low Molecular Weight Heparin

It's usually a fractionated type of Heparin.

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Unfractionated components

This means both the different weights are kept together.

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Fractionated meaning

The larger molecules are separated out from the lower molecular wight molecules.

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Heparin and Anti-thrombin III

It increases the activity of anti-thrombin III.

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Heparin inactivating enzymes

Heparin inhibits the factors involved in forming thrombin.

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Heparin Therapy Goals

Goal is to prolong, typically to 350-400 for ACT or 1.5-2.5 times normal for aPTT.

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HIT Mechanism

Antibodies form to platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation, aggregation, and thrombosis.

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HIT Thrombocytopenia Timeline

Severe thrombocytopenia (50% decrease or <100,000) within hours to days.

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LMWH Mechanism

Greater inhibition of Factor Xa than Factor IIa.

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LMWH Predictability

More predictable effects due to less protein binding.

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LMWH Bioavailability

100% bioavailable, cleared by the kidneys; avoid in renal dysfunction.

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LMWH Uses

Used to prevent clots, treat DVT/PE, or as bridge therapy.

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Protamine & LMWH

Inconsistent/unpredictable reversal.

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LMWH Pre-op Hold Time

Hold for 12 hours before surgery.

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LMWH & Neuraxial Anesthesia Risk

Increased risk of hematoma formation.

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LMWH Delay (Prophylactic)

Delay nerve blocks/neuraxial anesthesia for 10-12 hours (prophylactic dose).

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LMWH Delay (Therapeutic)

Hold for 24 hours following therapeutic LMWH.

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Pre-op LMWH Hold

Holding LMWH for 12 hours.

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Regional Anesthesia & LMWH

Consider the risk of spinal hematoma.

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PNB w/ Prophylactic LMWH

Delay for 10-12 hours

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Heparin's Protein Binding

Bound heparin is inactive, affecting its overall effectiveness.

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Heparin Resistance

Initial suspicion should be antithrombin III deficiency.

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Heparin in Pregnancy

Lower plasma levels and reduced efficacy due to changing clotting factors.

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Monitoring Heparin

Monitoring factor Xa levels is more reliable than aPTT for assessing effectiveness.

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Heparin and Placenta

Heparin does not cross the placental barrier, so does not directly affect the fetus.

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Heparin in Pediatrics

Use preservative-free heparin to avoid potential mortality and morbidity.

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Heparin's Site of Action

Primarily targets factors XII, XI, IX, X, and thrombin (IIa) in the intrinsic and common pathways.

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Major Heparin Targets

Primarily targets factor Xa and thrombin (IIa).

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Heparin and Neuraxial Anesthesia

Delay neuroaxial procedures based on heparin type and dosage (4-24 hours).

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Neuraxial Anesthesia

Spinal and epidural anesthesia.

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Neuraxial Contraindications

Avoid neuraxial anesthesia due to risk of hematoma and neurological deficits.

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Reversing Anticoagulation

Between anesthesia, surgery, and relevant specialists, risks must be evaluated

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Urgent Cases

If neuroaxial/regional technique is required

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Case-by-Case

Assess risks/benefits individually.

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Warfarin

Vitamin K antagonist that inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase.

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Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase

Converts inactive vitamin K dependent factors into their active form.

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Warfarin's Primary Pathways

Extrinsic and final common pathway.

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Coumarin derivative

It is a plant derivative with 100% bioavailability.

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Warfarin Onset

8-12 hours.

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Warfarin Metabolism and Excretion

Liver (metabolized), biliary and renal (excreted).

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Warfarin Monitoring

PT and INR.

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Warfarin Indications

VTE prophylaxis, systemic emboli, stroke, valve replacement, Afib.

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Warfarin Discontinuation

3-5 days before surgery.

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Emergency Warfarin Reversal

FFP (fresh frozen plasma).

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IV Vitamin K Administration

Slowly, to avoid anaphylaxis, and may take up to 24 hours.

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Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC)

Immediate reversal of warfarin effects.

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FFP (Mechanism for Reversal)

Contains all clotting factors, reversing warfarin's effects.

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INR Target on Warfarin

A target of 2 to 3.

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Plavix Mechanism

Active metabolite of Plavix blocks ADP from binding to P2Y12 receptor, preventing platelet activation cascade.

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Plavix Pre-Surgery

Stop Plavix 5-7 days before elective high-risk surgery due to bleeding risk.

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Post-PCI Surgery Delay

Avoid high-risk surgery for a year after PCI with a drug-eluting stent if possible.

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Kangarooora

Short-acting IV P2Y12 inhibitor used as an adjunct to PCI to reduce MI risk.

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Kangarooora Perioperative

Potential to use as an antiplatelet up until surgery due to its short half-life.

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GP IIb/IIIa Antagonists

GP IIb/IIIa antagonists block fibrinogen from linking platelets, preventing aggregation.

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GP IIb/IIIa Bridge Therapy

GP IIb/IIIa antagonists may be used as a 'bridge' when Plavix is stopped, but antiplatelet effect is still needed.

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Tyrofiban Recovery Time

50% platelet recovery approximately 4 hours after stopping Tyrofiban.

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GP IIb/IIIa antagonists Timing

Discontinue at least 4 hours before surgery.

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Thrombolytics Mechanism

Convert plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin breaks down clots.

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Thrombolytics Indication

Restore circulation through an occluded vessel.

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Thrombolytics Side Effects

Hemorrhage and angioedema.

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Thrombolytics Contraindications

Contraindicated within 2 days of regional anesthesia or surgery.

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Post-Thrombolytic Monitoring

Monitor patient every 2 hours for neurological deficit.

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Post-Thrombolytic Assessment

Assess the return of motor function making sure function returns.

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Coumadin Reversal Options

Vitamin K, Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), and Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC).

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Coumadin Reversal Speed

For urgent/emergent cases, use FFP or prothrombin complex concentrate. Vitamin K can be given IV or PO, with varying onset times.

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Heparin Onset

IV administration has an immediate onset, while subcutaneous has a delayed onset (1-2 hours).

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Heparin Resistance Cause

Low antithrombin III levels, treat with FFP.

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Coumadin Site of Action

The liver.

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Coumadin-like Drug Example

Warfarin. It works in the liver.

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Therapeutic LMWH Hold Time

24 hours before surgery.

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Antithrombin III Function

Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factors IIa (thrombin) and Xa, and partially inhibits factors IX, XI, and XII.

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Antithrombin III Cofactor

Heparin.

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Endogenous Heparin Source

Mast cells and basophils.

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Antithrombin III Deficiency Causes

Liver disease (cirrhosis) or nephrotic syndrome.

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Plasminogen

Inactive form of plasmin.

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Plasmin Function

Breaks down clots.

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Plasminogen Activator

Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA).

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Protein C Activation

Thrombin and thrombomodulin complex.

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Eryxtra (Arixtra)

A synthetic anticoagulant that indirectly inhibits Factor Xa. It is administered subcutaneously.

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Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

Parenteral drugs that directly inhibit Thrombin (Factor IIa).

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Pradaxa (Dabigatran)

An oral direct thrombin inhibitor.

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Aspirin

A platelet inhibitor that irreversibly acetylates cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2), with greater effect on COX-1.

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Aspirin Mechanism

Aspirin irreversibly blocks the enzyme needed for platelet activation and plug formation.

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Plavix (Clopidogrel)

A prodrug that requires metabolism to become active. It irreversibly binds to the P2Y12 receptor, inhibiting ADP binding.

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P2Y12 Receptor

G protein-coupled receptor on platelets, targeted by drugs like Plavix to prevent activation and aggregation.

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Aspirin Hold Time

Should be held 7-10 days prior to surgery, especially in large doses, due to its irreversible effect on platelets.

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Eryxtra Indications

Used as an alternative to heparin in patients with HIT or a history of HIT.

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Pradaxa and Regional Anesthesia

The manufacturer says regional anesthesia is contraindicated in a patient on Pradaxa (dabigatran).

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Direct Factor 10a Inhibitors - Uses

Used to help reduce stroke and for DVT prophylaxis; should be held 1-2 days before surgery.

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Aspirin Mechanism of Action

Inhibits cyclooxygenase, preventing the formation of thromboxane A2, important for platelet activation.

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Aspirin Duration of Action

Aspirin's effects last for the life of the platelet (7-10 days) due to irreversible blockade.

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Plavix Mechanism of Platelet Inhibition

Irreversible binding inhibits ADP binding, which normally leads to platelet activation and aggregation.

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Pradaxa and Regional Anesthesia

The last recommendation I saw related to regional anesthesia is that the manufacturer says that regional anesthesia is contraindicated in a patient on Pradaxa or dabigatrin.

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Drug Mix-up

Dangerous event where similar-looking drugs are accidentally switched, leading to severe consequences.

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Treatment for Drug Errors

Treatment primarily involves managing symptoms with no specific antidote.

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CSF Flushing

In severe cases, methods like EVD and spinal drains may be used to flush out the CSF.

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Protamine

A polypeptide base that inactivates heparin through acid-base neutralization.

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Protamine and LMWH

Protamine is less effective at reversing the effects of LMWH.

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Protamine's Action

Inhibits platelets and proteases; cleared quickly by the reticuloendothelial system.

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Protamine Dosage

One milligram of protamine for every 100 units of circulating heparin.

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Heparin Rebound

The clearance of heparin may outlast protamine's effects.

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Protamine Side Effects

Hypotension, anaphylaxis, pulmonary vasoconstriction, and RV failure.

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DDAVP Mechanism

Desmopressin increases the release of endogenous stores of von Willebrand Factor and Factor 8.

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DDAVP Purpose

Given to help primary hemostasis and platelet plug formation.

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DDAVP Infusion

Administer 0.3 mcg/kg over 15-30 minutes.

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Timing of DDAVP

Typically initiated by pre-operative nurses to coordinate with surgery.

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DDAVP Duration

Duration of action is about 4-6 hours.

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DDAVP's Speed

Helps increase platelet adhesion within 30 minutes.

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Fibrinolytic Shutdown

In trauma, the body's natural clot-dissolving process is inhibited, increasing clotting risks.

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Late TXA Risks

Giving TXA too late may worsen the shutdown, increasing clot-related risks.

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Aprotinin Action

Inhibits plasmin to reduce bleeding during surgery.

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Aprotinin in the US

Due to safety concerns (Europe removed Amicar for similar reasons).

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Antifibrinolytics Adverse Effect

Thrombus formation.

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TXA and Recent VTE

If recent DVT/PE, consider topical use or holding TXA.

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TXA Risk Assessment

Individualized risk assessment is needed due to limited evidence.

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TXA Contraindications

Known hypercoagulable state is a contraindication.

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Pre-op Assessment for TXA

Assess pre-op and discuss with the surgeon.

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Other TXA Contraindications

Vascular anastomosis, DIC, seizure history (relative).

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TXA Dose and Seizure Risk

Risk increases significantly above 4 grams.

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Aminocaproic Acid Risks

Renal injury reports.

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Wrong-Route TXA

Anti-fibrinolytics (TXA) given neuraxially by mistake instead of local anesthetic.

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Wrong-Route TXA Consequences

Back pain, leg pain, seizures, cardiac arrest, mortality (50%).

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Why Wrong-Route TXA Happens

Because vials look similar to local anesthetics and used at same time.

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Hypercoagulable State (Protein C or S Deficiency)

A condition where the blood clots too easily due to deficiency in protein C or S.

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Protein S and Protein C Function

These help the body prevent blood from clotting too much; they are on the anticoagulant side.

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Antifibrinolytics

Medications that help reduce bleeding and the need for blood transfusions by preventing the breakdown of clots.

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Aminocaproic Acid (Amicar/Epsilon-aminocaproic acid)

A synthetic antifibrinolytic that inhibits the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

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Tranexamic Acid (TXA)

Another antifibrinolytic drug which inhibits plasminogen to plasmin.

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Tranexamic Acid high dose effect

In high doses, it can directly inhibit any plasma that's already been activated.

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Tranexamic Acid (TXA) Routes of Administration

IV (parenteral), topical, and oral.

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Common Uses of Tranexamic Acid (TXA)

Menstruating women to reduce blood loss, surgical patients at risk of bleeding, trauma patients, and cardiac/orthopedic surgeries.

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Surgeon Preference: Topical vs. IV TXA

May prefer one method over another; IV can have more systemic effects, topical is more localized.

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Safety Concern of TXA

A potential, dose-related concern associated with tranexamic acid.

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Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)

Hemorrhage following childbirth, often due to the uterus not contracting properly.

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TXA for Postpartum Hemorrhage

Administer one gram of TXA as soon as possible.

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TXA Dose During Surgery

Typically a gram of TXA just before incision.

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TXA for trauma patients.

One gram as soon as possible after the injury.

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DDAVP Function

A synthetic analogue of vasopressin that stimulates the release of factor 8 and von Willebrand factor from vascular endothelial cells.

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DDAVP Risks

There is the potential for hypotension due to rapid administration and hyponatremia with use in pediatric patients.

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Fibrinogen (Factor 1) Function

Factor 1 is essential for stable clot formation; an enzyme substrate for thrombin factor 13a and plasmin; binds to platelet receptor Gp 2b 3a.

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Fibrinogen Use

Fibrinogen can be given to replace fibrinogen loss due to hemorrhage or hemodilution.

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Low Fibrinogen Effects

Low fibrinogen levels can increase PT and PTT.

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Cryo Dosing

One unit per 10 kg increases fibrinogen by 50 to 70 mg/dL.

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Recombinant Factor 7a

Used for management of bleeding and hemophilia, and off-label uses like cardiac surgery; it forms a complex with tissue factor.

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Factor 7a Pathway

Tissue factor pathway (Factor 3 activates 7a). Part of the extrinsic pathway.

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Recombinant Factor Use

Recombinant factors can quickly improve clotting ability when transfusions are not the best option.

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Protamine-Induced Hypotension Cause

It is caused by histamine activation, leading to histamine release.

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Topical Hemostatic Agents

Topical agents used by surgeons to cause vessel embolization or mechanical obstruction to slow blood flow and promote clot formation.

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Absorbable Agents

Swell when hydrated, causing mechanical obstruction and promoting clot formation.

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Topical Agents Hint

Surgical struggles with a bleeder.

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Topical Thrombin

Human-derived is better than bovine-derived.

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TXA and Topical

These agents should work faster together.

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Study Notes

Facial Hair Filter

  • Some people experimented with a facial hair filter

Weather

  • Charlotte went from nearly 80 degrees on Sunday to around 39 degrees.
  • There was no snow in Charlotte.
  • New Hampshire got 2 feet of snow.
  • Charlotte is somewhat shielded from snowfall.
  • The speaker has been living in Charlotte for 3 years.
  • Charlotte can be considered to be in a heat dome.

Exam and ADC Meeting

  • The educator will be flying to Tucson for an anesthesia educators meeting.
  • Availability for meetings will be limited, especially before Sunday morning.
  • Availability will be open Monday.
  • Questions can be sent via email.
  • There will the normal class meeting.

Test Details

  • The upcoming test will focus on drug classes and will feel different from the first test.
  • Plan for approximately 60 questions.
  • There will be a group activity will take place at 11AM
  • Focus study efforts on essential information.
  • Understanding the mechanism of action for each drug class down to the cellular level is critical.
  • Knowledge of the physiology is related to the mechanism of the drug class.
  • There needs to be recognition the names of drugs within each class.
  • The clinical and side effects of each drug class is an area of focus.
  • The impact on lab values and the possible treatment options must be evaluated.
  • Focus study efforts on the main adverse effects associated with different drug classes.
  • Pay special attention to specific drugs the instructor emphasizes.
  • Knowledge anesthetic considerations for drugs is necessary.
  • There is a need to draw out mechanisms and understanding receptors to know how ions flow.
  • Memorization of unique facts that differentiate the drugs from one another.
  • You should know drug doses and routes with the information that has been provided.
  • Each question simulates board exams so that you get used to them.
  • The upcoming tests will progressively get longer to build up the stamina to be able to sit to complete them.
  • A cumulative exam is expected at the end

Hemostasis Review

  • A review of hemostasis and coagulation
  • The topic will cover both procoagulation and anticoagulation

Normal Blood Vessels

  • Endothelial cells line blood vessels and release nitric oxide.
  • Nitric oxide promotes vasodilation to increase blood flow
  • Prostacyclin has beneficial effects.
  • Prostacyclin, combined with platelet receptors to prevent the activation and aggregation of platelets.
  • The body is designed to respond to injury without over-responding.

Injury to a Blood Vessel

  • Extrinsic or intrinsic damage can occur to your blood vessels.
  • Collagen and connective tissue provides structural support to the blood vessel.
  • Disruption causes the activation of platelets.
  • Release mediators, such as serotonin, to cause vasoconstriction.
  • Vasoconstriction decreases blood flow in the area.
  • Platelets adhere to the vessel surface and form a platelet plug.
  • Vasoconstriction in this area helps to slow down the blood flow in the area.

Three Phases of Primary Hemostasis

  • Adhesion, activation, and aggregation.

Adhesion

  • Endothelial cells break, and collagen is exposed.
  • Platelet adhesion occurs to the subendothelial collagen layer.
  • Endothelial cells create and release factor 8 (von Willebrand).
  • Von Willebrand tethers a platelet to a collagen receptor.
  • Issues with von Willebrand production (von Willebrand disease) impairs primary hemostasis.
  • Bleeding time increases in the setting of Von Willebrand disease.
  • Platelet count and other lab values can be normal, except bleeding time.
  • DDAVP releases endogenous stores of von Willebrand
  • Cryo can also be given because it contains factor 8.
  • Cryo is rich in 1, 8, 13.

Adherence

  • The platelets are activated.
  • Round platelets mean they are unactivated.
  • Activated platelets take on this sort of starfish shape.

Activation

  • Thrombin (activated factor 2) binds the thrombin receptor on the platelet.
  • Platelets change into the starfish shape.
  • Thromboxane A2 and adenosine diphosphate (ADP) are released.
  • Thromboxane A2 and ADP are responsible for platelet activation and aggregation.
  • Appendages on platelet help hook onto another platelet.

Thromboxane A2

  • Induces vasoconstriction
  • Encourages platelets to activate and aggregate.

Aggregation

  • Thromboxane A2 uncovers a fibrinogen receptor.
  • Fibrinogen binds and helps to link the platelets.
  • A water-soluble clot can form.
  • The clot isn't stable and can break off easily. This is sometimes called temporary hemostasis.
  • Primary hemostasis is just a platelet plug

Prostacyclin

  • Inhibits platelet aggregation.
  • This prevents the plug from growing too large and occluding the vessel.

Primary Hemostasis

  • Resting platelet adheres with the help of Von Willebrand
  • ADP and thromboxane A2 uncover the fibrinogen receptor.
  • Fibrinogen provides links to bring in other activated platelets.

Secondary Hemostasis

  • A more stable clot forms and the building of fibrin occurs.
  • Coagulation cascades and clotting factors get involved.
  • Clot becomes thicker, cross-linked, water-insoluble, and stable.

Clotting Factors

  • Clotting factor one = fibrinogen made by the liver.
  • Factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 are vitamin K dependent
  • Thromboplastin comes from the vascular wall.
  • Von Willebrand factor comes from vascular endothelial cells.
  • Get familiar with all the clotting factors.

Secondary Hemostasis Model

  • Initiation, amplification, and propagation.

Extrinsic Pathway

  • Represents initiation.
  • Triggered by damage exterior to the vascular compartment.
  • Baseline level to prepare the body for potential damage.
  • Tissue factor pathway is known as factor 3 or thromboplastin.
  • Primary initiator.
  • Extrinsic damage triggers the release of thromboplastin (factor 3).
  • Factor 3 activates factor 7.
  • 3 and 7a form a complex with calcium (factor 4).
  • The complex activates factor 10, resulting in 10a.
  • Small amounts of thrombin are formed.

Initiation vs Amplification

  • To help with remembering, 3 + 7 = 10.

Intrinsic Pathway

  • Represents amplification.
  • Damage to a blood vessel increases activity.
  • A different pathway gets involved.

The Intrinsic Pathway gets involved

  • 12 becomes 12a that activates 11.
  • Activates 9.
  • 9 forms a complex with 8c and calcium on the platelet surface
  • Factor 10 is activated.
  • Results in amplification of thrombin (factor 2).

Hemophilia

  • Hemophilia A- deficiency in 8c.
  • Hemophilia B - deficiency in 9.

Amplification Phase

  • Continual thrombin formation by both pathways.

Final Common Pathway

  • Propagation phase
  • Factor 9a generated from extrinsic and intrinsic pathways.
  • 9a combines with 8a on a surface of a platelet where they are responsible for activating factor 10.

Problems Getting to Propagation

  • Patients may still be able to form clots, but clots won't be as stable.
  • Seepage through the vessel and damage around the clot can occur, so bleeding into other tissues, muscles, joints, etc.

Final Common Pathway

  • Activated factor 10 forms a complex with activated 5 and calcium.
  • Prothrombin is converted into thrombin.
  • Activation of thrombin is the primary goal of this pathway
  • Thrombin (2a) converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
  • Factor 13 is added to get covalent bonding.
  • Results in a stable clot

Final Common Pathway

  • Factor 10 to 5; prothrombin to thrombin.
  • Fibrinogen to fibrin.
  • Factor 13 provides stabilization for final clot.

Fibrinogen

  • Increased fibrinogen = more activity from platelet plug resulting in helping them to link together.
  • Gp2b3a receptor helps link pieces together.
  • Gp2b3a inhibitors target where therapy is being targeted on a cardiac floor.

Coag Testing Review

  • APTT looks at the intrinsic pathway and PT looks at the extrinsic pathway.
  • Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway look at different pathways on the way to a stable clot.

Prothrombin Time (PT)

  • Looks at extrinsic and final common pathway.
  • For detecting bleeding and monitor anticoagulant therapy, like warfarin.
  • Normal PT is about 11-14.
  • Labs use reagents to measure prothrombin time which results in use of the international normalized ratio (INR).
  • Normal INR is usually what we use in anesthesia, and if they’re on warfarin for an indication we look for it.
  • Usually a 1.5 - 2 INR is required to have surgery or anesthesia.
  • Prolonged value if decreased amounts of 7 and 5.

APTT

  • Intrinsic and final common pathway.
  • Same indications for this test as a PT.
  • Normal is 25-35 (values can vary by the lab).
  • Prolonged with hepatic dysfunction, leukemia, intrinsic factor or vitamin K deficiencies, and use of heparin or a related anticoagulant.

Chart

  • Serves to look at different conditions that can be associated with abnormalities in PT and PTT.

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

  • Intrinsic and final pathway.
  • Monitors heparinization or protamine antagonism
  • ACT is typically measured by procedure nurses, not typically by CRNAs.
  • Prolongation: hypothermia, thrombocytopenia, drugs, and factor deficiencies

Other Coag Tests

  • Bleeding time, platelet count, fibrinogen.
  • We want fibrinogen a little higher and sometimes a surgical goal of 180 - 200, minimum greater than 150
  • Tag and Tim are labs related to hemostasis and clot strength.

Anticoagulants

  • Used for cardiovascular procedures, preventing clots, cardiovascular disease, arrhythmias.
  • The question: should the patient hold the drug, get the drug, or continue it during the perioperative period.
  • Bleeding risk vs. risk for clot needs to be considered
  • Different classes have different recommendations for how long to hold them
  • Comorbidities and indication for giving anticoagulant is important.
  • Type of surgery is an important factor.
  • A patient may need bridge therapy if stoping an anticoagulant where they can be bridged to some low weight like Enoxaparin.
  • Assess anticoagulant status in the pre‐op assessment.
  • Know all the drugs from their regimen.

Heparin

  • Unfractionated (not separated into small vs. large molecules) or fractionated.
  • Naturally occurring, it is released by mast cells during inflammation.
  • Unfractionated form is derived from pig or cow
  • Indications: clots, cardiac disease, or perioperatively for anticoagulation.
  • Low molecular weight heparin can be unfractionated or fractionated.
  • Unfractionated heparin is made up of both high and low forms.
  • When referring to low molecular weight heparin, you are specifically saying the high weight was fractionated out so that the result would be the low.
  • Low molecular weight heparin can only be fractionated, unlike heparin just referring to the high/low molecular weight.

Heparin Mechanism

  • Reversibly binds antithrombin 3.
  • Increases antithrombin 3 activity by about 1-10,000 times
  • Factors Inhibited: thrombin, factor 10a, 12a, 11a, and 9a
  • Inhibits platelet activation by fibrin.
  • Antithrombin 3 is a protein that regulates and is the counterpoint for thrombin formation.
  • Counterpoint to formation 9a and 10a.
  • Increasing antithrombin to increase effectiveness thousands of times to inhibit effects.

Heparin Pharmacokinetics

  • IV has immediate onset
  • SubQ has onset in 1-2 hours
  • Giving IV doses in boluses with usually an infusion to get to the therapeutic level
  • Giving SubQ in order to lower chance of Thromboembolism
  • Effectiveness depends on different factors, and antithrombin is one of them. Low anithrombin presence means the Heparin is working against the body.
  • Effectiveness related to several factors relating to antithrombin 3
  • First thought with Heparin resistance is Low anithrombin 3.
  • Protein binding, or Genetic differences can contribute to low effective levels of heparin
  • Low plasma levels tend to occur during pregnancy so best monitor 10a factor
  • Heparin doesn’t cross placenta so pregnancy safe drug to use in the event it’s indicated however not a wealth of pregnancy data out there.
  • With pediatrics, use preservative free due to adverse effects of mortality so you can avoid morbidity.

Heparin - Sites of Action

  • Intrinsic primarily working on 12, 11, 9, 10, and thrombin.
  • Little bit of work in the final site of action but primarily works on intrinsic.

Anesthetic Considerations

  • Review Medications/Labs/Last time when heparin was given.
  • Need to consider dose, route, renal function, patient comorbidities, and the surgical procedure itself.
  • There are a couple slides with small differences so check slide on canvas.
  • Regional Anesthesia consideration has varying amounts of time dependent on dose like whether or not they’re therapeutic wise, and depends on how long they're scheduled to be on the medication.
  • If the risks can be reduced in using a neuroaxial or regional anasthetic technique, discuss with surgeon and specialist on if a reversal technique is indicated to reduce the risks with anesthetic plans.

Heparin

  • Avoid any coagulopathy as poking around the area with a needle can be unsafe.
  • Risks of nerve damage that could lead to paralysis as well in neurological deficits.
  • Monitor deficits and recheck on functions coming back once anticoagulants wear off.
  • The recommendation of low dose regional might be slightly altered without the need for interruption, due to practice differences of providers.
  • Get in the practice of trying to learn the guidelines and look up on what type of drugs when approaching a type of plan for surgery.

Contraindications

  • Monitor ACT or APTT the Goal whether Act reaches 3,400 or with APTT is 1 ½ or 2 ½ is normal

Hit - Heparin

  • Antibodies that make to a formed protein called platelet four (that is not a clotting factor).
  • End up with platelet activation causing aggregation thrombosis, and allergic reaction
  • Cause severe thrombocytopenia so 50 percent drop count or 100,000.
  • Hours Reaction, very bad reaction happening with 4-5 days.

Molecular Weight, Heparin - Low

  • 10a> 2a
  • Is more predictable due to less protien binding
  • Give SubQ with 100 Percent avaliability
  • Effectiveness decreases with reduced renal function.
  • Monitoring of 10a may be necessary if trying to achieve therapeutics
  • Protamine does not have effectiveness, do not use. Protamine response is ineffective.
  • Subq is still only a low molecular factor.

Anesthesia Considerations (Heparin - Low Molecular Weight Heparin)

  • Surgery: Held for 12 hours before surgery
  • Spinal and Epidural: At risk for spinal hematoma
  • Prophylactic Dosing. Hold dose 12 HR
  • High Dosing Hold dose 24 HR
  • You might get an anticoagulant guideline based on dose or other factors.
  • Refer to SRA for more specifics.

Warfarin

  • Vitamin K antagonist
  • Vitamin K, Epoxide Reductase converts Vitamin K dependent enzymes to active forms.
  • Inhibits that particular enzyme.
  • Oral drug absorbed well
  • Delayed onset of 8 hours, and peak of a few days.
  • Variable Dosing with a risk of mortality if you have with a pregnant pt
  • Monitor Pt and INR With about 2 to 3 therapy
  • Liver disease can change affectivness. Other factors, such as no diet, can play a factor.
  • The recommendation of stopping is about three to five days if needing discontinue pt needs continue day of surgery.
  • A couple of other options. FFP to a total of three to four units of therapeutic in emergency.
  • Vitamin k helps but 3 to 4 to 24 to help regulate.
  • Prothrombin helps but is less readily available.

Extra drugs that affect pathway

  • Eryxatra: blocks active levels from binding.
  • Direct of action : inhibits pathways monitoring APTT ,4 to 6 hours.
  • Pradaxa : No data around it. Just skip the patient. Contraindicated

Antiplatelet Drugs

  • Try not getting too picky on these drugs that we that will give because you aren’t the ones that give them

Asprin

  • Blocks pro inflammatory responses, like for platelets/Thromboxane a which activates platelets.
  • Has higher irreversible effect on blocking platelets. Irreversibly blocks platelets from doing what is necessary, so we prefer you not to take asprin but not a high major thing with baby asprin

Non Competitve Drugs

  • irreversibly blocks that they can’t be activated, let it wear off so new platelet forms

Plavix

  • Needs to metabolized to its active version
  • Also prevents activation in primary hemostasis.
  • Irreversible binding from this drug blocks chain activation of primary
  • Has resistance.
  • Used to prevent patients from forming a stent to help keep coronary artery open, best recommendation.

Cardio Meds

  • Avoid high risk surgery for 1 year that can cause you to bleed out.
  • Bare metal stent, 1 month.
  • Can be patient and condition dependent with what they need, such as some taking asprin and others taking this one.
  • Kangaroo is short acting for helping and blocking. With a rate for 3-6 minutes.

Antagonists

  • Block platelets from bonding. Reduce risk like Kanaroo
  • Give all the way out close to operation, so good because still have benefit need by platelets
  • Discontinue for almost 2 hours to have 50% recovery

Thrombolytics

  • break clot, so can restore circulation to areas blocked. TPA, Stroke, but if this goes wrong can have hemorrhage
  • Angioedema as well, that blocks breathing.
  • Avoid 2 days of anesthetic techniques and assess every two hours for neurological damage
  • Assess every 2 hours if given Thrombolytics

Physiology Of Anticoagulation

  • Blocks and binds so it has limited function with what its doing
  • And requires heparin as a cofactor so it works with heparin
  • Therefore liver and cirrhosis helps help in the activation and regulation pathways
  • Patients that have nephrotic syndrome can also have their vessels damaged due to having extra protein in the urine

Tissue Plasmin

  • helps clot from growing, made in our body the
  • helps release into circulation, go into that clot, and help break that clot apart.
  • To help keep the vessels open to provide normal access blood that is important.

What Clots Do

  • A little yellow substance to help help separate things during function.
  • Proteins C and S are to helping the body
  • Thrombin Helps binds to help no effectiveness.

Anti Fibrinolytics

  • Reduce risk of Bleeding and reduce for transfusion.
  • Cardiac to Ortho to Trauma
  • Amicar stops activating plasma from functioning.
  • Tranexamic acid TXA reduces blood loss of plasma

Cardiac Ortho Trauma uses TXA

  • Potent over Amicar so parenteral route is usually indicated over a topical.
  • Menstruating women benefit taking taking over other ones
  • Surgeron Preference
  • Safe concerns are limited.
  • Does blockade GABA in the body

PPH

  • Postpartum hemorrage. Approved indication for it.
  • Recommendation
  • Gram of PPH ASAP
  • Surgeon want it at Incision and at End.
  • Trauma you have a risk, trauma already hard time, so it also causes problems
  • So the risks can inhibit activation

Aprontinin

  • Inhibits body to help not cause damage to organs to help get it where you need those functions necessary

With AntiFibriniolic are issues such as

  • High likely Hood of Trombus
  • We don’t what parameters should indicated for the patients.
  • If history of DVT PE, but not enough data what levels are problematic for certain people.
  • Contra such as that one if know hypercoagulable so assess during pre op
  • Dvt within 6 months or hold in general.
  • Check pre-conditions when necessary for assessment to help know what you have to watch out for
  • And can have vascular such as Dice disorder that can lead to damage
  • Have pt also that has siezure history also can increase risks.

Med Neg Consequences with giving antifibrinolytics

  • If the ampoule and and needle cause same symptoms such stroke, it would for the patient with the loss function of pain.
  • It had report recently of antiallergicanitcs in spinal by reports that would not use spinal with it, or be careful with spinal and that anti cancer
  • Patient would feel back pain to legs seizure to Fib and mortality rates around 50% rate
  • A way to see effects in a neurological patient with a coma for many weeks
  • They drain Csf fluid and that is dangerous.
  • If giving near spine, can cause issues as the solution could have issues.

Polypeptide

  • Acid base solution and what is negative neutralizes each reaction.
  • Not effective with many medications
  • Has more risk for rebound
  • So clearance of heptrin with higher side effects causes too much effects
  • Slow in administering, rapid can causes side effects
  • Interactions.

Vasopressin (desmopressin Ddavid)

  • Help increase and stimulates release by factor one for the patient.
  • So von brand and fact eight helps plate plug

Patient needs infusion there needs some certain conditions

  • .003 mics per kilo over 20 30 minutes is average rate
  • Primary usually gets infusion started
  • Is necessary to ask and communicate , usually ordered before you get there as well, what to look for to see if it needs already has started

Fibrinogen

  • 1 factor that you want to have

Has to do with stable clot

  • Binds platelets
  • Can give it if lot of loss
  • Get about 150 goal
  • Normal about 200
  • Lows can increase pt,ptt

Cryogen

  • Unit over 10 factor you can increase about 50 -500
  • Recombinant
  • Factor helps bleeding hemophilia with a complex tissue and what it is combined
  • But Doesn’t correct underline or effect.

Extrinsic PathWays

  • Form of way to assess. Transfusion is quicker
  • Stabilizes common pathway
  • Can cause a few problems
  • Protamine , help know that these can causes hypotension

Hemostatic and topical

  • Helps cause veslels to emboliation
  • Gel form- surgicel,seal what usually asked for if bleeding usually
  • Toxin or other things like blood you may use .
  • Can you toxin the topical.
  • Can you toxin the top. If its the opposite how come if needs to be used .

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