Post-Mortem Examination Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of a medicolegal autopsy?

  • To confirm a clinical diagnosis of the deceased's illness
  • To ascertain the cause of death when fault is suspected (correct)
  • To evaluate the effectiveness of medical treatments administered
  • To determine the biological age of the deceased
  • Who is recognized for conducting the first known legal autopsy?

  • A Bologna magistrate
  • Bartolomeo de Varignana (correct)
  • An unnamed forensic scientist
  • Song Ci
  • In what type of setting is a routine hospital autopsy typically performed?

  • In public health institutions for disease understanding
  • In academic settings for educational purposes
  • In private hospitals to determine the reason for death (correct)
  • In military hospitals to investigate war casualties
  • What was one of the topics addressed in Song Ci's work 'the washing away of the wrongs'?

    <p>Hypovolemic shock effects in accident victims</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is a medico-legal autopsy typically requested?

    <p>When a magistrate suspects foul play</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary characteristics of putrefaction in tissues?

    <p>Production of foul-smelling gases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What discoloration is often observed in the abdomen 48 hours after death?

    <p>Greenish tinge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what time interval after death does rigor mortis typically occur?

    <p>6 to 12 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one observable change in the body that indicates autolysis begins shortly after death?

    <p>Softening of the muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much does the body temperature typically drop per hour after death, indicating algor mortis?

    <p>7ºF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of well-differentiated cells indicate in CIN grading?

    <p>CIN0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CIN classification indicates evidence of invasive carcinoma?

    <p>CIN4b</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of scirrhous tumors?

    <p>Cells trapped in fibrous tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification is used to describe benign tumors originating from connective or mesenchymal tissues?

    <p>Oma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which grade indicates the absence of atypical cells in the Papanicolaou grading system?

    <p>Grade I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a T3 primary tumor classification indicate?

    <p>Tumor diameter greater than 2 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which grade in Broder's Classification represents 50-75% differentiated cells?

    <p>Grade II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cancer is indicated by the term adenocarcinoma?

    <p>Solid glandular epithelium malignant tumor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of group IV in The Bethesda System?

    <p>Carcinoma in situ</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes Grade IV in tumor grading?

    <p>75-100% undifferentiated cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color represents DNA when using the Feulgen technique?

    <p>Red Purple</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which staining technique is used to demonstrate RNA in a sample?

    <p>Methyl green - pyronin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color do lipids appear when stained with Sudan IV?

    <p>Red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following staining techniques specifically detects glycogen?

    <p>Periodic acid Schiff with diastase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color indicates the presence of nuclei when staining for carbohydrates using PAS?

    <p>Blue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique would you use to identify monoamine oxidase activity?

    <p>Tetrazolium method</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end color of the cytoplasm of plasma cells when stained using methyl green - pyronin?

    <p>Purple</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances does not produce red or magenta red when stained with PAS?

    <p>Lipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color does RNA appear when using acridine orange fluorescent staining?

    <p>Brick to orange-red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary color seen in the nuclei when staining with methyl green - pyronin?

    <p>Green</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following circumstances require a medico-legal autopsy?

    <p>All deaths due to suspicious cases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do livor mortis, rigor mortis, and decomposition represent?

    <p>Signs and changes that occur following death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT fall under the jurisdiction of a medico-legal autopsy?

    <p>Death of a patient attended by a physician within 36 hours prior to their death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does somatic death refer to?

    <p>A definitive state of bodily death or cessation of life functions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition is a medico-legal autopsy required for natural deaths?

    <p>If there is no private physician involved within 36 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following situations would necessitate a medico-legal autopsy in relation to violent deaths?

    <p>All cases of violent deaths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which change in the body is primarily associated with decomposition?

    <p>Putrefaction and breakdown of body tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would typically happen to a body that has undergone livor mortis?

    <p>It shows distinct discoloration in dependent areas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of avidin in the avidin-biotin complex?

    <p>React with biotin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following antigens is considered an oncofetal antigen?

    <p>Carcinoembryonic Antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique involves the use of an indirect antibody-enzyme complex?

    <p>Peroxidase-Antiperoxidase Technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of Prostate Specific Antigen in clinical diagnostics?

    <p>Diagnosing prostatic adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which marker is highly specific for myogenic tumors?

    <p>Desmin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What types of tumors are most commonly positive for vimentin?

    <p>Mesenchymal tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents the correct staining sequence in the Avidin-Biotin technique?

    <p>Primary antibody → Biotinylated secondary antibody → Streptavidin-enzyme conjugate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what condition is the intermediate filament marker 'Desmin' expressed?

    <p>Muscle differentiation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical positive result for the Epithelial Membrane Antigen?

    <p>Adenocarcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary application of Thyroid Transcription Factor-1 in diagnostics?

    <p>Distinguishing lung adenocarcinomas from mesotheliomas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which histological marker is used to evaluate epithelial cell tumors?

    <p>Keratin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of tumor is likely to be negative for the S-100 protein marker?

    <p>Epithelial tumors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the Avidin-Biotin Technique is true?

    <p>It can detect signals 4 to 8 times more sensitively than the old ABC method.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CIN classification indicates the presence of severe dysplasia?

    <p>CIN3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary histological characteristic of medullary tumors?

    <p>Soft and highly malignant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which grade in the Papanicolaou grading system suggests the presence of atypical cells but no conclusive evidence of malignancy?

    <p>Grade II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a T1 classification indicate in the TNM system?

    <p>Tumor diameter less than 1 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to benign tumors originating from connective tissue?

    <p>Oma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Broder's Classification, which grade would have 75-100% differentiated cells?

    <p>Grade I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of the scirrhous tumor type?

    <p>More connective tissue than cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the classification of tumors based on their grade, which grade indicates that 0-25% of the cells are differentiated?

    <p>Grade IV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a carcinoma?

    <p>Malignant tumor of epithelial origin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of Grade IVa in the Papanicolaou grading system?

    <p>Carcinoma in situ</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of an invasive carcinoma indicate in terms of tumor grading?

    <p>Maximal evidence of malignancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of sarcoma originates in adipose tissue?

    <p>Liposarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an implication of a tumor classified as T2 in the TNM system?

    <p>Tumor is 1-2 cm in diameter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Post-Mortem Examination (Autopsy)

    • An autopsy, also known as a necropsy, is a post-mortem examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death.
    • It involves examining tissues and organs to identify any injuries or diseases that may have contributed to death.
    • Consent from next of kin is required unless the death is suspicious or under legal investigation (e.g., homicide, unexplained death).
    • Autopsies are categorized as complete, limited (partial), or selective, depending on the extent of the examination.

    Preparations Before an Autopsy

    • Administrative preparations include obtaining informed consent, reviewing medical records, and contacting the clinical team and pathologist.
    • The autopsy room needs to be set up, including dissection instruments, tools, and confirming the decedent's identity.
    • Next of kin consent is required unless the circumstances necessitate a medico-legal investigation.

    Role of Medical Technologists in Autopsies

    • Medical technologists assist in specimen collection and processing.
    • They maintain quality control in records and specimens.
    • They dispose of analytes.

    Autopsy History

    • Recorded autopsies begin with Julius Caesar's autopsy in 44 BC.
    • Dr. Rudolf Virchow is considered the father of modern pathology.
    • The "Washing Away of Wrongs" was a key medical text in forensic medicine.

    Levels of Autopsy

    • Complete: Examination of all body cavities.
    • Limited (partial): Examination of all body cavities excluding the head or brain
    • Selective: Examination of only specific organs.
    • Required in cases of suspicious deaths (e.g., accidents, homicides, suicides).
    • It involves determining the cause and manner of death.
    • Autopsies done without consent in cases of legal concerns.

    Methods of Establishing Time of Death

    • Algor mortis (cooling of the body): The body cools down at a rate of 1–2.5°F per hour.
    • Livor mortis (blood settling): Blood pooling in dependent portions of the body, visible in 20 minutes to minutes after death, fully evident in 8-12 hours.
    • Rigor mortis (muscle stiffening): Stiffening of the muscles starting 2 hours after death, peaks from 6–12 hours, resolves 36-72 hours after.

    Other Postmortem Changes

    • Tache noir de sclérotique: Drying and wrinkling of the cornea and anterior chamber of eyes.
    • Putrefaction: Foul-smelling gases produced by saprophytic organisms and greenish-blue discoloration in the belly.

    Tissue Preparation and Staining Techniques (for Histopathology and Immunohistochemistry)

    • Numerous techniques exist (e.g., Feulgen for DNA, hematoxylin and eosin for general tissue staining).
    • Different techniques are used for specific tissues and to assess the presence of different proteins or cellular components.
    • Methods for preparing frozen sections, and using different fixatives.

    Types of Biopsies

    • Several methods exist for obtaining biopsy samples (incisional, excisional, shave).
    • The specific procedure depends on the location and characteristics of the tissue.

    Types of Cells in Cervical Smears

    • Mature superficial cells (most common), intermediate cells, parabasal cells, and their structural characteristics (nuclear size, cytoplasm color).
    • Abnormal cells (eg. koilocytes, inflammatory cells).

    Additional Information

    • The text also describes the TNM staging system for cancers.
    • Additional details on histological characteristics of tumor cells, and other different cell types.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on the process of autopsy and its significance in determining causes of death. This quiz covers the types of autopsies, necessary preparations, and the roles involved in the examination. Enhance your understanding of this critical field in forensic science.

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