Pharmacology Concepts Quiz
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What is a characteristic of a Competitive Inhibition reaction?

In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding. This leads to an increase in the EC50 (concentration required for half-maximal effect) while the Vmax (maximum reaction rate) remains unchanged.

Which agent can oppose methotrexate's adverse effects?

Leucovorin, also known as folinic acid, is a reduced form of folic acid that can rescue cells from the toxic effects of methotrexate by providing a different substrate for dihydrofolate reductase.

What is used to treat acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is used to treat acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms like nausea, tremors, and hallucinations. It works by enhancing the effects of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, in the brain.

Which agent acts as an α2-receptor agonist to reduce muscle spasm?

Tizanidine acts as an α2-receptor agonist in the spinal cord, reducing muscle spasm by inhibiting the release of excitatory neurotransmitters like glutamate and acetylcholine.

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How many prednisolone tablets are needed for the patient's regimen?

The question is asking for the total number of tablets required to administer a specific dosage regimen of prednisolone. To determine this, you need to calculate the total milligrams of prednisolone needed for each day and then figure out how many tablets of each strength are required to achieve that dosage.

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What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?

The posterior pituitary gland stores and releases two hormones: antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water balance, and oxytocin, which plays a role in childbirth and lactation.

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What is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis?

Mevalonate is an early intermediate in cholesterol biosynthesis. It's formed from acetyl-CoA, and subsequent steps lead to squalene and lanosterol before cholesterol synthesis is complete.

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How much of a 6% w/v solution is needed for a 10 mg dose?

To deliver a single dose of 10 mg from a 6% w/v solution, use the formula: Desired dose (mg) / Concentration (% w/v) = Volume (mL). Therefore, 10 mg / 6% = 1.67 mL. The closest option is 1.6 mL, so the answer is approximately 0.16 mL.

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How much hydrocortisone powder is needed to make a 4% w/w ointment?

To calculate the amount of hydrocortisone powder needed to increase the concentration of the ointment from 1% to 4%, first calculate the difference in concentration (4% - 1% = 3%). Then multiply this difference by the initial weight of the ointment (3% * 200 g = 6 g).

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What process converts DNA to RNA?

Transcription is the process of copying genetic information from DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) into RNA (ribonucleic acid). It's the first step in gene expression, where DNA's code is transcribed into a messenger RNA molecule that can be used to make proteins.

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What vitamin deficiency can cause blindness?

Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is crucial for maintaining healthy vision. Deficiency can lead to night blindness and eventually irreversible blindness.

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Which medication's plasma concentration is not affected by cigarette smoking?

Cigarette smoking induces the activity of CYP1A2, an enzyme that metabolizes many medications. This increased metabolism can lead to lower plasma concentrations of various drugs, including clozapine, olanzapine, and methadone. However, digoxin is not metabolized by CYP1A2 to a significant extent, so its plasma concentration is not affected by cigarette smoking.

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What condition results from niacin deficiency?

Niacin deficiency causes pellagra, a disease characterized by the “three Ds”: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

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Estimate the volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient.

To calculate the volume of distribution (Vd), use the formula: Vd = Dose / Peak Concentration. In this case, Vd = 200 mg / 4 mg/L = 50 L. Therefore, the volume of distribution of phenytoin for this patient is 50 L.

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Calculate the loading dose of an antibiotic for a patient.

The loading dose for a drug is calculated using the formula: Loading Dose = Target Concentration × Vd. In this case, the target concentration is between 7 and 9 mg/L, and the Vd is 0.25 L/kg × (143 lb / 2.2 lb/kg) = 16.2 kg. Therefore, the loading dose should be between 113 mg and 146 mg.

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How can Zidovudine-induced neutropenia be managed?

Filgrastim, a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), promotes the production and release of neutrophils from the bone marrow. It is used to manage neutropenia, a decrease in neutrophils, which can occur during chemotherapy, especially with drugs like zidovudine.

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What does Abciximab inhibit?

Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the binding of fibrinogen to the platelet surface. This action helps prevent blood clots in patients undergoing coronary interventions.

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Where is iron stored?

Ferritin is a protein found in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow that stores iron. It serves as the primary iron storage depot in the body, providing a reserve when iron levels are low.

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What is the appropriate treatment for Iron deficiency anemia?

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by low red blood cell count, low hemoglobin levels, and low serum ferritin levels. As the body struggles to produce enough red blood cells, the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) increases to compensate for the iron deficiency.

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How is transfusional iron overload managed?

Deferoxamine is a chelating agent that binds to iron, effectively removing excess iron from the body. It is used to manage transfusional iron overload, which can occur in patients who receive frequent blood transfusions and accumulate iron.

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Which drug helps with neutrophil recovery in cancer patients?

Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more neutrophils. It is used in cancer patients to help recover neutrophil counts after chemotherapy, which often causes neutropenia, a decrease in neutrophils.

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What is the purpose of a FOBT?

FOBT (fecal occult blood test), also known as a guaiac smear test, is used to screen for colorectal cancer. It detects the presence of hidden blood in the stool, which can be an early sign of colorectal cancer.

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What can increase lithium toxicity?

Lithium, a mood stabilizer, is known to be sensitive to interactions with other medications. NSAIDs, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and low sodium intake can increase lithium levels in the blood, potentially leading to toxicity. While increasing sodium intake can generally help reduce lithium levels, it's essential to note that these interactions are complex and require careful monitoring by healthcare professionals.

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Where does Digoxin bind?

Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, binds to sodium/potassium-ATPase, an enzyme involved in regulating the transport of sodium and potassium ions across cell membranes. This binding alters the electrical activity of the heart, leading to a slower heart rate and improved contraction strength in patients with heart failure.

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What medication does not increase Digoxin toxicity?

Digoxin can interact with other medications, increasing the risk of toxicity. Amiodarone, verapamil, and quinidine also affect heart rhythm and can enhance digoxin's effects on the heart. However, colestipol, a bile acid sequestrant, does not interact with digoxin and does not pose an increased risk of toxicity.

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Which hormone is responsible for gluconeogenesis?

Glucagon, a hormone secreted by the pancreas, plays a crucial role in gluconeogenesis, the process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like lactate, amino acids, and glycerol. This occurs in the liver and helps maintain blood glucose levels when there is low blood sugar.

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What is the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin?

Oprelvekin, a thrombopoietin receptor agonist, promotes platelet production by activating receptors on megakaryocytes, the precursors of platelets. It is used to stimulate platelet production in patients with chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia (low platelet count).

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Which drug can increase Lamotrigine plasma levels?

Valproic acid, an anticonvulsant, inhibits glucuronidation, a key process in the metabolism of lamotrigine, another anticonvulsant. This interaction results in higher lamotrigine plasma levels, requiring careful monitoring of lamotrigine dosage in patients taking valproic acid.

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Which of these agents is NOT hepatotoxic?

Terbinafine, an antifungal medication, is not known to be hepatotoxic. However, other drugs like dronaderone, valproic acid, and lithium can cause liver damage, making it crucial to monitor liver function in patients taking these medications.

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What is NOT true about IV two-compartment model

In a two-compartment IV model, the drug distributes between a central compartment (bloodstream) and peripheral compartment (other tissues). The log plasma concentration-time graph exhibits two phases: a distribution phase with rapid distribution and an elimination phase with gradual elimination. The absorption phase is absent because the drug is administered intravenously. The concentration equation is based on two exponential terms, reflecting the two compartments.

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Calculate gentamycin plasma concentration after 4 hours.

To calculate the gentamicin plasma concentration after 4 hours, use the formula: Concentration at time t = Dose x Vd / (Vd x (1 - exp(-k x t))), where k is the elimination rate constant (ln2 / half-life). First, calculate k: k = ln2 / 3 h = 0.231 h-1. Then, plug in the values: Concentration at 4 h = (5 mg/kg x 0.20 L/kg) / (0.20 L/kg x (1 - exp(-0.231 h-1 x 4 h))) = 3.2 mg/L. However, the answer should be in mcg/L so we multiply 3.2 by 1000 to get 3200 mcg/L.

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Determine the administered dose of an antibiotic.

To determine the administered dose, use the formula: Dose = Concentration x Vd x exp(k x t). First, calculate the elimination rate constant: k = ln2 / half-life = ln2 / 4 h = 0.173 h-1. Then, plug in the values: Dose = 1 mcg/mL x 2.25 L/kg x exp(0.173 h-1 x 6 h) = 7.9 mg/kg. The unit mL should be converted to L, but since the Vd is in L/kg, the mL cancel out on the equation.

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Determine the absolute bioavailability of aminophylline

Absolute bioavailability (F) is the fraction of an orally administered drug that reaches systemic circulation compared to the same dose administered intravenously. It is calculated using the formula: F = (AUCoral x DoseIV) / (AUCIV x DoseOral), where AUC refers to the area under the plasma concentration-time curve. In this case, F = (126.4 mg.h/mL x 42.5 mg) / (35.84 mg.h/mL x 150 mg) = 0.80.

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Which bacterium might cause a sore throat after Penicillin G treatment?

Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as group A streptococcus, is a common cause of bacterial sore throat (strep throat). It is susceptible to treatment with penicillin G, but if not treated, it can cause more serious complications.

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Which antibiotic is appropriate for a painful ulcer on the penis?

Doxycycline, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Chlamydia trachomatis. This bacterium is a common cause of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including urethritis in men and cervicitis in women.

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Which bacterium causes postpartum breast infection?

Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of mastitis, a breast infection that often occurs after childbirth. Staphylococcus aureus can produce toxins and cause a range of infections, including skin infections, food poisoning, and pneumonia.

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Which drug combination is suitable for a UTI caused by Enterococcus faecalis?

Ampicillin, a penicillin-type antibiotic, and gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, are both effective against Enterococcus faecalis, a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Combining these antibiotics can address both susceptible Enterococcus faecalis and any accompanying gram-negative bacteria that may contribute to the UTI.

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What is the most likely offending pathogen and its treatment for a girl bitten by a dog?

Pasteurella multocida is a common bacterium found in the mouths of dogs and cats, often leading to infections after bites. Amoxicillin/clavulanate, a combination antibiotic, is typically used to treat infections caused by Pasteurella multocida., as the clavulanate component inhibits the breakdown of amoxicillin, enhancing its effectiveness.

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Which drug is suitable to treat red, painless ulcer on a man's penis?

Moxifloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, is effective against a range of bacteria, including Treponema pallidum, the causative organism of syphilis. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease that can cause painless ulcers known as chancres.

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Which drug is used to treat HER-2 positive breast cancer?

Trastuzumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets HER-2 (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2), a protein often overexpressed in breast cancer cells. By binding to HER-2, trastuzumab inhibits cell growth and can improve survival in patients with HER-2 positive breast cancer.

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What is the mechanism of action of doxorubicin?

Doxorubicin, an anthracycline antibiotic, is a chemotherapy drug that works by intercalating between DNA strands, inhibiting the action of topoisomerase II. This prevents DNA replication and ultimately leads to cell death.

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What side effect is expected during leuprolide treatment?

Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist, is used to treat prostate cancer by suppressing testosterone production. However, while lowering testosterone levels can provide therapeutic benefits, it can also cause side effects like hot flashes due to a reduction in estrogen levels.

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What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in prostate cancer?

Goserelin, another GnRH agonist, inhibits the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland. This suppression of FSH and LH ultimately reduces testosterone production, which is beneficial in the treatment of prostate cancer.

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What lab test determines the size of red blood cells?

The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is a laboratory test that measures the average volume of red blood cells. It helps determine whether anemia is microcytic (small red blood cells), normocytic (normal-sized red blood cells), or macrocytic (large red blood cells).

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What is the lab value pattern in Iron deficiency anemia?

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by a low serum ferritin level, indicating low iron stores. As the body tries to compensate for the iron deficiency, the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) increases to bind more iron.

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Which agent might cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary and ankle edema, and fatigue?

Doxorubicin, a chemotherapy drug, can cause heart damage, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath after lying down (orthopnea), rapid heartbeat (tachycardia), fluid buildup in the lungs and ankles (pulmonary and ankle edema), and general fatigue. These symptoms indicate heart failure, a serious complication of doxorubicin treatment.

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What is the mechanism of action of Etoposide?

Etoposide, a topoisomerase II inhibitor, prevents the repair of broken strands of DNA. This disruption of DNA repair leads to cell death, particularly in rapidly dividing cancer cells.

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What is the antidote for dabigatran?

Idarucizumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor. This binding effectively reverses the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran, allowing for rapid reversal of bleeding in patients who require urgent reversal of their anticoagulation status.

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Why is the carbamazepine maintenance dose usually higher than the starting dose?

Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, induces its own metabolism by increasing the activity of certain CYP enzymes. As a result, the initial dose may be lower than the maintenance dose, which is typically higher to achieve therapeutic blood levels.

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Which enzyme is NOT present in Phase I metabolic reactions?

Glucuronyltransferase is a key enzyme involved in Phase II metabolic reactions, specifically conjugation reactions where a glucuronic acid molecule is attached to a drug molecule. It is involved in the detoxification and elimination of many drugs.

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Which of these is NOT a heme-containing protein?

Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) are a group of enzymes that do not contain heme. While they play a vital role in regulating blood pressure, ACEs are not heme-containing proteins.

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What is conversion of Acetone into isopropentol an example of?

Keto-enol tautomerism is a type of isomerism where a ketone and an enol form are interconvertible. This equilibrium is influenced by the presence of acidic or basic catalysts. In the case of acetone, it can exist in both keto and enol forms, with the keto form predominating.

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What is NOT TRUE about Octreotide?

Octreotide is a synthetic somatostatin analog that is administered intravenously or subcutaneously, not orally. It is used to manage acromegaly, a disorder caused by excessive growth hormone production, and to treat severe diarrhea associated with certain conditions. It does not increase growth hormone secretion.

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What is the appropriate antidote for bisoprolol overdose?

Epinephrine, a potent vasoconstrictor and heart stimulant, is the appropriate antidote for bisoprolol overdose. It works by counteracting the effects of bisoprolol, a beta-blocker, which lowers heart rate and blood pressure.

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What is the most suitable treatment for a farmer exposed to parathion?

Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, and pralidoxime, an acetylcholinesterase reactivator, are the antidotes for parathion poisoning. Parathion is an organophosphate insecticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to a buildup of acetylcholine in the synapses, causing a wide range of symptoms.

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Which drug overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia?

Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias in overdose. These symptoms are due to its anticholinergic properties and its effects on the cardiovascular system.

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What causes nervousness, weight loss, and difficulty sleeping?

Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) can cause weight loss, difficulty sleeping, and nervousness. The body compensates for a low thyroid hormone production by releasing more TSH in an attempt to stimulate the thyroid gland.

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What process is included in Phase II metabolic reactions?

Glutathione addition is a Phase II metabolic reaction where glutathione, a tripeptide, is conjugated to a drug molecule. This conjugation often increases the water solubility of the drug, making it easier to excrete from the body.

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During what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?

DNA replicates during the S phase of the cell cycle. During S phase, the cell's entire genome is copied, ensuring that each daughter cell inherits a complete set of chromosomes.

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What causes Chancroids?

Chancroids is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a gram-negative bacterium. It is characterized by painful, soft sores on the genitals.

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Study Notes

Question 1

  • Competitive inhibition reactions are characterized by a decrease in both Vmax and EC50.

Question 2

  • Leucovorin can be given to counteract the adverse effects of methotrexate.

Question 3

  • Diazepam is appropriate for treating acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

Question 4

  • Tizanidine acts as an x2-receptor agonist in the spinal cord to reduce muscle spasm.

Question 5

  • A patient regimen is given: Day 1: 10 mg prednisolone, Day 2: 8 mg prednisolone, Day 3: 6 mg prednisolone, Day 4: 4 mg prednisolone, Day 5: 2 mg prednisolone, and Day 6: 1 mg prednisolone.
  • Using 4 mg and 1 mg tablets that cannot be split, the patient needs eight 4 mg tablets and four 1 mg tablets .

Question 6

  • The posterior pituitary stores and releases ADH and oxytocin.

Question 7

  • Mevalonate is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis.

Question 8

  • 0.16 mL of a 6% w/v solution is needed to deliver a 10 mg dose.

Question 9

  • 6.25 g of hydrocortisone powder should be added to 200 g of 1% w/w hydrocortisone ointment to produce a 4% w/w hydrocortisone ointment.

Question 10

  • Transcription converts DNA to RNA.

Question 11

  • Blindness may be due to Vitamin A deficiency.

Question 12

  • Digoxin plasma concentration is not decreased by cigarette smoking.

Question 13

  • Niacin deficiency causes pellagra.

Question 14

  • The volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient after IV administration of 200 mg phenytoin with a peak plasma concentration of 4 mg/L is 50 L.

Question 15

  • A 125 mg intravenous loading dose of the antibiotic is suitable for a 66-year-old female patient.

Question 16

  • Filgrastim can manage zidovudine-induced neutropenia.

Question 17

  • Abciximab inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to the platelet surface.

Question 18

  • Ferritin is the most important iron storage location.

Question 19

  • Ferrous sulfate is appropriate for a 30-year-old woman with menorrhagia, low red blood cell count, low mean corpuscular volume, low hemoglobin level, and low serum ferritin.

Question 20

  • Deferoxamine is used to manage transfusional iron overload.

Question 21

  • Filgrastim helps in neutrophil recovery in cancer patients.

Question 22

  • Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to screen for colorectal cancer.

Question 23

  • ACE inhibitors do not increase lithium toxicity.

Question 24

  • Digoxin binds to sodium/potassium-ATPase.

Question 25

  • Colestipol does not increase digoxin toxicity if administered with digoxin.

Question 26

  • Glucagon is the hormone responsible for gluconeogenesis.

Question 27

  • Platelets are the receptors activated by the treatment with Oprelvekin.

Question 28

  • Levetiracetam increases lamotrigine plasma levels by inhibiting lamotrigine's glucuronidation.

Question 29

  • Valproic acid is not hepatotoxic.

Question 30

  • The equilibrium between the central and peripheral compartments in two-compartment models is rapid.

Question 31

  • The gentamycin plasma concentration at 4 h after a 5 mg/kg intravenous bolus dose is 9.9 mg/L.

Question 32

  • The administered dose of the antibiotic with half-life 4 h and an apparent volume of distribution of 2.25 L/kg is 6.4 mg/kg.

Question 33

  • The absolute bioavailability of aminophylline is 1.00.

Question 34

  • Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely bacteria causing sore throat.

Question 35

  • Vancomycin is the most appropriate antibiotic for gram-negative bacteria causing sore throat.

Question 36

  • Staphylococcus aureus causes postpartum breast infections.

Question 37

  • Ampicillin and gentamicin are suitable combinations for treating UTIs caused by Gram-positive Enterococcus faecalis.

Question 38

  • Escherichia coli and vancomycin is suitable for Gram-negative coccobacilli discharge.

Question 39

  • Moxifloxacin is suitable to treat painful ulcer on the penis.

Question 40

  • Trastuzumab is included in the treatment regimen for HER-2 positive breast cancer

Question 41

  • Doxorubicin's mechanism of action involves intercalating between DNA strands and inhibiting topoisomerase II.

Question 42

  • Hot flashes are a side effect of leuprolide treatment.

Question 43

  • Gosrerelin blocks gonadotropin receptors; inhibiting FSH and LH release.

Question 44

  • Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is the laboratory test to determine if anemia is microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic.

Question 45

  • Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased serum ferritin and increased total iron-binding capacity.

Question 46

  • Ifosfamide can cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, and ankle edema in patients undergoing cancer treatment

Question 47

  • Etoposide prevents repair of broken DNA strands.

Question 48

  • Idarucizumab is the antidote for Dabigatran.

Question 49

  • Carbamazepine maintenance doses are commonly higher than starting doses due to auto-induction of hepatic cytochrome enzymes.

Question 50

  • Epoxide hydrolase is not a Phase I metabolic reaction enzyme.

Question 51

  • Angiotensin-converting enzymes are not heme-containing proteins.

Question 52

  • The conversion of acetone to isopropenols is an example of keto-enol tautomerism

Question 53

  • Octreotide is not orally administered.

Question 54

  • Glucagon is the antidote for bisoprolol tablets' effects.

Question 55

  • Atropine and pralidoxime are suitable treatments for parathion exposure.

Question 56

  • Amitriptyline overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia.

Question 57

  • Decreased catecholamines can lead to nervousness, weight loss, and sleep disturbances.

Question 58

  • Glutathione addition is a Phase II metabolic reaction.

Question 59

  • DNA replicates during the S phase of the cell cycle.

Question 60

  • Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroids.

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Test your knowledge on essential pharmacology concepts including competitive inhibition, drug regimens, and pharmaceutical interventions. This quiz covers a variety of topics such as drug mechanisms, therapeutic uses, and dosage calculations relevant to pharmacology studies.

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