Pharmacology Concepts Quiz

Question 1

• Competitive inhibition reactions are characterized by a decrease in both Vmax and EC50.

Question 2

• Leucovorin can be given to counteract the adverse effects of methotrexate.

Question 3

• Diazepam is appropriate for treating acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

Question 4

• Tizanidine acts as an x2-receptor agonist in the spinal cord to reduce muscle spasm.

Question 5

• A patient regimen is given: Day 1: 10 mg prednisolone, Day 2: 8 mg prednisolone, Day 3: 6 mg prednisolone, Day 4: 4 mg prednisolone, Day 5: 2 mg prednisolone, and Day 6: 1 mg prednisolone.
• Using 4 mg and 1 mg tablets that cannot be split, the patient needs eight 4 mg tablets and four 1 mg tablets .

Question 6

• The posterior pituitary stores and releases ADH and oxytocin.

Question 7

• Mevalonate is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis.

Question 8

• 0.16 mL of a 6% w/v solution is needed to deliver a 10 mg dose.

Question 9

• 6.25 g of hydrocortisone powder should be added to 200 g of 1% w/w hydrocortisone ointment to produce a 4% w/w hydrocortisone ointment.

Question 10

• Transcription converts DNA to RNA.

Question 11

• Blindness may be due to Vitamin A deficiency.

Question 12

• Digoxin plasma concentration is not decreased by cigarette smoking.

Question 13

• Niacin deficiency causes pellagra.

Question 14

• The volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient after IV administration of 200 mg phenytoin with a peak plasma concentration of 4 mg/L is 50 L.

Question 15

• A 125 mg intravenous loading dose of the antibiotic is suitable for a 66-year-old female patient.

Question 16

• Filgrastim can manage zidovudine-induced neutropenia.

Question 17

• Abciximab inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to the platelet surface.

Question 18

• Ferritin is the most important iron storage location.

Question 19

• Ferrous sulfate is appropriate for a 30-year-old woman with menorrhagia, low red blood cell count, low mean corpuscular volume, low hemoglobin level, and low serum ferritin.

Question 20

• Deferoxamine is used to manage transfusional iron overload.

Question 21

• Filgrastim helps in neutrophil recovery in cancer patients.

Question 22

• Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to screen for colorectal cancer.

Question 23

• ACE inhibitors do not increase lithium toxicity.

Question 24

• Digoxin binds to sodium/potassium-ATPase.

Question 25

• Colestipol does not increase digoxin toxicity if administered with digoxin.

Question 26

• Glucagon is the hormone responsible for gluconeogenesis.

Question 27

• Platelets are the receptors activated by the treatment with Oprelvekin.

Question 28

• Levetiracetam increases lamotrigine plasma levels by inhibiting lamotrigine's glucuronidation.

Question 29

• Valproic acid is not hepatotoxic.

Question 30

• The equilibrium between the central and peripheral compartments in two-compartment models is rapid.

Question 31

• The gentamycin plasma concentration at 4 h after a 5 mg/kg intravenous bolus dose is 9.9 mg/L.

Question 32

• The administered dose of the antibiotic with half-life 4 h and an apparent volume of distribution of 2.25 L/kg is 6.4 mg/kg.

Question 33

• The absolute bioavailability of aminophylline is 1.00.

Question 34

• Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely bacteria causing sore throat.

Question 35

• Vancomycin is the most appropriate antibiotic for gram-negative bacteria causing sore throat.

Question 36

• Staphylococcus aureus causes postpartum breast infections.

Question 37

• Ampicillin and gentamicin are suitable combinations for treating UTIs caused by Gram-positive Enterococcus faecalis.

Question 38

• Escherichia coli and vancomycin is suitable for Gram-negative coccobacilli discharge.

Question 39

• Moxifloxacin is suitable to treat painful ulcer on the penis.

Question 40

• Trastuzumab is included in the treatment regimen for HER-2 positive breast cancer

Question 41

• Doxorubicin's mechanism of action involves intercalating between DNA strands and inhibiting topoisomerase II.

Question 42

• Hot flashes are a side effect of leuprolide treatment.

Question 43

• Gosrerelin blocks gonadotropin receptors; inhibiting FSH and LH release.

Question 44

• Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is the laboratory test to determine if anemia is microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic.

Question 45

• Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased serum ferritin and increased total iron-binding capacity.

Question 46

• Ifosfamide can cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, and ankle edema in patients undergoing cancer treatment

Question 47

• Etoposide prevents repair of broken DNA strands.

Question 48

• Idarucizumab is the antidote for Dabigatran.

Question 49

• Carbamazepine maintenance doses are commonly higher than starting doses due to auto-induction of hepatic cytochrome enzymes.

Question 50

• Epoxide hydrolase is not a Phase I metabolic reaction enzyme.

Question 51

• Angiotensin-converting enzymes are not heme-containing proteins.

Question 52

• The conversion of acetone to isopropenols is an example of keto-enol tautomerism

Question 53

• Octreotide is not orally administered.

Question 54

• Glucagon is the antidote for bisoprolol tablets' effects.

Question 55

• Atropine and pralidoxime are suitable treatments for parathion exposure.

Question 56

• Amitriptyline overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia.

Question 57

• Decreased catecholamines can lead to nervousness, weight loss, and sleep disturbances.

Question 58

• Glutathione addition is a Phase II metabolic reaction.

Question 59

• DNA replicates during the S phase of the cell cycle.

Question 60

• Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroids.

Test your knowledge on essential pharmacology concepts including competitive inhibition, drug regimens, and pharmaceutical interventions. This quiz covers a variety of topics such as drug mechanisms, therapeutic uses, and dosage calculations relevant to pharmacology studies.