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What is a characteristic of a Competitive Inhibition reaction?
What is a characteristic of a Competitive Inhibition reaction?
In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding. This leads to an increase in the EC50 (concentration required for half-maximal effect) while the Vmax (maximum reaction rate) remains unchanged.
Which agent can oppose methotrexate's adverse effects?
Which agent can oppose methotrexate's adverse effects?
Leucovorin, also known as folinic acid, is a reduced form of folic acid that can rescue cells from the toxic effects of methotrexate by providing a different substrate for dihydrofolate reductase.
What is used to treat acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
What is used to treat acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is used to treat acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms like nausea, tremors, and hallucinations. It works by enhancing the effects of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, in the brain.
Which agent acts as an α2-receptor agonist to reduce muscle spasm?
Which agent acts as an α2-receptor agonist to reduce muscle spasm?
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How many prednisolone tablets are needed for the patient's regimen?
How many prednisolone tablets are needed for the patient's regimen?
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What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?
What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?
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What is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis?
What is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis?
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How much of a 6% w/v solution is needed for a 10 mg dose?
How much of a 6% w/v solution is needed for a 10 mg dose?
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How much hydrocortisone powder is needed to make a 4% w/w ointment?
How much hydrocortisone powder is needed to make a 4% w/w ointment?
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What process converts DNA to RNA?
What process converts DNA to RNA?
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What vitamin deficiency can cause blindness?
What vitamin deficiency can cause blindness?
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Which medication's plasma concentration is not affected by cigarette smoking?
Which medication's plasma concentration is not affected by cigarette smoking?
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What condition results from niacin deficiency?
What condition results from niacin deficiency?
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Estimate the volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient.
Estimate the volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient.
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Calculate the loading dose of an antibiotic for a patient.
Calculate the loading dose of an antibiotic for a patient.
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How can Zidovudine-induced neutropenia be managed?
How can Zidovudine-induced neutropenia be managed?
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What does Abciximab inhibit?
What does Abciximab inhibit?
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Where is iron stored?
Where is iron stored?
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What is the appropriate treatment for Iron deficiency anemia?
What is the appropriate treatment for Iron deficiency anemia?
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How is transfusional iron overload managed?
How is transfusional iron overload managed?
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Which drug helps with neutrophil recovery in cancer patients?
Which drug helps with neutrophil recovery in cancer patients?
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What is the purpose of a FOBT?
What is the purpose of a FOBT?
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What can increase lithium toxicity?
What can increase lithium toxicity?
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Where does Digoxin bind?
Where does Digoxin bind?
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What medication does not increase Digoxin toxicity?
What medication does not increase Digoxin toxicity?
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Which hormone is responsible for gluconeogenesis?
Which hormone is responsible for gluconeogenesis?
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What is the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin?
What is the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin?
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Which drug can increase Lamotrigine plasma levels?
Which drug can increase Lamotrigine plasma levels?
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Which of these agents is NOT hepatotoxic?
Which of these agents is NOT hepatotoxic?
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What is NOT true about IV two-compartment model
What is NOT true about IV two-compartment model
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Calculate gentamycin plasma concentration after 4 hours.
Calculate gentamycin plasma concentration after 4 hours.
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Determine the administered dose of an antibiotic.
Determine the administered dose of an antibiotic.
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Determine the absolute bioavailability of aminophylline
Determine the absolute bioavailability of aminophylline
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Which bacterium might cause a sore throat after Penicillin G treatment?
Which bacterium might cause a sore throat after Penicillin G treatment?
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Which antibiotic is appropriate for a painful ulcer on the penis?
Which antibiotic is appropriate for a painful ulcer on the penis?
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Which bacterium causes postpartum breast infection?
Which bacterium causes postpartum breast infection?
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Which drug combination is suitable for a UTI caused by Enterococcus faecalis?
Which drug combination is suitable for a UTI caused by Enterococcus faecalis?
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What is the most likely offending pathogen and its treatment for a girl bitten by a dog?
What is the most likely offending pathogen and its treatment for a girl bitten by a dog?
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Which drug is suitable to treat red, painless ulcer on a man's penis?
Which drug is suitable to treat red, painless ulcer on a man's penis?
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Which drug is used to treat HER-2 positive breast cancer?
Which drug is used to treat HER-2 positive breast cancer?
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What is the mechanism of action of doxorubicin?
What is the mechanism of action of doxorubicin?
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What side effect is expected during leuprolide treatment?
What side effect is expected during leuprolide treatment?
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What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in prostate cancer?
What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in prostate cancer?
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What lab test determines the size of red blood cells?
What lab test determines the size of red blood cells?
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What is the lab value pattern in Iron deficiency anemia?
What is the lab value pattern in Iron deficiency anemia?
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Which agent might cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary and ankle edema, and fatigue?
Which agent might cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary and ankle edema, and fatigue?
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What is the mechanism of action of Etoposide?
What is the mechanism of action of Etoposide?
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What is the antidote for dabigatran?
What is the antidote for dabigatran?
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Why is the carbamazepine maintenance dose usually higher than the starting dose?
Why is the carbamazepine maintenance dose usually higher than the starting dose?
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Which enzyme is NOT present in Phase I metabolic reactions?
Which enzyme is NOT present in Phase I metabolic reactions?
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Which of these is NOT a heme-containing protein?
Which of these is NOT a heme-containing protein?
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What is conversion of Acetone into isopropentol an example of?
What is conversion of Acetone into isopropentol an example of?
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What is NOT TRUE about Octreotide?
What is NOT TRUE about Octreotide?
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What is the appropriate antidote for bisoprolol overdose?
What is the appropriate antidote for bisoprolol overdose?
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What is the most suitable treatment for a farmer exposed to parathion?
What is the most suitable treatment for a farmer exposed to parathion?
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Which drug overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia?
Which drug overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia?
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What causes nervousness, weight loss, and difficulty sleeping?
What causes nervousness, weight loss, and difficulty sleeping?
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What process is included in Phase II metabolic reactions?
What process is included in Phase II metabolic reactions?
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During what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?
During what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate?
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What causes Chancroids?
What causes Chancroids?
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Study Notes
Question 1
- Competitive inhibition reactions are characterized by a decrease in both Vmax and EC50.
Question 2
- Leucovorin can be given to counteract the adverse effects of methotrexate.
Question 3
- Diazepam is appropriate for treating acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Question 4
- Tizanidine acts as an x2-receptor agonist in the spinal cord to reduce muscle spasm.
Question 5
- A patient regimen is given: Day 1: 10 mg prednisolone, Day 2: 8 mg prednisolone, Day 3: 6 mg prednisolone, Day 4: 4 mg prednisolone, Day 5: 2 mg prednisolone, and Day 6: 1 mg prednisolone.
- Using 4 mg and 1 mg tablets that cannot be split, the patient needs eight 4 mg tablets and four 1 mg tablets .
Question 6
- The posterior pituitary stores and releases ADH and oxytocin.
Question 7
- Mevalonate is an early intermediate in cholesterol synthesis.
Question 8
- 0.16 mL of a 6% w/v solution is needed to deliver a 10 mg dose.
Question 9
- 6.25 g of hydrocortisone powder should be added to 200 g of 1% w/w hydrocortisone ointment to produce a 4% w/w hydrocortisone ointment.
Question 10
- Transcription converts DNA to RNA.
Question 11
- Blindness may be due to Vitamin A deficiency.
Question 12
- Digoxin plasma concentration is not decreased by cigarette smoking.
Question 13
- Niacin deficiency causes pellagra.
Question 14
- The volume of distribution of phenytoin for a patient after IV administration of 200 mg phenytoin with a peak plasma concentration of 4 mg/L is 50 L.
Question 15
- A 125 mg intravenous loading dose of the antibiotic is suitable for a 66-year-old female patient.
Question 16
- Filgrastim can manage zidovudine-induced neutropenia.
Question 17
- Abciximab inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to the platelet surface.
Question 18
- Ferritin is the most important iron storage location.
Question 19
- Ferrous sulfate is appropriate for a 30-year-old woman with menorrhagia, low red blood cell count, low mean corpuscular volume, low hemoglobin level, and low serum ferritin.
Question 20
- Deferoxamine is used to manage transfusional iron overload.
Question 21
- Filgrastim helps in neutrophil recovery in cancer patients.
Question 22
- Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to screen for colorectal cancer.
Question 23
- ACE inhibitors do not increase lithium toxicity.
Question 24
- Digoxin binds to sodium/potassium-ATPase.
Question 25
- Colestipol does not increase digoxin toxicity if administered with digoxin.
Question 26
- Glucagon is the hormone responsible for gluconeogenesis.
Question 27
- Platelets are the receptors activated by the treatment with Oprelvekin.
Question 28
- Levetiracetam increases lamotrigine plasma levels by inhibiting lamotrigine's glucuronidation.
Question 29
- Valproic acid is not hepatotoxic.
Question 30
- The equilibrium between the central and peripheral compartments in two-compartment models is rapid.
Question 31
- The gentamycin plasma concentration at 4 h after a 5 mg/kg intravenous bolus dose is 9.9 mg/L.
Question 32
- The administered dose of the antibiotic with half-life 4 h and an apparent volume of distribution of 2.25 L/kg is 6.4 mg/kg.
Question 33
- The absolute bioavailability of aminophylline is 1.00.
Question 34
- Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely bacteria causing sore throat.
Question 35
- Vancomycin is the most appropriate antibiotic for gram-negative bacteria causing sore throat.
Question 36
- Staphylococcus aureus causes postpartum breast infections.
Question 37
- Ampicillin and gentamicin are suitable combinations for treating UTIs caused by Gram-positive Enterococcus faecalis.
Question 38
- Escherichia coli and vancomycin is suitable for Gram-negative coccobacilli discharge.
Question 39
- Moxifloxacin is suitable to treat painful ulcer on the penis.
Question 40
- Trastuzumab is included in the treatment regimen for HER-2 positive breast cancer
Question 41
- Doxorubicin's mechanism of action involves intercalating between DNA strands and inhibiting topoisomerase II.
Question 42
- Hot flashes are a side effect of leuprolide treatment.
Question 43
- Gosrerelin blocks gonadotropin receptors; inhibiting FSH and LH release.
Question 44
- Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is the laboratory test to determine if anemia is microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic.
Question 45
- Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased serum ferritin and increased total iron-binding capacity.
Question 46
- Ifosfamide can cause shortness of breath, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, and ankle edema in patients undergoing cancer treatment
Question 47
- Etoposide prevents repair of broken DNA strands.
Question 48
- Idarucizumab is the antidote for Dabigatran.
Question 49
- Carbamazepine maintenance doses are commonly higher than starting doses due to auto-induction of hepatic cytochrome enzymes.
Question 50
- Epoxide hydrolase is not a Phase I metabolic reaction enzyme.
Question 51
- Angiotensin-converting enzymes are not heme-containing proteins.
Question 52
- The conversion of acetone to isopropenols is an example of keto-enol tautomerism
Question 53
- Octreotide is not orally administered.
Question 54
- Glucagon is the antidote for bisoprolol tablets' effects.
Question 55
- Atropine and pralidoxime are suitable treatments for parathion exposure.
Question 56
- Amitriptyline overdose can cause confusion, hypotension, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmia.
Question 57
- Decreased catecholamines can lead to nervousness, weight loss, and sleep disturbances.
Question 58
- Glutathione addition is a Phase II metabolic reaction.
Question 59
- DNA replicates during the S phase of the cell cycle.
Question 60
- Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroids.
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Description
Test your knowledge on essential pharmacology concepts including competitive inhibition, drug regimens, and pharmaceutical interventions. This quiz covers a variety of topics such as drug mechanisms, therapeutic uses, and dosage calculations relevant to pharmacology studies.