Pharmacology Quiz: Drug Mechanisms and Effects
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Questions and Answers

What functional group does ninhydrin reagent detect?

  • Amino group (correct)
  • Guanine ring
  • Indole ring
  • Glycosidic linkages

Which of the following is the primary treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?

  • Sodium thiosulfate
  • Oxygen therapy (correct)
  • Amyl nitrite
  • Hemodialysis

What is the antidote for a benzodiazepine overdose?

  • Caffeine
  • FAB fragments
  • Naloxone
  • Flumazenil (correct)

Which vitamin, after conversion in the body, functions as a hormone?

<p>Cholecalciferol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is considered a short-acting benzodiazepine?

<p>Midazolam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of a drug that increases its likelihood of passing into breast milk?

<p>High lipid solubility (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action for a pregnant woman with hypothyroidism who is taking levothyroxine and starts experiencing fatigue?

<p>Refer to doctor to adjust dose according to TSH (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with Class II antiarrhythmic drugs?

<p>Bronchospasm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many grams of benzocaine are required to prepare an 80 mL solution with a 1:1000 concentration?

<p>0.08 grams (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is classified as a parasympathetic ganglion?

<p>otic ganglion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anhydrosis, dilated conjunctival vessels and ptosis are associated with what procedure?

<p>stellate ganglion block (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In myasthenia gravis, which statement is most accurate?

<p>The vertical muscles of the eye are more commonly involved than the horizontal muscles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding the knee jerk reflex, which of these statements is correct?

<p>(A and B) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which set of tests are most appropriate for assessing macular function in a patient with dense cataract and limited retinal view?

<p>(B, C, and D) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is likely to be observed in which of the following conditions?

<p>optic nerve glioma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes Purkinje's shift?

<p>all above (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the air bubble in prefilled enoxaparin syringes?

<p>To ensure the full dose of medication is delivered (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does carbidopa contribute to the effectiveness of levodopa?

<p>By inhibiting peripheral dopa decarboxylase, thus increasing levodopa availability in the brain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tautomeric form of a compound is considered the least stable due to electrostatic repulsion?

<p>The tautomer with both amino groups positively charged (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is screening for tuberculosis recommended before starting treatment with infliximab?

<p>Infliximab can reactivate latent tuberculosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does isocitrate dehydrogenase play in the Krebs cycle?

<p>It catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt (pentose phosphate pathway) occur in the cell?

<p>The cytosol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does fluoroacetate disrupt the Krebs cycle?

<p>By inhibiting aconitase, thus blocking citrate conversion to isocitrate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are precursors for Retinol (Vitamin A) synthesis?

<p>Beta-ionone and methylvinyllactone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical role does phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) play in the lungs?

<p>It reduces alveolar surface tension as a major component of pulmonary surfactant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary enzyme deficiency in Cori’s disease (Type III glycogen storage disease)?

<p>Amylo-α-1,6-glucosidase (debranching enzyme) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When administering ASV, what is the correct dosage regimen?

<p>150 mg/kg over 1 hour, followed by 50 mg/kg over 4 hours, then 100 mg/kg over 16 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ECG monitoring essential when administering intravenous potassium?

<p>To detect arrhythmias caused by changes in cardiac conduction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might discontinuing oxybutynin improve urinary hesitancy in an elderly patient?

<p>Oxybutynin’s anticholinergic effects worsen urinary retention, especially in BPH. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccine provides protection against Vibrio cholerae and related enterotoxins, common causes of traveler's diarrhea?

<p>Cholera Vaccine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ciprofloxacin not recommended for children with meningitis?

<p>It has limited penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid and potential cartilage effects (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is LEAST likely to cause significant ocular toxicity?

<p>Rifamycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is cephalexin not effective in treating pneumonia caused by H. influenzae?

<p>Cephalexin has poor activity against H. influenzae. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of agents is primarily used to prevent delayed nausea and vomiting in patients?

<p>5-HT3 antagonists and corticosteroids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long after returning from a malaria-endemic area should malaria prophylaxis be continued?

<p>4 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which phenol undergoes detoxification in the body?

<p>Conjugation with glutathione (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate maximum velocity of saccadic eye movements?

<p>700 degrees/second (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the distribution of rods and cones in the retina?

<p>Rods outnumber cones by approximately 20:1, with a high concentration of cones in the fovea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What substance is primarily responsible for the viscosity of the vitreous humor?

<p>Sodium hyaluronate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve reflexes are used in the assessment of brain stem death?

<p>Gag reflex (IX, X) and Pupil reflex (II, III) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary origin of the a-wave in an electroretinogram (ERG)?

<p>Photoreceptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What does Ninhydrin reagent detect?

Ninhydrin reagent reacts with the amino group of amino acids, leading to a purple-colored product. This reaction is used in various applications, including fingerprint detection and amino acid analysis.

What is the primary treatment for Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells, preventing oxygen delivery to the body's tissues. Oxygen therapy is the primary treatment, as it helps displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin and restore oxygen delivery.

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines, a class of drugs that act on the central nervous system. It helps to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, including sedation, respiratory depression, and amnesia.

Which vitamin, when converted in the body, functions as a hormone?

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D) is converted in the body into calcitriol, a hormone that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption and bone health. It regulates calcium levels in the blood and supports bone mineralization.

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Which benzodiazepine is short-acting?

Midazolam is a short-acting benzodiazepine, often used for sedation and anesthesia. It has a rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of effect compared to other benzodiazepines.

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What type of diuretic is Indapamide?

Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic. It works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output.

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Which drug is a COX-2 inhibitor?

COX-2 inhibitors are a class of drugs that selectively block the COX-2 enzyme, which is involved in inflammation and pain. Rofecoxib is an example of a COX-2 inhibitor.

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What is a common side effect of Class II antiarrhythmic drugs?

Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are known to cause a side effect of bronchospasm, a narrowing of the airways that can lead to difficulty breathing.

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How much benzocaine is needed for a 1:1000 solution with 80 mL of solvent?

To prepare a 1:1000 solution with 80 mL of solvent, you need 0.08 grams of benzocaine. This is calculated by dividing the total volume by the desired concentration.

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Which ganglion is a parasympathetic ganglion?

The otic ganglion is one of the parasympathetic ganglia in the body. It is located near the middle ear and plays a role in controlling the function of the salivary glands and lacrimal glands.

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What is a possible effect of a stellate ganglion block?

A stellate ganglion block is a procedure in which a local anesthetic is injected near the stellate ganglion, a nerve cluster in the neck. One of the effects of this procedure is dilated conjunctival vessels, which are the blood vessels in the white part of the eye.

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In myasthenia gravis, which eye muscles are more commonly involved?

In myasthenia gravis, the vertical muscles of the eye are more commonly affected than the horizontal muscles. This means patients often experience drooping eyelids (ptosis) and difficulties moving their eyes up and down.

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What type of reflex is the knee jerk reflex?

The knee jerk reflex is a monosynaptic reflex, meaning it involves a single synapse between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. This quick response helps maintain balance and stability.

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What tests can be used to assess macular function in patients with dense cataracts?

In patients with dense cataracts and poor retina visibility, tests like laser interferometry (measures retinal thickness), Haidinger brushes (test macular function), and visual evoked potential (assess visual pathway function) can be helpful.

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What is a condition where relative afferent pupillary defect is seen?

Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) is a sign of optic nerve damage where one pupil reacts less to light compared to the other. It can be seen in conditions like optic nerve glioma or unilateral occipital lobe infarction.

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What is Purkinje's shift?

Purkinje's shift refers to the change in retinal sensitivity between day and night vision, making blue colors appear brighter in low-light conditions. This is because the eye's sensitivity shifts towards shorter wavelengths of light in darkness.

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Enoxaparin syringe air bubble purpose?

The air bubble in prefilled enoxaparin syringes ensures the full dose is delivered and prevents drug leakage.

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How does Carbidopa work with levodopa?

Carbidopa inhibits peripheral dopa decarboxylase, reducing peripheral levodopa conversion to dopamine, increasing levodopa availability in the brain.

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Why is TB screening important before infliximab?

Infliximab, a TNF inhibitor, can reactivate latent tuberculosis. Screening for tuberculosis is recommended before starting treatment.

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What is the role of isocitrate dehydrogenase in the Krebs cycle?

Isocitrate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate via oxalosuccinate in the Krebs cycle.

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Where does the HMP shunt occur and what does it produce?

The hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt, or pentose phosphate pathway, occurs in the cytosol, generating NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate.

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How does fluoroacetate disrupt the Krebs cycle?

Fluoroacetate is metabolized to fluorocitrate, inhibiting aconitase and blocking citrate conversion to isocitrate in the Krebs cycle.

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What are the immediate precursors of retinol synthesis?

Retinol (Vitamin A) synthesis begins with beta-ionone and methylvinyllactone as precursors.

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What is the role of phosphatidylcholine in respiration?

Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) is a major component of pulmonary surfactant, which reduces alveolar surface tension. Its deficiency in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome.

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What enzyme deficiency causes Cori’s disease?

Cori’s disease (Type III glycogen storage disease) is caused by a deficiency of the debranching enzyme amylo-α-1,6-glucosidase, leading to abnormal glycogen accumulation.

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What is the classification of palmitic acid and why?

Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid, non-essential as the body can synthesize it.

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Saccadic eye movement speed and latency

The maximum velocity of saccadic eye movements is approximately 700 degrees/second, with a latency of about 250 milliseconds.

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Rods vs. Cones: Photoreceptor cells

Rods are photoreceptor cells in the retina that are more sensitive to light than cones, hence responsible for vision in low-light conditions. Cones are responsible for color vision and are concentrated in the fovea.

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What makes the vitreous humor viscous?

The vitreous humor, a gel-like substance filling the space between the lens and the retina, has a viscosity primarily due to the presence of sodium hyaluronate, which contributes to its gel-like consistency.

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Dural venous sinuses: Features and location

Dural venous sinuses are valveless channels that drain blood from the brain. The cavernous sinus is strategically located near the pituitary gland and the first two divisions of the trigeminal nerve, making it vulnerable to infections and tumors.

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Brain stem death assessment

Brain stem death, a condition where the brain stem has irreversibly ceased function, is assessed by examining cranial nerve reflexes, such as the gag reflex (IX and X nerves) and the pupillary reflex (II and III nerves).

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What is the dosage regimen for ASV administration?

Administering ASV involves a specific dosage regimen: 150 mg/kg over 1 hour, followed by 50 mg/kg over 4 hours, and then 100 mg/kg over 16 hours.

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Why is ECG monitoring important during digoxin and IV potassium administration?

Digoxin can affect heart conduction, especially at the AV node. ECG monitoring is crucial to detect arrhythmias or signs of digoxin toxicity. Rapid potassium infusion can cause life-threatening arrhythmias, necessitating continuous ECG monitoring.

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How can oxybutynin affect elderly patients with BPH?

Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic drug for overactive bladder, can cause urinary retention, especially in elderly patients with BPH. Discontinuing oxybutynin may improve urinary symptoms.

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What does the cholera vaccine protect against?

Cholera vaccine protects against Vibrio cholerae and related enterotoxins, common causes of traveler's diarrhea.

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Why is ciprofloxacin not recommended for children with meningitis?

Ciprofloxacin has poor penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid and potential cartilage damage risks in children. It's not a suitable treatment for meningitis in children.

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Which drugs can cause ocular toxicity?

Rifamycin is generally safe for the eyes. However, hydroxychloroquine can cause retinopathy and ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, affecting vision.

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Why is cephalexin not effective against H. influenzae pneumonia?

First-generation cephalosporin like cephalexin is ineffective against H. influenzae, making it unsuitable for treating this type of pneumonia.

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How can delayed nausea and vomiting be prevented?

Preventing delayed nausea and vomiting requires prompt treatment with drugs like 5-HT3 antagonists and corticosteroids during the acute phase.

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What is the typical malaria prophylaxis regimen?

Malaria prophylaxis usually involves starting medication 1 week before travel, continuing throughout the trip, and extending for 4 weeks after leaving the malaria-endemic area.

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How is phenol primarily detoxified?

Phenol detoxification mainly occurs through conjugation with glutathione, protecting against oxidative stress.

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Study Notes

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles

  • Question 1: Which of the following increases with age?

  • Parathyroid hormone

  • Bone mass

  • Total body water is not an answer option

  • Hair growth is not an answer option

  • Question 2: Suitable corticosteroids for diaper rash

  • 0.5% hydrocortisone

  • 0.025% hydrocortisone is not an answer option

  • 0.05% betamethasone is not an answer option

  • Acetamide 0.05% is not an answer option

  • Question 3: Dorzolamide MOA for glaucoma?

  • Decrease outflow from ciliary body

  • Question 4: Last layer of the eye?

  • Sclera

  • Question 5: Woman taking combined OCP, which element shall be monitored after 4 weeks?

  • CL (Chlorine)

  • K (Potassium) is not an answer option

  • NA (Sodium) is not an answer option

  • CA (Calcium) is not an answer option

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 2)

  • Question 6: A woman wants to stop smoking, she had jaw surgery recently and anorexia nervosa.

  • Bupropion

  • Question 7: Which of the following cause acute hepatitis?

  • Hepatitis A

  • Hepatitis B

  • Hepatitis C is not an answer option

  • None of these is not an answer option

  • Question 8: Patient taking Metformin and Amiodarone; hemoglobin is decreased with high MCV. What's the cause of anemia?

  • Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • Question 9: Which of the following is least causing hypoglycemia?

  • Sitagliptin

  • Question 10: Bacterial vaginosis?

  • Inflammation with mild pain and malodor discharge

  • Question 11: In the body, the N of NO (Nitric Oxide) is taken from?

  • L-Arginine

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 3)

  • Question 12: Which one of the following is the most basic amino acid?

  • Alanine

  • Question 13: A patient is not willing to take her prescribed Erythromycin because of its GIT side effects.

  • Consider substituting with Azithromycin

  • Question 14: In case of insomnia, a patient was prescribed Sertraline. How long does it take to see the effect?

  • 2-4 weeks

  • Question 15: What are the clinical symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis?

  • Dark Urine

  • Hematuria

  • Edema

  • Joint swelling

  • Question 16: Atrial fibrillation, what to use to decrease heart rate?

  • Diltiazem

  • Digoxin

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 4)

  • Question 17: Which of the following is used for migraine prophylaxis?

  • Topiramate

  • Question 18: Gingival hyperplasia affects?

  • Gum

  • Question 19: Montelukast MOA?

  • Leukotriene receptor antagonist

  • Question 20: Which of the following does not cause CAP (Community-Acquired Pneumonia)?

  • Chlamydophila pneumonia

  • Question 21: Most teratogenic?

  • Rubella

  • Question 22: Carbonic anhydrase is produced by?

  • Reticulocytes

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 5)

  • Question 23: Contraception after delivery?

  • Combined OCPs

  • Question 24: Type of vaccine we give at 1 year old and a booster at preschool age (4-5 years)?

  • MMR vaccine

  • Question 25: How to store breast milk?

  • Could be refrigerated for 48 hours

  • Question 26: Where to put vaccines in the fridge shelf and temperature? The thermometers should be placed in the middle of the refrigerator and cooled down to 2–12°C.

  • Question 27: A kid was successfully treated with Amoxicillin for otitis media and got infected again after 3 weeks. What do you recommend?

  • Amoxicillin-clavulanate 10 days

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 6)

  • Question 28: Who is responsible for hospitals' monitoring and quality in Canada?

  • Health Canada

  • Question 29: Plant/Herbal medicine in Canada is regulated by?

  • Health Canada

  • Question 30: Which program in Canada allows healthcare professionals to access drugs that are not approved for sale for patients with serious or life-threatening conditions?

  • Health Canada Special Access Program (SAP)

  • Question 31: Nail tinea treatment duration?

  • 2 weeks

  • Question 32: Verapamil side effect?

  • Postural hypotension

  • Question 33: A cat scratched a boy. What is the best choice?

  • Amoxicillin

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 7)

  • Question 34: Which virus causes fetal defect and deafness?

  • Rubella

  • Question 35: Laxative for infant <6 months?

  • PEG

  • Question 36: Indapamide will cause?

  • Hyperuricemia

  • Other questions on the page are not included as they are not numbered.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 8)

  • Question 40: Which one is drug of choice for resistant schizophrenia?

  • Clozapine

  • Question 41: Case Study: A 34 year old woman

  • Insulin

  • Question 42: Case Study: A 45-year-old woman

  • 20%-30%

  • Other questions on the page are not included as they are not numbered.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 9)

  • Question 43: Case Study: A 30-year-old pregnant woman

  • Oral Fluconazole

  • Question 44: Case Study: A 26-year-old pregnant woman

  • Nitrofurantoin

  • Question 45: Case Study: A 30-year-old man

  • Increased risk of congenital heart defects.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 10)

  • Question 46: Insulin degludec pens 200 unit/ml.

  • 4 pens

  • Question 47: At what time should the routine plasma samples for digoxin monitoring be drawn?

  • 6 hours post-dose

  • Question 48: Digoxin dose for 57 kg adult with 15mcg/kg

  • 855 mcg

  • Question 49: A nurse on the ward is being asked

  • 21 drops/minute

  • Question 50: Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily

  • 64 capsules

  • Other questions on the page are not included as they are not numbered.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 11)

  • Question 51: The pharmacist received a prescription to extemporaneously

  • 2 tablets

  • Question 52: Which of the following is related to drug abuse?

  • Fentanyl

  • Question 53: The medicine which should not be manipulated by bare hands

  • Chlorpromazine

  • Question 54: Pharmacy has a new system called Monitor Dosage System.

  • Methotrexate

  • Question 55: A pediatric patient

  • Wrong dose

  • Other questions on the page are not included as they are not numbered.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 12)

  • Question 56: Case Study: A 50-year-old woman named Linda Carter

  • Tamoxifen

  • Question 57: Case Study, A 28-year-old woman named Jessica Green

  • Folic acid

  • Question 58: Case Study: A 52-year-old woman named Karen Davis

  • Estrogen

  • Other questions on the page are not included as they are not numbered.

MCQs Bank - MedSparkles (page 13-16): Contains no numbered questions

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MEDSPARKLES MCQs Bank PDF

Description

Test your knowledge on key pharmacology concepts, including functional groups, drug treatments, and mechanisms. This quiz covers important topics such as carbon monoxide poisoning, benzodiazepine overdoses, and drug characteristics affecting lactation. Join to see how well you understand pharmacological principles!

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