Hematology Pre-Boards Exam

The most frequent type of laboratory specimen error is:

The delta check is used to detect:

The acceptable hemoglobin control value range is 13 6 0.4 g/dL . The control is assayed five times and produces the following five results: 12.0 g/dL 12.3 g/dL 12.0 g/dL 12.2 g/dL 12.1 g/dL. These results are:

The ability of an assay to distinguish the targeted analyte from interfering substances within the specimen matrix is called:

Ability to generate results proportional to the calculated concentration or activity of the analyte:

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:

The average human possesses ___ liters of blood.

The tourniquet should be applied ___ inches above the venipuncture site.

A properly tied tourniquet:

Which of the following is the finger of choice for skin puncture?

Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant tripotassium EDTA?

Arrange the following: order of draw from venipuncture.

1. Sodium fluoride with or without EDTA or oxalate (gray stopper)
2. Serum tube with or without activator (red, gold, red-gray marbled, orange, or yellow-gray stopper)
3. Heparin tube (green or light green stopper)
4. EDTA tube (lavender or pink stopper)
5. Coagulation tube (light blue stopper)
6. Blood culture tube (yellow stopper)

CLSI recommends the following order of draw for skin puncture:

1. EDTA microcollection tube
2. Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants
3. Serum microcollection tube
4. Slides, unless made from a specimen in the EDTA microcollection tube
5. Tube for blood gas analysis

Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood specimen:

Major site of blood cell production during the second trimester of fetal development:

Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults?

Cytokines involved in stem cell mobilization:

The "control center" of the cell is the:

Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation?

As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases

Apoptosis:

1. Cell size enlarged due to swelling
2. Cell size reduced due to shrinkage
3. Nucleus condensation and fragmentation
4. Nucleus exhibits random breaks and lysis (karyolysis)

When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body's responses is:

With normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for:

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP?

The final steps in heme synthesis, including the formation of protoporphyrin, take place in:

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?

Deletion of three alpha globin genes:

The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related protein?

What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia?

An increase in which one of the following suggests a shortened life span of RBCs and hemolytic anemia?

Acanthocytes are found in association with:

Morphological description of echinocytes:

Morphological description of schistocytes:

Morphological description of helmet cells:

If a female patient is diagnosed with anemia and her follow-up assays indicate blood serum results of increased bilirubin and decreased haptoglobin with hemosiderin in her urinary sediment, what is the most probable diagnosis?

In warm-type autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA):

In the Plasmodium life cycle, merozoite becomes a ring form, which grows into a mature trophozoite, then into an immature schizont (chromatin dividing), and finally into a mature schizont that contains merozoites. The phase described occurs in:

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the:

Least numerous of the WBCs, making up between 0% and 2% of circulating leukocytes and less than 1% of nucleated cells in the bone marrow:

If a cell observed on a stained peripheral blood smear is 12 to 16 μm with abundant, muddy gray cytoplasm, kidney bean-shaped nucleus with lacey chromatin, and no nucleoli, what type of cell is this?

Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might be seen in Hurler syndrome?

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is associated with the:

Lazy leukocyte syndrome is associated with the:

Reider's cells are associated with:

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is:

An acute leukemia can be described as being:

An alert hematologist should recognize all of the following peripheral blood abnormalities as diagnostic clues in MDS except:

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML?

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is:

Functions of platelet cytoskeleton:

1. Providing the structure for maintaining the circulating discoid shape of the cell
2. Maintains the position of the organelles
3. Mediate the membrane contact reactions

"Control center" for PLATELET ACTIVATION:

What is the name of the eicosanoid metabolite produced from endothelial cells that suppresses platelet activity?

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules?

Reticulated platelets can be enumerated in peripheral blood to detect:

Disorders of platelet aggregation, EXCEPT:

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly?

Which of the following is the most common of the hereditary platelet function defects?

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person:

How do ticlopidine and clopidogrel inhibit platelets?

The platelet defect associated with increased paraproteins is:

A defect in primary hemostasis (platelet response to an injury) often results in:

Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of:

The clinical presentation of platelet-related bleeding may include all of the following except:

Which is a typical form of anatomic bleeding?

Most coagulation factors are synthesized in:

What initial cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor (VWF)?

What is the most prevalent form of VWD?

What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests activated factors V and VIII?

Specimens collected for PT testing may be held at 18°C to 24°C and tested within ___ hours of the time of collection. Specimens collected for PTT may also be held at 18°C to 24°C, but they must be tested within ___ hours of the time of collection, provided that the specimen does not contain unfractionated heparin anticoagulant.

What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled?

What factor becomes deficient early in liver disease, and what assay does its deficiency prolong?

Assesses deficiencies of all factors except VII and XIII:

What is the most common acquired bleeding disorder?

Uncontrolled activation of thrombin and consumption of coagulation factors, platelets, and fibrinolytic proteins secondary to many initiating events, including infection, inflammation, shock, and trauma. Most commonly evidenced by diffuse mucocutaneous bleeding.

WBC and platelet count that can interfere with the cyanmethemoglobin method:

In the cyanmethemoglobin method, lipemia can cause turbidity and a falsely high result. It can be corrected by adding ___ mL of the patient's plasma to ___ mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank.

The value of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within:

When the microhematocrit centrifuge is calibrated, one of the samples used must have a hematocrit of:

Effect of short draw to hematocrit reading:

Effect of dehydration to hematocrit reading:

An MCHC between 36 and 38 g/dL should be checked for:

Duplicate reticulocyte counts should agree within:

If a small blood clot exists in an anticoagulated blood specimen, which blood cell parameter will be affected the most?

If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be solved by:

Counterproductive smear drying technique because the moisture causes RBCs to become echinocytic (crenated) or to develop water artifact (also called drying artifact):

Wright stain or a Wright-Giemsa stain (Romanowsky stain) is used for staining peripheral blood films and bone marrow smears. These are considered polychrome stains because they contain:

Possible cause when RBCs are too pale or are red; WBCs are barely visible:

Prussian Blue cytochemical staining identifies:

Ten fields on a properly prepared and stained peripheral blood smear were examined to estimate the quantitative total number of platelets. In these ten fields, the following observations were made: 10, 12, 10, 15, 17, 12, 14, 15, 11 and 10. In correlating this semiquantitative assessment with the actual quantitative total platelet count measured by an automated instrument, you would expect to see a total platelet count around ___ 10⁹/L.

Detects lymphocytic cells and certain abnormal erythrocytic cells by staining of cytoplasmic glycogen:

Effect of short draw to ESR determination:

Effects of cold agglutinins to automated cell count:

Effects of microcytes and schistocytes to automated cell count:

Large platelet clumps are counted as ___ and not platelets.

Fragile WBCs and fragments can be counted as:

Which of the following can be used with the MCV for initial classification of anemia?

Uses detection of interference in a laser beam or light source to differentiate and enumerate cell types:

What is the most common clinical application of flow cytometry?

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except:

Which of the following is true of flow cytometric gating?