Nursing Techniques and Procedures Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Correct position of inserting a Nasogastric Tube is

  • Supine with Neck flexed
  • Sitting with Neck Extended
  • Supine with Neck extended
  • Sitting with Neck flexed (correct)

Which of the following is not scanned by e-FAST?

  • Pericardium
  • Bowel (correct)
  • Liver
  • Spleen

Prophylactic antibiotics to minimize the SSI are give

  • At time of surgical incision
  • Night before surgery
  • 60 minutes before skin incision (correct)
  • 1-3 hours before skin incision

Calculate the GCS of a patient exhibiting eye opening on painful stimulus, Conscious but confused and unable to tell time and exhibits flexion on painful noxious stimuli to the arm

<p>10 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Amount of Blood lost in Class III Hemorrhagic Shock

<p>30-40% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

50 kg patient has 40% Burns on his body surface area. Calculate the Ringer lactate fluid to be given in 1st 8 hours.

<p>4 L (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following needle is used to suture skin?

<p>Cutting needle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the best parameter to monitor the response to shock management?

<p>Urine output (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice in hemodynamically stable blunt injury abdomen patient?

<p>CECT abdomen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the procedure shown here for providing nutrition

<p>Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the location of Kilian’s dehiscence?

<p>Below Inferior Constrictor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure is done for Ranula Management?

<p>Excision of Sublingual gland (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cancer in thyroid arises from Parafollicular C cells?

<p>Medullary cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

FNAC can diagnose all the following lesions except

<p>Follicular cancer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Warthin’s Tumor is seen arising from

<p>Parotid gland (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most common nerve injured in Thyroid Surgery

<p>ELN (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Stage the Breast cancer – Size 3cm and 4 axillary nodes in Axilla

<p>Stage II (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is correct regarding paeu de orange in breast cancer?

<p>Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For Sentinel Node Biopsy in Breast cancer, where is the Dye injected ideally.

<p>Peritumoral (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis of this mammography picture shown here:

<p>Fibroadenoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not done in Cancer esophagus evaluation?

<p>pH metry (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gastric outlet obstruction leads to

<p>Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis presents at

<p>4 weeks (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Achalasia Cardia presents with all except

<p>Normal Peristalsis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Boerhaave syndrome is

<p>Spontaneous rupture of esophagus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis of this Barium enema?

<p>Intussusception (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26 year old male patient presented with RIF pain and Fever. USG image is shown below:

<p>Acute appendicitis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is false about Crohn’s Disease?

<p>No occurrence after surgery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Best treatment for Anal Cancer Squamous cell cancer

<p>Chemoradiation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is true about Carcinoid Tumor?

<p>Kulchisky cells origin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following polyp is least likely to turn malignant?

<p>Hyperplastic polyp (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most common location of Lymphoma in GIT?

<p>Stomach (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All are true about Femoral hernia except:

<p>Common in Nulliparous women (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The content of Littre’s hernia is

<p>Meckel’s diverticulum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Nyhus Classification Type 3A stands for which hernia?

<p>Direct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

MC immediate complication of splenectomy:

<p>Hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6 year old girl brought with high fever with rigors for 5 days with pain in right hypochondrium. On examination patient is anicteric and tenderness is noted in right upper quadrant. What is the best investigation in this case?

<p>Contrast CT scan (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the investigation shown here?

<p>ERCP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with RUQ pain – USG done shows this image: Diagnosis is

<p>GB stones (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pringle’s manuever is used to control bleeding from

<p>Hepatic artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Severity of Acute pancreatitis is assessed by

<p>RANSON score (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In case of Annular Pancreas, what is the surgery of Choice

<p>Duodeno-duodenostomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is the best for management of a 3cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?

<p>PCNL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 40 year old man after TURP for BPH develops seizures in post operative state. What is the diagnosis?

<p>Water intoxication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Bell Clapper testis predisposes to

<p>Torsion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chordee is associated with

<p>Hypospadias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most common complication of stripping varicose veins below knee is

<p>Neuralgia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All are true about Buerger’s disease except

<p>Small acral vessels of limb involvement causes Hypohidrosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is xenograft?

<p>Transplant from one other species to human (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Craniopharyngioma is a brain tumor arising from

<p>Rathke pouch (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the investigation shown for T3N1 Esophageal Cancer?

<p>Endoscopic Ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Correct Position for Nasogastric Tube Insertion

The insertion of a nasogastric tube is done with the patient in a sitting position with their neck flexed. This position helps to straighten the path of the tube.

What does e-FAST stand for?

e-FAST stands for Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma. It is a rapid ultrasound examination used to assess for traumatic injury in the abdomen and chest. It focuses on the pericardial space, liver, spleen, and pelvic area. Two additional areas, the left and right thoracic cavities, are also examined in e-FAST.

When are prophylactic antibiotics given for surgery?

Prophylactic antibiotics are administered 60 minutes before a surgical incision to minimize the risk of surgical site infections (SSIs). This timing allows for adequate antibiotic levels in the body before the surgery starts.

What is the GCS Score for a patient with eye opening to pain, confusion, and flexion response to pain?

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness. It scores three areas: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Motor Response (M). Each area is scored from 1-5, with a total score of 3-15. A GCS score of 10 indicates that the patient has eye opening to pain, is confused, and has a flexion response to pain.

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What is the blood loss percentage in Class III Hemorrhagic Shock?

Class III Hemorrhagic Shock involves a blood loss of 30 - 40%. This stage is characterized by significant signs of shock, including decreased blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and weak pulses.

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What is the fluid requirement for a 50 kg patient with a 40% burn in the first 8 hours based on Parkland Formula?

The Parkland Formula is used to calculate the amount of fluid needed in the first 24 hours for burn patients. The formula is: Fluid (mL) = 4 x weight (kg) x % burn area. For a 50kg patient with 40% burns, the fluid requirement in the first 8 hours would be 4 x 50 x 40 = 8000 mL, or 8L.

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What type of needle is used for suturing skin?

Cutting needles, characterized by a triangular point, are typically used for suturing skin due to their sharp cutting edge that allows the needle to pass through thick tissue with minimal force.

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What is the best parameter to monitor the response to shock management?

The best indicator of a patient's response to shock management is the urine output. Sufficient urine production reflects adequate fluid resuscitation and organ perfusion.

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What is the investigation of choice for a stable patient with blunt abdominal injury?

In a hemodynamically stable patient with blunt abdominal trauma, a CT scan of the abdomen is the investigation of choice. This allows for detailed visualization of internal organs and detection of potential injuries.

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What is the procedure for providing nutrition shown in the image?

Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy (PEG) is a procedure that involves inserting a feeding tube into the stomach through the skin. This technique is used to provide nutritional support to patients who are unable to eat normally.

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Where is Killian's dehiscence located?

Killian's dehiscence is a point of weakness in the esophagus located just below the inferior constrictor muscle. This area is prone to herniation and dysphagia.

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What is the best procedure for management of a Ranula?

Ranula, which is a mucocele in the floor of the mouth, is best managed by surgical excision of the sublingual gland. This procedure removes the source of the mucus accumulation, thereby addressing the ranula.

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What type of thyroid cancer arises from the Parafollicular C cells?

Medullary thyroid cancer arises from the Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland. These cells produce calcitonin, a hormone that regulates calcium levels in the blood.

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What thyroid lesion cannot be definitively diagnosed via FNAC?

FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology) is a procedure used to diagnose various thyroid lesions. However, it is not as reliable in diagnosing follicular cancer, which requires further histological examination.

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What type of tumor arises from the parotid gland?

Warthin's tumor, also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is a benign tumor that primarily arises from the parotid gland. It is characterized by the presence of cystic structures lined by epithelial cells and lymphoid tissue.

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What nerve is most commonly damaged during thyroid surgery?

The external branch of the laryngeal nerve (ELN) is the most commonly injured nerve during thyroid surgery. This nerve is located in close proximity to the thyroid gland and is vulnerable to damage during surgical dissection.

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What is the Stage of Breast Cancer with a 3cm tumor and 4 axillary nodes?

Breast cancer is staged based on the size of the tumor and the involvement of lymph nodes. A 3cm tumor with 4 axillary lymph nodes falls under Stage II breast cancer.

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What is the cause of Peau d'Orange in breast cancer?

Peau d'orange in breast cancer is caused by the infiltration of subdermal lymphatics by cancer cells. This infiltration leads to thickening and dimpling of the skin, resembling the texture of an orange peel.

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Where is the dye injected ideally for Sentinel Node Biopsy in Breast cancer?

Sentinel node biopsy, a procedure used to determine if breast cancer has spread to lymph nodes, requires the injection of dye ideally in the peritumoral area. This allows for the identification of the sentinel lymph node, which is the first lymph node to receive drainage from the tumor.

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What is the diagnosis of the mammography image?

The mammography image shows a fibroadenoma, a benign tumor of the breast that is characterized by a well-defined, round mass with a smooth margin. Fibroadenomas are typically firm and mobile.

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What investigation is not done in Cancer Esophagus Evalution?

pH metry is not typically included in cancer esophagus evaluation. Other investigations include biopsy, CT chest, and PET scan.

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What condition can Gastric Outlet Obstruction lead to?

Gastric outlet obstruction can lead to hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs because the stomach loses hydrochloric acid (HCl) due to the blockage, leading to a decrease in blood chloride levels and a rise in pH.

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What is the typical age of presentation for Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis?

Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis typically presents in infants around 4 weeks of age. It is characterized by overgrowth of the pyloric muscle, which causes obstruction to the flow of food from the stomach into the small intestine.

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What is NOT characteristic of Achalasia Cardia?

Achalasia Cardia is characterized by increased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone, absence of normal peristalsis in the esophagus, and proximal dilatation of the esophagus. It is important to note that achalasia cardia has a risk of developing into cancer.

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What is Boerhaave syndrome?

Boerhaave syndrome is a medical emergency that involves a spontaneous rupture of the esophagus. This can occur during forceful vomiting or straining, leading to leakage of gastric contents into the chest cavity, which can cause serious complications.

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What is the diagnosis based on the Barium enema image?

The Barium enema image shows an intussusception, a condition in which a portion of the intestine telescopes into the adjacent segment. This can cause obstruction and severe abdominal pain.

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What is the diagnosis based on the USG image?

The ultrasound image is consistent with acute appendicitis, an inflammation of the appendix. This is often characterized by right lower abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and vomiting.

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What is FALSE about Crohn's disease?

Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. It is characterized by skip lesions (areas of inflammation interspersed with normal tissue), aphthous ulcers, fistula formation, and strictures, but the disease can reoccur even after surgery.

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What is the best treatment for Anal Cancer Squamous cell cancer?

Squamous cell carcinoma of the anus is best managed with chemoradiation therapy, a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. This approach aims to effectively destroy the cancer cells while minimizing damage to surrounding tissues.

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What is TRUE about Carcinoid Tumor?

Carcinoid tumors are neuroendocrine tumors that originate from Kulchitsky cells. They are typically slow-growing and often secrete hormones, such as serotonin, but they do not always present with paroxysmal hypertension. A punch biopsy is not the preferred diagnostic tool for carcinoid tumors.

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What polyp type is LEAST likely to turn malignant?

Hyperplastic polyps are the least likely to turn malignant compared to other polyp types, such as inflammatory polyps, hamartomatous polyps, and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) polyps. These are typically small and are not considered precancerous lesions.

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What is the most common location of Lymphoma in the GIT?

The stomach is the most common location for lymphoma in the gastrointestinal tract. This type of cancer affects the lymphatic system and can spread to other organs.

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What is FALSE about Femoral hernia?

Femoral hernias are more common in women, particularly those who have had multiple pregnancies (multiparous women). Lockwood's infrainguinal approach is a surgical technique used to repair a femoral hernia. A cough impulse is usually present in femoral hernias, and they have a high risk of strangulation.

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What is the content of Littre's hernia?

Littre's hernia occurs when a Meckel's diverticulum, a small pouch of tissue in the small intestine, protrudes through a weakness in the abdominal wall.

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What type of hernia is classified as Type 3A in the Nyhus Classification system?

In the Nyhus classification system, Type 3A refers to direct inguinal hernias. These occur when the hernial sac protrudes through the transversalis fascia but does not enter the inguinal canal.

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What is the MC immediate complication of splenectomy?

Hemorrhage is the most common immediate complication following splenectomy, a surgical procedure to remove the spleen. This is due to the spleen's rich blood supply and the potential for postoperative bleeding.

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What is the best investigation for a 6 year old girl with high fever , rigors and pain in right hypochondrium?

In a 6-year-old girl presenting with fever, rigors, and right hypochondrium pain, a contrast-enhanced CT scan is the best investigation. This allows for detailed visualization of the liver and surrounding structures, enabling the diagnosis of abscesses.

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What is the name of the investigation shown?

ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) is a procedure that involves inserting a scope into the digestive system to visualize the bile ducts and pancreas. It is used to diagnose and treat various conditions, such as gallstones and pancreatitis.

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What is the diagnosis based on the USG image?

The ultrasound image shows gallstones, solid deposits that form in the gallbladder. These stones can cause pain, inflammation, and other complications, such as cholecystitis.

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What is Pringle's manuever used to control bleeding from?

Pringle's maneuver is a technique used to control bleeding during liver surgery by temporarily clamping the hepatic artery. This reduces blood flow to the liver, allowing for a safer surgical procedure.

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What is used to assess the severity of Acute Pancreatitis?

The severity of acute pancreatitis is assessed using the Ranson score. This scoring system takes into account several clinical and laboratory parameters, including blood glucose levels, white blood cell count, and serum enzyme levels, to determine the likelihood of complications.

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What is the surgery of choice for Annular Pancreas?

In cases of Annular Pancreas, a condition where the pancreas encircles the duodenum, the surgery of choice is a duodeno-duodenostomy. This procedure involves creating an anastomosis between the two segments of the duodenum, bypassing the obstructed area.

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What is the best for management of a 3cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?

For a 3cm stone in the renal pelvis without hydronephrosis, percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL) is the best treatment. This procedure involves making a small incision in the back and using a scope to remove the stone.

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What is the diagnosis for seizures in a post operative patient after a TURP procedure for BPH?

Following a TURP procedure (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate), a patient developing seizures post-operatively is likely experiencing water intoxication. This can occur due to excessive fluid absorption during the surgery.

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What condition predisposes to Torsion?

Bell Clapper testis is a condition where the tunica vaginalis, the membrane that surrounds the testicle, is abnormally loose, making the testicle more susceptible to torsion. This condition can lead to a twisting of the spermatic cord, restricting blood flow to the testicle.

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What condition is Chordee associated with?

Chordee is a condition where the penis is bent or curved due to a fibrous band located on the underside of the penis. It is often associated with hypospadias, a condition where the opening of the urethra is located on the underside of the penis.

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What is the most common complication of stripping varicose veins below the knee?

Neuralgia, or nerve pain, is the most common complication of stripping varicose veins below the knee. This occurs due to the potential damage to surrounding nerves during the stripping procedure.

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What is FALSE about Buerger's disease?

Buerger's disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, affects small and medium-sized arteries and veins in the extremities, typically in the legs and arms. It is not known to cause hypohidrosis (decreased sweating), although it can cause nerve involvement and superficial thrombophlebitis.

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What is a xenograft?

A xenograft is a transplant of tissue or organs between different species (e.g., from a pig to a human). This type of transplant is often used in research, but it is not typically used in clinical settings due to the risk of rejection.

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What is Craniopharyngioma?

Craniopharyngiomas are benign tumors that arise from the Rathke's pouch, a structure that develops into the anterior pituitary gland. These tumors can press on the pituitary gland and can cause a variety of symptoms.

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Study Notes

Nasogastric Tube Insertion

  • Correct position for inserting a nasogastric tube is sitting with the neck flexed.

Ryles Tube Insertion

  • Ryles tube insertion is performed in either a semi-Fowler or Fowler position.

Identifying the Tip of the Nasogastric Tube

  • Use pH paper to identify the stomach. The pH paper in the acidic range (1-3) indicates the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.

e-FAST Assessment

  • The e-FAST exam assesses the presence of blood in the peritoneum or pericardium.
  • The exam focuses on four areas: epigastric (pericardial), splenic, hepatic, and pelvic.
  • The e-FAST exam also assesses the left and right thoracic cavities to help detect pneumothorax and collection in the thoracic cavity.

Prophylactic Antibiotics

  • Prophylactic antibiotics are given 60 minutes before skin incision to minimize surgical site infections (SSIs).

Surgical Site Infections (SSI)

  • SSI rates vary by the type of surgical procedure, ranging from 1-2% for clean surgeries to 7% and 13-20% in contaminated and dirty surgeries, respectively. A dirty surgery is one where the incision occurs though an abscess.

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

  • A patient exhibiting eye opening on painful stimulus, conscious but confused, and unable to tell time, and exhibiting flexion on painful stimuli to the arm, has a GCS of 10.
  • Details of the GCS scoring are presented in a table format.

Class III Hemorrhagic Shock

  • Class III hemorrhagic shock is characterized by blood loss of 30-40%.

Burns Fluid Calculation

  • For a 50kg patient with 40% burns, the Ringer lactate fluid to be given in the first 8 hours is 4 Liters.

Surgical Needle Types

  • A cutting needle is a commonly used type of needle to suture skin.

Surgical Suturing Techniques

  • Various needles, including the 1/4, 3/8, 1/2, and 5/8 curved needles, as well as straight and compound curves are displayed. Diagram of each type of needle is included.

Monitoring Shock Response

  • Urine output is the most important parameter to monitor the response to shock management.

Investigation for Blunt Abdominal Trauma

  • The investigation of choice for a hemodynamically stable patient with blunt abdominal trauma is a CT scan of the abdomen.

Nutritional Support Procedures

  • Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) is a procedure used to provide nutrition.

Killian's Dehiscence

  • Killian's dehiscence is located below the inferior constrictor.

Ranula Management

  • Excision of the sublingual gland is the procedure used in Ranula Management.

Thyroid Cancer

  • Medullary cancer arises from parafollicular C cells of the thyroid.

Fine Needle Aspiration (FNAC)

  • FNAC is an effective diagnostic technique for various thyroid lesions, except follicular cancers.

Warthin's Tumor

  • Warthin's tumor originates from the parotid gland.

Thyroid Surgery Nerve Injury

  • The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) is the most frequently injured nerve during thyroid surgery, followed by the external laryngeal nerve (ELN) and the inferior laryngeal nerve (ILN)

BEAHR'S Triangle

  • BEAHR'S Triangle is the location where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is at its highest risk of injury in thyroid surgery.
  • Borders of the BEAHR'S Triangle include the trachea-oesophageal groove, common carotid artery and inferior thyroid artery.

Breast Cancer Staging

  • A breast cancer measuring 3 cm with 4 axillary nodes is staged as stage II.

Breast Cancer Tumor Size

  • Various stages of breast cancer are categorized by the size of the tumor. T1, T1mi, T1a, T1b, T1c, T2, T3, T4a, and T4b refer to varying tumor sizes. Various details of Tumor characteristics are noted, with the T staging included.

Peau d'Orange Appearance in Breast Cancer

  • The peau d'orange (orange peel) appearance in breast cancer is associated with infiltration of subdermal lymphatics.

Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy

  • In sentinel lymph node biopsy for breast cancer, the dye is injected ideally peritumorally.

Mammography Diagnosis

  • The diagnosis of a mammography image showing a well defined, round mass most likely a fibroadenoma.

Esophageal Cancer Investigation

  • The investigation shown refers to a transesophageal ultrasound (TUS) used in the diagnosis of T3N1 esophageal cancer.

Rat Tail Appearance in Esophageal Cancer

  • A rat tail appearance in a chest X-ray suggests a possible esophageal cancer.

Gastric Outlet Obstruction

  • Gastric outlet obstruction leads to hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.

Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

  • Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents at 4 weeks of age.

Achalasia Cardia

  • Achalasia cardia, a condition also known as esophageal achalasia, typically presents with increased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone, proximal dilatation, and absence of normal peristalsis. Risk of malignancy is also associated.

Boerhaave Syndrome

  • Boerhaave syndrome involves spontaneous rupture of the esophagus.

Barium Enema Diagnosis

  • The barium enema for a patient with signs of bowel wall inflammation indicates intussusception.

Acute Appendicitis Diagnosis

  • Ultrasound (or CT scan) would find an inflamed appendix (in the right lower quadrant). This would be the diagnosis from the provided pain locations.

Crohn's Disease Features

  • Crohn's disease is characterized by skip lesions, apthous ulcers, and fistula formation. It can reoccur after surgery.

Anal Cancer

  • Chemoradiation is the best treatment for anal squamous cell cancer..

Carcinoid Tumor Characteristics

  • Carcinoid tumors are often benign and originate from Kulchitsky cells. Some patients also present with paroxysmal hypertension.

Least Malignant Polyp Type

  • Hyperplastic polyps are the least likely to become malignant.
  • Inflammatory polyps or Hamartomatous polyps are more likely to be malignant.

Lymphoma in the GI Tract

  • The stomach is a common location for lymphoma in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

Femoral Hernia

  • Femoral hernia is less common in nulliparous women, in contrast to inguinal hernia.

Littre's Hernia Content

  • Littre's hernia contains Meckel's diverticulum.

Nyhus Classification of Hernia

  • Nyhus type III A is a direct hernia.

Splenectomy Complications

  • The most frequent immediate complication following a splenectomy is hemorrhage.

Acute Pancreatitis Severity Assessment

  • The severity of acute pancreatitis is assessed using the Ranson score.

Annular Pancreas

  • Duodeno-duodenostomy is the surgical procedure of choice for annular pancreas.

PCNL Procedure

  • Placement of nephroscope, irrigation fluid and ultrasonic probes are parts of the procedure known as PCNL (percutaneous nephrolithotomy).

Post-TURP Complications

  • Water intoxication can occur in a patient following transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP).

Prostate Zones

  • Diagrams illustrate the different zones of the prostate, including the transition zone, central zone, peripheral zone, and more. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and prostate cancer are located within those zones, as well as the anterior and lateral lobes and middle and posterior lobes.

Approaches to Prostate Surgery

  • Various prostate surgical approaches are illustrated.

Hydronephrosis

  • Hydronephrosis, a complication that results from urinary tract obstruction, can be a sign of certain conditions and may affect the diagnosis.

Bell Clapper Testis

  • Bell clapper deformity of the testicle is a risk factor for testicular torsion.

Hypospadias

  • Hypospadias is associated with chordee.

Urinary System Abnormalities

  • Certain abnormalities of the lower urinary system are detailed. Includes hooded foreskin, glandular, coronal, penile and perineal considerations.

Varicose Vein Stripping Complications

  • The most prevalent complication of varicose vein stripping below the knee is neuralgia (nerve pain).

Buerger's Disease Exclusions

  • Small acral vessels of the limb involvement does not cause Hypohidrosis (lack of sweat gland function) in Buerger's Disease. This was the exclusion in the multiple choice question.

Xenograft definition

  • A xenograft is a transplant of tissues or cells from one species to another.
  • This is in contrast to an allograft, which is a transplant from one relative to another, or an autograft, where tissue is transplanted within the same individual.

Craniopharyngioma Origin

  • Craniopharyngioma arises from the Rathke's pouch.

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Test your knowledge on essential nursing techniques such as nasogastric tube insertion, e-FAST assessment, and proper antibiotic prophylaxis before surgical procedures. This quiz covers critical information needed to ensure patient safety and effective care in various clinical settings.

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