Microbiology Quiz on Infectious Agents

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Questions and Answers

During T cell development, which cells are eliminated?

  • Cells that react with neither self MHC nor foreign antigen
  • Cells that react with self MHC and foreign antigen (correct)
  • Cells that react only with self MHC
  • Cells that react only with foreign antigen

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of T cells?

  • T cells mature in the thymus and then migrate to the bone marrow for further development
  • T cells mature in the lymph nodes and then migrate to the thymus for further development
  • T cells mature in the spleen and then migrate to the thymus for further development
  • T cells mature in the bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus for further development (correct)

Which amino acid is unique to peptidoglycan?

  • Diaminopimelic Acid (correct)
  • L-Lysine
  • D-Glutamate
  • L-Alanine

Which of the following viruses has an infectious RNA genome?

<p>Poliovirus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary site of antibody binding?

<p>The hypervariable regions of H and L Chains (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE about both measles and rubella viruses?

<p>They cause a rash that can be mistaken for other viral infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following groups is NOT recommended to receive the shingles vaccine?

<p>Those who have never had chickenpox (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which virus is most frequently responsible for congenital infections?

<p>Cytomegalovirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about killing bacteria is FALSE?

<p>Detergents can enhance the penetration of bacterial cell membranes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which viral group is known for establishing latent infections?

<p>Herpesvirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Staphylococcus aureus is incorrect?

<p>Endotoxin is an important pathogenic factor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Gram-negative rods is FALSE?

<p>Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis, is on the rise because changing antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most accurate statement regarding Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)?

<p>It can lead to chronic liver disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would be the BEST interpretation of a patient's serological tests if they are HbsAg negative, IgM core antibody negative, and Hbs antibody positive?

<p>The patient is immune to hepatitis B. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding Yersinia pestis is FALSE?

<p>The diagnosis must be made serologically because the organism does not grow in culture. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding Lancefield group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae), which of the following is NOT a characteristic?

<p>Pyoderma (impetigo) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The coagulase test is used to differentiate which type of bacteria?

<p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> from <em>Staphylococcus epidermidis</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a known mechanism of action of cholera toxin?

<p>Activation of the enzyme adenylate cyclase in the mucosal epithelium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a positive HbsAg result, what does this indicate?

<p>The patient is currently infected with the hepatitis B virus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Yersinia pestis?

<p><em>Yersinia pestis</em> is a common cause of food poisoning. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacteria produces coagulase?

<p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which one of the following statements regarding the mode of action of antimicrobial drugs is NOT correct?

<p>Amphotericin B inhibits certain fungi but is ineffective against most bacteria because it binds much more efficiently to fungal ribosomal proteins than to those in bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding viral serotypes is NOT correct?

<p>Some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines the serotype. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is INCORRECT?

<p>It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenyl cyclase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements comparing anaphylactic and immune complex hypersensitivities is MOST accurate?

<p>Less antigen is required for a reaction in immune complex hypersensitivity than in anaphylactic hypersensitivity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding the viral envelope is LEAST accurate?

<p>When RNA polymerases are present in a virus, they are typically found as one of the envelope proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the development of resistance to penicillin in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

<p>The development of resistance is most often caused by a mutation in the penicillin-binding protein. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is TRUE?

<p>It is an aerobic, gram-negative coccus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of the immune complex hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>The reaction is typically triggered by a delayed-type hypersensitivity response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Escherichia coli is incorrect?

<p>It causes diarrhea in all cases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding influenza is false?

<p>Influenza viruses can only be diagnosed serologically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not true?

<p>It typically produces both exotoxins and endotoxins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bacterial metabolism, which statement is incorrect?

<p>Glucose oxidation in bacteria can exclusively occur through the glycolytic pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae and diphtheria, which statement is not accurate?

<p>The natural habitat of the organism is the soil, where it forms spores. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following organisms is NOT considered a gram-negative rod?

<p>Streptococcus pyogenes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella is true?

<p>They both do not ferment lactose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

<p>It is a common member of the normal flora of the human colon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a beneficial change resulting from chemical modification of penicillin G?

<p>Increased activity against gram-stain negative rods (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Rotaviruses is INCORRECT?

<p>Rotaviruses are transmitted primarily by respiratory droplets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Identify the FALSE statement regarding bacterial flagella.

<p>Both rods and cocci have flagella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the normal flora is INCORRECT?

<p>Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal normal flora of the throat (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV) is NOT accurate?

<p>Acyclovir can be used to treat primarily lesions in an immunocompetent host (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the latent period of the viral growth cycle, which of the following events is LEAST likely to occur?

<p>Production of Extracellular virions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about hepatitis viruses is NOT correct?

<p>Hepatitis A virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

<p>It is a sexually transmitted infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Aureus infections

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus, often lead to abscess formation.

Chemical modification of penicillin G

Alterations made to penicillin G to enhance its effectiveness in clinical use.

Rotavirus

A virus that causes diarrhea, primarily in young children, belonging to the Reoviridae family.

Flagella

Tail-like structures that help bacteria swim towards food or away from danger.

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Normal flora

The collection of bacteria normally living in or on the body, contributing to health.

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Herpes simplex virus

A virus that causes painful lesions, especially in genitals and is important in neonatal infections.

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Latent virus period

A phase of viral growth where the virus remains inactive within the host.

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Hepatitis viruses

Viruses that cause inflammation of the liver, each type has different modes of transmission and effects.

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Mature T Cells

Mature T Cells express either CD4 or CD8 proteins, not both.

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Thymic Education

The process where T Cells learn to recognize self-MHC and eliminate self-reactive clones.

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T Cell Origin

T Cells originate in bone marrow and mature in the thymus.

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Delayed Hypersensitivity

T Cells facilitate delayed hypersensitivity reactions, like the tuberculin skin test.

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Diaminopimelic Acid

An amino acid uniquely found in peptidoglycan of bacteria.

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RNA Infectious Viruses

Certain viruses like Poliovirus have infectious RNA genomes when purified.

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Shingles Vaccine Recommendation

Recommended for individuals older than age 60 years.

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Killing Bacteria Mechanisms

Various methods like silver nitrate, UV light, and lysozymes are used to kill bacteria.

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Hepatitis B serology interpretation

Result shows HBsAg negative, IgM negative, and HBsAb positive indicating immunity.

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Yersinia pestis characteristics

Yersinia pestis is a gram-negative rod with low infectious dose and animal reservoirs.

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Lancefield group B characteristics

S. agalactiae: 5-25% vaginal carriage, beta-hemolysis, causes neonatal sepsis.

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Coagulase test purpose

Used to distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis based on plasma clotting.

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Cholera toxin function

Cholera toxin activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP levels in epithelial cells.

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Signs of acute hepatitis B

Active hepatitis shows HBsAg and IgM positive; absence indicates prior clearance.

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Plague transmission precautions

Avoid handling dead wild animals to prevent disease spread through fleas.

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Cholera toxin effects on cells

Cholera toxin primarily leads to diarrhea through mucosal epithelium alteration.

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Gram-negative bacteria

Organisms that appear red after taking up the secondary dye safranin.

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Antibody-binding site

Formed primarily by the variable regions of heavy and light chains.

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Congenital infection

The most common one is caused by Cytomegalovirus.

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Latent infections

Herpesvirus is likely to establish these types of infections.

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Staphylococcus aureus

Correct statements include positive coagulase test, but not endotoxin as key factor.

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E. Coli

A type of bacteria normally found in the human colon that can cause diarrhea in some cases.

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Klebsiella pneumoniae

A gram-negative rod that can cause pneumonia and is part of the normal flora in the colon.

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Influenza A virus

A virus that undergoes antigenic shifts to evade immunity, causing serious diseases and epidemics.

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Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

A bacterium linked to wound infections, antibiotic resistance, and commonly found in water.

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Diphtheria toxin

A toxin that inhibits protein synthesis in human cells by blocking elongation factor 2.

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Gram-positive rods in diphtheria

A Gram stain of diphtheria reveals the presence of these distinct bacteria shaping its diagnosis.

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Bacterial metabolism

The process by which bacteria convert nutrients into energy, involving key molecules like NADH.

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Antigenic shift

A significant change in a virus's antigens, allowing it to escape immune responses.

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Viral Serotypes

Different variations of a virus identified by their serological properties.

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Neisseria Meningitidis

A gram-negative diplococcus that can cause meningitis and contains endotoxins.

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Anaphylactic Hypersensitivity

A rapid allergic reaction mediated by IgE after exposure to an antigen.

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Immune Complex Hypersensitivity

A delayed allergic reaction involving antigen-antibody complexes and complement.

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Antimicrobial Drug Action

Mechanisms by which drugs inhibit bacterial growth or function.

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Viral Envelope

A lipid membrane surrounding certain viruses, impacting infectivity and stability.

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Enveloped vs Non-enveloped Viruses

Enveloped viruses are more sensitive to environmental factors than non-enveloped viruses.

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Mechanism of Penicillin Resistance

Bacteria develop resistance through changes like altering penicillin-binding proteins.

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Study Notes

Microbiology Question Bank Exam 2020/2021

  • Question 1: All agents except aztreonam have good Gram-positive activity.

  • Question 2: Phylogenetic taxonomy determines DNA relatedness between a strain and a known species.

  • Question 3: Both Shigella and Campylobacter have an animal reservoir and can be cultured on bacteriologic media. However, Shigella and Campylobacter are gram-negative bacteria, not gram-positive,

  • Question 4: Enterococcus faecalis is least likely to cause UTI, based on lactose-negative colonies and lack of swarming

  • Question 5: Some strains of S. aureus produce β-lactamase, making them resistant to penicillin.

  • Question 6: Diagnosis of cryptococcal disease involves detecting capsular antigen, the fungus can be dimorphic (hyphae in soil, yeasts in humans). It mainly infects lungs.

  • Question 7: Measles and rubella viruses share features such as lifelong immunity following natural infection, they are both enveloped RNA viruses and cause congenital abnormalities

  • Question 8: Leptospira organisms associated with Leptospirosis specifically are usually transmitted by human-to-human contact.

  • Question 9: Viral neutralizing antibodies are directed against viral proteins found outside the virus particle.

  • Question 10: Mycobacterium leprae does not grow on bacteriologic media within the 3-6 weeks timeframe

  • Question 11: A newborn whose mother is HBsAg positive should receive both the HBV vaccine and HBIG.

  • Question 12: A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by an infiltrate composed of lymphocytes and macrophages.

  • Question 13: Acid-fast stain is used to identify metachromatic granules.

  • Question 14: Clostridium Tetani does not grow on blood agar plates in the presence of room air. 

  • Question 15: Retroviruses do not have a DNA genome.

  • Question 16: Endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide with a toxic lipid portion.

  • Question 17: Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin and streptomycin, inhibit protein synthesis.

  • Question 18: Acute rheumatic fever arises from cross-reactivity of immune response against streptococcal antigens.

  • Question 19: Mycoplasma pneumonia is primarily in immunocompetent individuals.

  • Question 20: Staphylococci associated with TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome) are characterized by their appearance in grapelike clusters on a Gram – stained smear.

  • Question 21: Yellow fever virus has an animal reservoir.

  • Question 22: The bacterial chromosome is a large, circular, double-stranded DNA.

  • Question 23: Gram-negative bacteria decolorize during Gram stain due to lipids in their cell wall.

  • Question 24: Peptidoglycan is not in the cell wall of animals or fungi. 

  • Question 25: Lysogens are when phage DNA is covalently attached to bacterial DNA and thus prevent further phage infection, lytics are not present. 

  • Question 26: Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharide. Gram-positive bacteria can have capsules too, but Gram-negative rarely do. 

  • Question 27: Herpes simplex virus type 2 is often an important cause of neonatal/infantile infections.

  • Question 28: Viral nucleic acid sequences are not used as a definition for viral neutralisation. 

  • Question 29: Botulism is caused by a toxin that breaks down lecithin or lecithinase, destroying nerve cells.

  • Question 30: Streptococcus pyogenes is characterized by the production of beta-hemolysin and M protein. 

  • Question 31: Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen.

  • Question 32: Certain strains of E.coli produce enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase.

  • Question 33: Arbovirus do not include the following characteristics. 

  • Question 34: Typhoid fever is not considered a zoonosis

  • Question 35: Neisseria are characterized by being gram-negative diplococci, oxidase-positive, and capable of producing IgA protease.

  • Question 36: In AIDS, the Helper T - Suppressor T cell ratio is lower than normal because viral replication destroys helper T cells

  • Question 37: Mycobacterium tuberculosis appear as rods in acid-fast stains, not Gram stains, and resist acid alcohol decolorisation after staining with carbolfuchsin. 

  • Question 38: Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease is a gram-negative spirochete that is transmitted by a tick bite, it does form serotypes but not as described in the question.

  • Question 39: All RNA viruses are not spherical, and some DNA viruses have helical nucleocapsids. 

  • Question 40: Bacteroides fragilis; Clostridium botulinum; Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Staphylococcus aureus do not produce exotoxins.

  • Question 41: Influenza A virus is more associated with severe pandemics.

  • Question 42: Treponema pallidum (the cause of syphilis) is a spiral-shaped rod treated with prolonged penicillin G administration

  • Question 43: Gonococcal conjunctivitis in newborns can be prevented by prophylactic use of silver nitrate.

  • Question 44: Cytomegalovirus can cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome and is excreted in urine.

  • Question 45: The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway exist with other metabolic pathways or in conjunction with the Entner-Doudroff and glycolysis pathways, it is not specific to obligate aerobes. 

  • Question 46: Feedback inhibition is a mechanism for fine control of metabolic pathways, with other regulatory mechanisms also provided in the question.

  • Question 47: Shigella sonnei is an intestinal mucosa invader.

  • Question 48: Resistance to penicillin in bacteria can occur due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases or enzymatic drug modification, it can be by ß-lactamase.

  • Question 49: Eastern equine encephalitis can be countered through eradication of the horse reservoir.

  • Question 50: Bacterial species are closely related in the important features of organisation.

  • Question 51: Poliovirus is a nonenveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

  • Question 52: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for anaerobic infections like B. fragilis.

  • Question 53: Common cause of gastroenteritis symptoms like nausea, vomitting, and diarrhea is E. coli

  • Question 54: The only incorrect statement regarding plague describes humans as the only natural hosts. 

  • Question 55: Herpes simplex virus infection in humans is mostly characterised by establishing latent infection.

  • Question 56: One process in which DNA is released from a bacterium, taking it up and changing the characteristics of another bacterium is called transformation. 

  • Question 57: Identification of bacteria capsules is through preparing mounts with India ink

  • Question 58: Protein A of S. aureus binds to the Fc portion of IgG.

  • **Question 59:**Arboviruses are not all DNA viruses; there are RNA viruses involved in the arbovirus family

  • Question 60: Scalded skin syndrome arises from enzymatic degradation of epidermal desmosomes by S. aureus ,and S. aureus produces coagulation not catalase

  • Question 61: Chemical modifications have decreased the frequency of anaphylaxis and increased resistance to stomach acid. 

  • Question 62: Rotaviruses are transmitted via respiratory droplets, not through vectors

  • Question 63: Flagella is composed of a single protein, flagellin

  • Question 64: Escherichia coli is a normal flora organism in the throat, and the most normal flora on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermis.

  • Question 65: Herpes simplex virus cannot be eradicated but can be treated in immunocompetent hosts, which is common. 

  • Question 66: Synthesis of capsid proteins is not least likely during latent period

  • Question 67: Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, and its presence does not necessarily indicate a chronic infection.

  • Question 68: There are some strains of Bacteroides fragilis that are associated with the production of a toxin or fragilin, which is responsible for the diarrheal symptoms

  • Question 69: Varicella-zoster virus infections can be characterized by the presence of vesicular lesions on the skin in recurrent and primary forms in humans.

  • Question 70: Listeria Monocytogenes can be cultured in human trophoblastic cells

  • Question 71: Fluroquinolones do not inhibit protein synthesis.

  • Question 72: Neisseria is not a reservoir for any other animal species; these bacteria only exist in humans. 

  • Question 73: Chlamydia does not produce toxins or require energy independent of host cells, and thus cannot synthesize independent energy, but is typically intracellular

  • Question 74: The bacterial structure that mediates adherence to mucous membranes is pili (also referred to as fimbriae)

  • Question 75: Opportunistic infections in AIDS are due to a loss of cell-mediated immunity

  • Question 76: Passive Immunization is short-lasting, and does not employ human sensitized cells

  • Question 77: Some bacteria grow exponentially and logistically, and do not undergo meiosis

  • Question 78: Tetanus spores do not require anaerobic conditions

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