Microbiology Quiz on Infectious Agents
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Questions and Answers

During T cell development, which cells are eliminated?

  • Cells that react with neither self MHC nor foreign antigen
  • Cells that react with self MHC and foreign antigen (correct)
  • Cells that react only with self MHC
  • Cells that react only with foreign antigen

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of T cells?

  • T cells mature in the thymus and then migrate to the bone marrow for further development
  • T cells mature in the lymph nodes and then migrate to the thymus for further development
  • T cells mature in the spleen and then migrate to the thymus for further development
  • T cells mature in the bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus for further development (correct)

    • Which amino acid is unique to peptidoglycan?

  • Diaminopimelic Acid (correct)
  • L-Lysine
  • D-Glutamate
  • L-Alanine

    • Which of the following viruses has an infectious RNA genome?

    <p>Poliovirus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site of antibody binding?

    <p>The hypervariable regions of H and L Chains (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about both measles and rubella viruses?

    <p>They cause a rash that can be mistaken for other viral infections. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups is NOT recommended to receive the shingles vaccine?

    <p>Those who have never had chickenpox (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which virus is most frequently responsible for congenital infections?

    <p>Cytomegalovirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about killing bacteria is FALSE?

    <p>Detergents can enhance the penetration of bacterial cell membranes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which viral group is known for establishing latent infections?

    <p>Herpesvirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Staphylococcus aureus is incorrect?

    <p>Endotoxin is an important pathogenic factor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Gram-negative rods is FALSE?

    <p>Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis, is on the rise because changing antigenicity has made the vaccine relatively ineffective. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most accurate statement regarding Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)?

    <p>It can lead to chronic liver disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following would be the BEST interpretation of a patient's serological tests if they are HbsAg negative, IgM core antibody negative, and Hbs antibody positive?

    <p>The patient is immune to hepatitis B. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding Yersinia pestis is FALSE?

    <p>The diagnosis must be made serologically because the organism does not grow in culture. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding Lancefield group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae), which of the following is NOT a characteristic?

    <p>Pyoderma (impetigo) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The coagulase test is used to differentiate which type of bacteria?

    <p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> from <em>Staphylococcus epidermidis</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a known mechanism of action of cholera toxin?

    <p>Activation of the enzyme adenylate cyclase in the mucosal epithelium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient has a positive HbsAg result, what does this indicate?

    <p>The patient is currently infected with the hepatitis B virus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Yersinia pestis?

    <p><em>Yersinia pestis</em> is a common cause of food poisoning. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following bacteria produces coagulase?

    <p><em>Staphylococcus aureus</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following statements regarding the mode of action of antimicrobial drugs is NOT correct?

    <p>Amphotericin B inhibits certain fungi but is ineffective against most bacteria because it binds much more efficiently to fungal ribosomal proteins than to those in bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding viral serotypes is NOT correct?

    <p>Some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines the serotype. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is INCORRECT?

    <p>It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenyl cyclase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements comparing anaphylactic and immune complex hypersensitivities is MOST accurate?

    <p>Less antigen is required for a reaction in immune complex hypersensitivity than in anaphylactic hypersensitivity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding the viral envelope is LEAST accurate?

    <p>When RNA polymerases are present in a virus, they are typically found as one of the envelope proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about the development of resistance to penicillin in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    <p>The development of resistance is most often caused by a mutation in the penicillin-binding protein. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is TRUE?

    <p>It is an aerobic, gram-negative coccus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of the immune complex hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>The reaction is typically triggered by a delayed-type hypersensitivity response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Escherichia coli is incorrect?

    <p>It causes diarrhea in all cases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding influenza is false?

    <p>Influenza viruses can only be diagnosed serologically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not true?

    <p>It typically produces both exotoxins and endotoxins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of bacterial metabolism, which statement is incorrect?

    <p>Glucose oxidation in bacteria can exclusively occur through the glycolytic pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae and diphtheria, which statement is not accurate?

    <p>The natural habitat of the organism is the soil, where it forms spores. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organisms is NOT considered a gram-negative rod?

    <p>Streptococcus pyogenes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella is true?

    <p>They both do not ferment lactose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

    <p>It is a common member of the normal flora of the human colon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a beneficial change resulting from chemical modification of penicillin G?

    <p>Increased activity against gram-stain negative rods (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Rotaviruses is INCORRECT?

    <p>Rotaviruses are transmitted primarily by respiratory droplets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Identify the FALSE statement regarding bacterial flagella.

    <p>Both rods and cocci have flagella (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the normal flora is INCORRECT?

    <p>Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal normal flora of the throat (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV) is NOT accurate?

    <p>Acyclovir can be used to treat primarily lesions in an immunocompetent host (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the latent period of the viral growth cycle, which of the following events is LEAST likely to occur?

    <p>Production of Extracellular virions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about hepatitis viruses is NOT correct?

    <p>Hepatitis A virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

    <p>It is a sexually transmitted infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Microbiology Question Bank Exam 2020/2021

    • Question 1: All agents except aztreonam have good Gram-positive activity.

    • Question 2: Phylogenetic taxonomy determines DNA relatedness between a strain and a known species.

    • Question 3: Both Shigella and Campylobacter have an animal reservoir and can be cultured on bacteriologic media. However, Shigella and Campylobacter are gram-negative bacteria, not gram-positive,

    • Question 4: Enterococcus faecalis is least likely to cause UTI, based on lactose-negative colonies and lack of swarming

    • Question 5: Some strains of S. aureus produce β-lactamase, making them resistant to penicillin.

    • Question 6: Diagnosis of cryptococcal disease involves detecting capsular antigen, the fungus can be dimorphic (hyphae in soil, yeasts in humans). It mainly infects lungs.

    • Question 7: Measles and rubella viruses share features such as lifelong immunity following natural infection, they are both enveloped RNA viruses and cause congenital abnormalities

    • Question 8: Leptospira organisms associated with Leptospirosis specifically are usually transmitted by human-to-human contact.

    • Question 9: Viral neutralizing antibodies are directed against viral proteins found outside the virus particle.

    • Question 10: Mycobacterium leprae does not grow on bacteriologic media within the 3-6 weeks timeframe

    • Question 11: A newborn whose mother is HBsAg positive should receive both the HBV vaccine and HBIG.

    • Question 12: A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by an infiltrate composed of lymphocytes and macrophages.

    • Question 13: Acid-fast stain is used to identify metachromatic granules.

    • Question 14: Clostridium Tetani does not grow on blood agar plates in the presence of room air. 

    • Question 15: Retroviruses do not have a DNA genome.

    • Question 16: Endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide with a toxic lipid portion.

    • Question 17: Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin and streptomycin, inhibit protein synthesis.

    • Question 18: Acute rheumatic fever arises from cross-reactivity of immune response against streptococcal antigens.

    • Question 19: Mycoplasma pneumonia is primarily in immunocompetent individuals.

    • Question 20: Staphylococci associated with TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome) are characterized by their appearance in grapelike clusters on a Gram – stained smear.

    • Question 21: Yellow fever virus has an animal reservoir.

    • Question 22: The bacterial chromosome is a large, circular, double-stranded DNA.

    • Question 23: Gram-negative bacteria decolorize during Gram stain due to lipids in their cell wall.

    • Question 24: Peptidoglycan is not in the cell wall of animals or fungi. 

    • Question 25: Lysogens are when phage DNA is covalently attached to bacterial DNA and thus prevent further phage infection, lytics are not present. 

    • Question 26: Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharide. Gram-positive bacteria can have capsules too, but Gram-negative rarely do. 

    • Question 27: Herpes simplex virus type 2 is often an important cause of neonatal/infantile infections.

    • Question 28: Viral nucleic acid sequences are not used as a definition for viral neutralisation. 

    • Question 29: Botulism is caused by a toxin that breaks down lecithin or lecithinase, destroying nerve cells.

    • Question 30: Streptococcus pyogenes is characterized by the production of beta-hemolysin and M protein. 

    • Question 31: Facultative anaerobes can grow with or without oxygen.

    • Question 32: Certain strains of E.coli produce enterotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase.

    • Question 33: Arbovirus do not include the following characteristics. 

    • Question 34: Typhoid fever is not considered a zoonosis

    • Question 35: Neisseria are characterized by being gram-negative diplococci, oxidase-positive, and capable of producing IgA protease.

    • Question 36: In AIDS, the Helper T - Suppressor T cell ratio is lower than normal because viral replication destroys helper T cells

    • Question 37: Mycobacterium tuberculosis appear as rods in acid-fast stains, not Gram stains, and resist acid alcohol decolorisation after staining with carbolfuchsin. 

    • Question 38: Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease is a gram-negative spirochete that is transmitted by a tick bite, it does form serotypes but not as described in the question.

    • Question 39: All RNA viruses are not spherical, and some DNA viruses have helical nucleocapsids. 

    • Question 40: Bacteroides fragilis; Clostridium botulinum; Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Staphylococcus aureus do not produce exotoxins.

    • Question 41: Influenza A virus is more associated with severe pandemics.

    • Question 42: Treponema pallidum (the cause of syphilis) is a spiral-shaped rod treated with prolonged penicillin G administration

    • Question 43: Gonococcal conjunctivitis in newborns can be prevented by prophylactic use of silver nitrate.

    • Question 44: Cytomegalovirus can cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome and is excreted in urine.

    • Question 45: The oxidative pentose phosphate pathway exist with other metabolic pathways or in conjunction with the Entner-Doudroff and glycolysis pathways, it is not specific to obligate aerobes. 

    • Question 46: Feedback inhibition is a mechanism for fine control of metabolic pathways, with other regulatory mechanisms also provided in the question.

    • Question 47: Shigella sonnei is an intestinal mucosa invader.

    • Question 48: Resistance to penicillin in bacteria can occur due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases or enzymatic drug modification, it can be by ß-lactamase.

    • Question 49: Eastern equine encephalitis can be countered through eradication of the horse reservoir.

    • Question 50: Bacterial species are closely related in the important features of organisation.

    • Question 51: Poliovirus is a nonenveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

    • Question 52: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for anaerobic infections like B. fragilis.

    • Question 53: Common cause of gastroenteritis symptoms like nausea, vomitting, and diarrhea is E. coli

    • Question 54: The only incorrect statement regarding plague describes humans as the only natural hosts. 

    • Question 55: Herpes simplex virus infection in humans is mostly characterised by establishing latent infection.

    • Question 56: One process in which DNA is released from a bacterium, taking it up and changing the characteristics of another bacterium is called transformation. 

    • Question 57: Identification of bacteria capsules is through preparing mounts with India ink

    • Question 58: Protein A of S. aureus binds to the Fc portion of IgG.

    • **Question 59:**Arboviruses are not all DNA viruses; there are RNA viruses involved in the arbovirus family

    • Question 60: Scalded skin syndrome arises from enzymatic degradation of epidermal desmosomes by S. aureus ,and S. aureus produces coagulation not catalase

    • Question 61: Chemical modifications have decreased the frequency of anaphylaxis and increased resistance to stomach acid. 

    • Question 62: Rotaviruses are transmitted via respiratory droplets, not through vectors

    • Question 63: Flagella is composed of a single protein, flagellin

    • Question 64: Escherichia coli is a normal flora organism in the throat, and the most normal flora on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermis.

    • Question 65: Herpes simplex virus cannot be eradicated but can be treated in immunocompetent hosts, which is common. 

    • Question 66: Synthesis of capsid proteins is not least likely during latent period

    • Question 67: Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, and its presence does not necessarily indicate a chronic infection.

    • Question 68: There are some strains of Bacteroides fragilis that are associated with the production of a toxin or fragilin, which is responsible for the diarrheal symptoms

    • Question 69: Varicella-zoster virus infections can be characterized by the presence of vesicular lesions on the skin in recurrent and primary forms in humans.

    • Question 70: Listeria Monocytogenes can be cultured in human trophoblastic cells

    • Question 71: Fluroquinolones do not inhibit protein synthesis.

    • Question 72: Neisseria is not a reservoir for any other animal species; these bacteria only exist in humans. 

    • Question 73: Chlamydia does not produce toxins or require energy independent of host cells, and thus cannot synthesize independent energy, but is typically intracellular

    • Question 74: The bacterial structure that mediates adherence to mucous membranes is pili (also referred to as fimbriae)

    • Question 75: Opportunistic infections in AIDS are due to a loss of cell-mediated immunity

    • Question 76: Passive Immunization is short-lasting, and does not employ human sensitized cells

    • Question 77: Some bacteria grow exponentially and logistically, and do not undergo meiosis

    • Question 78: Tetanus spores do not require anaerobic conditions

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    Microbiology Question Bank Exam 2020/2021 PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on T cell development, peptidoglycan, and viral infections with this comprehensive microbiology quiz. Explore statements about various viruses, bacteria, and their characteristics, as well as vaccine recommendations. This quiz covers essential concepts in microbiology and immunology.

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