Medical Terminology Quiz on Inflammation

A disease process that is caused by medical treatment or interventions is best described as:

Which of the following describes the body's fundamental reactions to injury?

A disease with an unknown cause would be described as:

A new and abnormal proliferation of cells is best described as:

The body's initial physiological response to tissue damage is:

The redness and heat associated with inflammation are primarily caused by:

Following an injury, damaged tissue is often replaced by:

Which term describes an increase in the size of cells in a tissue or organ?

In acute inflammation, which clinical sign corresponds to swelling?

What term describes substances produced by certain bacterial organisms that damage tissue and incite the inflammatory process?

Localized heat and redness during acute inflammation are primarily a result of which of the following?

In pyogenic infections, the body responds by producing what type of fluid?

What condition arises when pyogens enter the bloodstream?

What are fibrous adhesions?

What condition is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in intercellular tissue throughout the body?

What is produced in an inflammatory reaction as a result of fluid accumulation?

Which term describes inflammation associated with pus formation?

What is the protein-rich fluid associated with swelling in an inflammatory process called?

What term describes the low-protein fluid associated with the inflammatory process, often seen in pulmonary edema?

What is the term for a localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ, resulting from vascular occlusion?

What is the term for depriving tissue of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing?

The progression of tissue necrosis due to loss of oxygen and nutrients, especially in the diabetic foot, is called?

Which term describes a subcutaneous hematoma greater than 1 to 2 cm?

What term describes an accumulation of blood trapped within body tissues?

Bleeding into mucous membranes or serosal surfaces is best described as which of the following?

The reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue is known as:

When an organ fails to develop completely, resulting in a smaller size, it is considered:

What term describes the increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells?

Proliferation of granulation tissue to repair an injury is an example of:

The term 'neoplasia' refers to:

New growths that invade, destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are best described as:

A projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane:

A malignancy originating from glandular tissue is best identified as:

A neoplastic growth that lacks a defined form is best described as:

The term that originates from the Latin word for 'crab' is:

The dissemination of malignant neoplasms by invading a natural body cavity is referred to as:

What is the major metastatic route utilized by carcinomas?

The study of neoplasms, or tumors, is called:

Tumors that closely resemble their cells of origin in structure and function are:

What process is essential for determining the most effective treatment for a disease?

The condition where tumor cells flourish causing the patient to become weak and emaciated is known as:

The use of multiple cytotoxic agents to eradicate neoplastic cells is known as:

Benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a gland-like pattern are called:

What term describes the assessment of a tumor's aggressiveness or degree of malignancy?

Which of the following is the most common type of hereditary abnormality?

Alterations in DNA resulting from exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses are termed:

A gene that produces an effect regardless of whether an individual is homozygous or heterozygous is called a(n) _____ gene.

When a vaccine or toxoid is administered to elicit an immune response against an antigen, this is considered:

The body combats antigens by producing what substance in the lymphoid tissue?

The process by which antibodies are generated in response to an antigen is called:

Which type of immunity develops after exposure to a specific pathogen?

An immediate immune response is primarily mediated by:

Which cell type plays a crucial role in the immune response?

What is the primary function of T lymphocytes?

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction manifests immediately upon exposure to an allergen?

The phenomenon in which antibodies enhance pathogen destruction is known as:

What immune cells are characteristic of chronic inflammation?

Which of the following defines the principal purpose of inflammation?

Which cells are directly responsible for antibody production?

The inflammatory response results in the accumulation of which of the following?

Which of the following is a recognized as cardinal sign of inflammation?

Which condition demonstrates an exaggerated immune response?

Identify the cells primarily involved in phagocytosis during inflammation.

What role do plasma cells have in the immune response?

What type of immunity is conferred through the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another?

Which type of white blood cell is predominantly involved in directly destroying infected cells?

What is the function of interferons in the immune response?

What is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?

Which process is most directly involved in limiting the immediate spread of an infection?

Which type of cell is primarily responsible for generating memory cells that provide long-term immunity?

Which cells are the key components of the specific or adaptive immune response, allowing for targeted and long lasting immunity?

What term best describes a localized collection of dead cells, cellular debris, and fluid?

Which factors significantly contribute to the activation and proliferation of B cells during an immune response?

Which subset of T cells plays a critical role in enhancing B cell antibody production?

The release of which chemicals contributes most significantly to the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Which of the following represents the collective outcomes of a robust immune response?

How many distinct body systems are typically recognized in the study of human anatomy and physiology?

What is the average number of bones found in a fully developed adult human skeleton?

Solid waste is primarily eliminated by which of the following human body systems?

The entirety of the ductless glands creating hormones is part of which human body system?

Which bone mentioned below occupies a position within the axial skeleton?

Bones found in tendons are formally categorized as?

Which of the following correctly identifies a bone classified as a long bone?

What type of joint is the hip?

Which of the following joints displays a 'hinge' type movement?

The vertebra prominens corresponds to the level of:

The xiphoid process is a reliable positioning landmark for determining the lower margin of the lungs for chest positioning.

Which structure is approximately 12 cm long and located in front of the esophagus?

What structure serves as a passageway for both food and air?

What is the correct anatomic name for the Adam's apple?

Which structure serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid?

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior?

The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:

The inner layer of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the:

Which type of body habitus requires that the image receptor be placed crosswise rather than lengthwise for a PA chest?

A well-inspired average adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of _____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm.

Which factor minimizes magnification of the heart in chest radiography?

Motion of the patient's diaphragm can be stopped by providing proper breathing instructions.

Which of the following structures is NOT directly associated with the ulna?

Accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity is referred to as:

The carpometacarpal joint is found between which two structures?

At which vertebral level is the xiphoid process located?

The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:

Which carpal bone articulates directly with the radius?

Which of the following describes intussusception?

What type of joint movement is associated with the interphalangeal joints?

Which of the following carpal bones is the largest?

What is a common alternate term used to refer to the greater omentum?

In which abdominal quadrant is the cecum primarily located?

What condition is defined as a twisting of a loop of bowel, eventually creating an obstruction?

Which carpal bone is most prone to fracture?

For proper elbow positioning, which two bony landmarks are palpated?

The spleen is located in which region of the peritoneum?

What is the term for the increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells?

Which term describes a neoplastic growth that lacks a defined form?

Which term refers to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a gland-like pattern?

What mnemonic device utilizes a rhyme or phrase to help remember the order of cranial nerves?

Which note organization format separates main ideas from details, making recall easier?

What type of mnemonic connects new information to something already known?

The 'I before e except after c' rule is an example of which type of mnemonic?

Using a visual image, like a bat, to remember a group of drugs is an example of which mnemonic type?

Which mnemonic format involves writing questions on one side and answers on the other?

What is a common reason why silly images in Image Mnemonics help with recall?

Which mnemonic aids in spelling by creating a memorable narrative or phrase?

Which mnemonic technique specifically helps in remembering the terms longitude and latitude?

Which phrase summarizes a technique for spelling the word 'Mississippi' effectively?

The metric conversion of 40 inches is _______ cm.

The simplest and most common shape of compensating filter is the?

All are guidelines for gonad shielding, EXCEPT?

What is the most common image receptor general position?

The central or principal beam of x-rays is termed the?

The general goal for central ray placement is?

What term is defined as the distance from the anode focal spot inside the x-ray tube to the image receptor?

All of the following are affected by the SID used for a radiographic image, EXCEPT?

The image receptor used in computed radiography IRs is a?

Blood and body fluid recommendations are issued by the?

Each radiology department must write age-specific competencies to meet the standards of the?

Gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within ____ cm of the primary x-ray field?

Which of the following radiographic examinations would give a male patient the highest gonad dose?

Which of the following is affected when imaging patients who are obese?

A fundamental responsibility of radiographers is to ensure that each radiation exposure upholds the ALARA concept. ALARA stands for?

The source of radiation in an x-ray tube, the anode, shall not be closer than _____ inches from the patient?

A physician who is board certified to read or interpret x-ray examinations is a?

Which term refers to restriction of the exposure field?

The radiocarpal wrist joint possesses an _____ type of joint movement.

The first metacarpophalangeal joint has an _____ type of joint movement.

Which wrist ligament is attached to the styloid process of the ulna and continues to the triquetrum and pisiform?

The two fat stripes of the wrist demonstrated radiographically are known as the scaphoid fat stripe and the:

This bone is located in the wrist, between the trapezoid and the hamate:

This bone is located in the wrist, between the lunate and the pisiform:

The Radiographer Practice Standards are written and maintained by the:

The Standards of Ethics for radiographers was written and is maintained by the:

Radiographic images of the hands, wrist, feet, and toes are routinely displayed with the digits:

How often should the radiographic tabletop be cleaned?

The easiest and most convenient method of preventing the spread of microorganisms is:

All are apparent abnormalities that could affect the radiographic result and should be recorded by the radiographer in the clinical history, EXCEPT:

Involuntary motion can be caused by which of the following?

Nervousness, discomfort, and fear are causes of:

Radiographers can control voluntary motion by:

Which type of accessory equipment reduces the amount of scatter and off-focus radiation that reaches the image receptor?

Which side marker should be placed on the image receptor on the edge of the collimated field for a radiographic image of a patient with an injured right hand?

What is the significance of placing the right R marker for a radiographic image of a right-hand injury?

Why is it important to collimate in radiographic imaging?

What could happen if the incorrect side marker is used in a radiographic image?

In terms of radiation safety, what is a key reason for using collimation in imaging?

How does proper collimation affect image quality in radiography?

What is the recommended placement of the side marker for a radiograph of the right hand?

What default assumption is made when a side marker is not provided in a radiographic image?

Which of the following is NOT a reason to use collimation during radiography?

What kind of image could result from improper marker placement in a radiographic procedure?

Why should the right R marker be used for a right hand injury's radiographic image?

What tool supports improved safety practices in radiography?

Can misuse of side markers lead to harmful consequences in patient care?

In radiography, what could be a consequence of inconsistent marker usage?