Medical Microbiology and Blood Components
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Questions and Answers

What is the simplest type of mutation?

  • Point mutation (correct)
  • Frameshift mutation
  • Nonsense mutation
  • Chromosomal mutation

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a public antigen?

  • Found only in a specific family
  • Usually associated with a rare blood type
  • Found in fewer than 1% of the population
  • Found in more than 98% of the population (correct)

    • What is the process called where cells coated with antibody are treated to disrupt the bond between the antigen and antibody?

  • Elution (correct)
  • Precipitation
  • Adsorption
  • Agglutination

    • What is the name of the lectin that reacts with the H antigen?

    <p>Ulex europaeus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for a gene that does not appear to produce a detectable antigen?

    <p>Amorph (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the approximate total renal plasma flow in milliliters per minute?

    <p>600-700 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a leptocyte?

    <p>A red blood cell with a fragile membrane and increased central pallor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the cells that produce testosterone in the testicles?

    <p>Leydig cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the Reed-Sternberg cell?

    <p>Caused by a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the commonality between Alder-Reilly anomaly, Chediak-Higashi anomaly, and May-Hegglin anomaly?

    <p>All are genetic disorders affecting blood cell development (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is associated with a defect in platelet adhesion?

    <p>Bernard-Soulier syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Sezary syndrome?

    <p>Exfoliative erythroderma and Sezary cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of lactoferrin in the body?

    <p>Binding to iron and reducing its availability to bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients?

    <p>Candida albicans (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal stool pH range?

    <p>pH 7 to 8 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is correctly associated with its condition?

    <p>Melena - Gastrointestinal hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following cell types is directly responsible for the production of testosterone?

    <p>Leydig cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic appearance of meconium?

    <p>Dark green and mucus-like (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible cause of a black stool?

    <p>Iron therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the reagent used in the APT test?

    <p>1% NaOH (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Florence test?

    <p>Test for choline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common adverse reaction associated with aminoglycosides?

    <p>Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the condition characterized by neuromotor irritability, muscular twitching, and convulsions, often due to low calcium levels?

    <p>Tetany (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended deferral period for blood donation after receiving a measles (rubeola) vaccination?

    <p>2 weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of crystal is linked to excessive consumption of benzoic acid?

    <p>Hippuric acid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered the best test for assessing the health of the fetoplacental unit?

    <p>Serum free estriol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical range for normal urine volume in a 24-hour period?

    <p>600 to 2000 mL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of oval fat bodies in urine sediment?

    <p>They suggest lipid-containing renal tubular epithelial cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of kidney stone is characterized by the presence of calcium oxalate?

    <p>Whewellite and weddellite (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical range for normal urine osmolality?

    <p>50 to 1400 mOsm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by moderate hematuria and RBC casts in urine sediment?

    <p>Acute glomerulonephritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical range for serum osmolality in a healthy individual?

    <p>275 to 300 mOsm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common cause of male infertility?

    <p>Varicocele (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the significance of a significant albumin-to-creatinine ratio (AER) in urine?

    <p>It suggests early kidney damage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected result of a hematocrit test in a patient with macrocytic anemia?

    <p>Falsely high hematocrit due to trapped plasma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a high anti-HBs titer?

    <p>Immunity to hepatitis B (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors can lead to a falsely elevated hematocrit result?

    <p>Inadequate centrifugation of the microhematocrit tubes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a high white blood cell count?

    <p>Inflammation or infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ideal timeframe for performing a platelet count using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid?

    <p>Within 30 minutes of dilution (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors can lead to decreased platelet clumping but increased MPV?

    <p>EDTA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a high HBV DNA level?

    <p>Active hepatitis B infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the meaning of the term "LEUKOCYTOSIS"?

    <p>High white blood cell count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most specific antibody for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

    <p>Anti-dsDNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if a Card Pregnancy Test shows a very faint test band?

    <p>Collect a new sample and test again after 48 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a molecular technique used in diagnostic testing?

    <p>Side light scatter (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following blood components is used for patients with a history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?

    <p>Leukopror RBCs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the presence of HBeAg in a patient's blood?

    <p>Indicates a high degree of infectivity for hepatitis B. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is negative for the Philadelphia chromosome. What does this indicate about the patient's prognosis?

    <p>Poor prognosis, as the lack of the Philadelphia chromosome is associated with worse disease progression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of Irradiation of blood components?

    <p>To prevent graft-versus-host disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate interpretation of a Card Pregnancy Test with two separate black or gray bands, one at T and the other at C?

    <p>Positive result: hCG is detectable in the specimen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Medical Microbiology

    • Clostridium difficile: A common cause of pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea.
    • Candida albicans: A primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients.
    • Acanthamoeba castellanii: A double-walled, wrinkled cyst form.
    • Leishmanial form: Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates.
    • Normal stool pH: Ranges from 7 to 8.
    • Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: 5.5 or less.
    • Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes.
    • Standing plasma test: Shows creamy layer (chylomicrons) and turbid layers (VLDL).

    Blood Components and Transfusion

    • Components of fibrin glue: Cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin.
    • Donor deferral periods: Measles (rubeola) vaccination (2 weeks) and German measles (Rubella) vaccination (4 weeks).
    • Glitter cells stain light blue, while neutrophils stain violet.
    • Hemosiderin granules in renal tubular epithelial cells: May be seen in the urine after episodes of hemoglobinuria, appear blue with Prussian blue stain.
    • Prealbumin (transthyretin): The second most prevalent protein in CSF.
    • Meconium: The newborn's first bowel movement, a dark green, mucus-like material formed in the intestine from fetal secretions and swallowed amniotic fluid.
    • Blood draw precautions: Avoid drawing blood from an arm with a cannula or fistula.
    • Adverse reactions of aminoglycosides: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
    • Tetany: Neuromotor irritability accompanied by muscular twitching, caused by low calcium levels (hypocalcemia)
    • Reagents for APT test: 1% NaOH
    • Types of blood tests: Florence test (choline), Barbirio's test (spermine), Blondheim's test (differentiates Hgb from myoglobin), Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals, picric acid, TCA/ yellow leaf-shaped crystals, needles.
    • Total renal blood flow: 1200 mL/min
    • Total renal plasma flow: 600 to 700 mL/min
    • Leydig cells: Produce testosterone.
    • CD34: Cell membrane marker of stem cells.
    • Hemoglobin degradation products: Granular, dirty, brown casts associated with acute tubular necrosis.
    • Antibody adsorption and elution: Procedures to remove or attach antibodies to antigens.

    Other Medical Conditions and Tests

    • Point mutation: A simple type of mutation where one nucleotide is changed.
    • Anastomosis: Connection between blood vessels.
    • Epitopes: Portions of antigens that interact with antibodies.
    • Public and private antigens: These define antigen characteristics unique to individuals or found commonly.
    • Ecchymosis: A large bruise, larger than a petechiae.
    • Koilonychia: Thin, flattened and concave fingernails.
    • Reed-Sternberg cell: A definitive marker for Hodgkin's disease.
    • Alder-Reilly anomaly: Congenital disorder with abnormally large blue granules in leukocytes.
    • Chediak-Higashi anomaly: Characterized by partial albinism and large granules in leukocytes.
    • Sezary syndrome: Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
    • Gaucher's disease: Rare disorder of fat metabolism.
    • Bernard-Soulier syndrome: Mutation in platelet adhesion.
    • Glanzmann's thrombasthenia: Defect in platelet aggregation (mutation in platelet receptors)

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on key topics in medical microbiology and blood components. This quiz covers important pathogens, their characteristics, and essential blood component details including transfusion practices and laboratory tests. Ideal for students in medical courses or healthcare professionals looking to refresh their knowledge.

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