Medical Interventions and Pathogen Identification
50 Questions
3 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of a medical intervention?

  • To provide treatment for chronic diseases
  • To assist in the prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of disease (correct)
  • To offer psychological counseling
  • To enhance athletic performance

Which of the following methods is NOT used to identify an unknown pathogen during an outbreak investigation?

  • Using a microscope to visualize the pathogen (correct)
  • DNA sequencing with an automated sequencer
  • Testing serum with an ELISA test
  • Inputting the DNA sequence into BLAST

Which action would likely determine the original source of an infection among a group of people?

  • Conducting a physical examination of each individual
  • Running a DNA sequencing test on all individuals
  • Administering a vaccine to everyone in the group
  • Performing an ELISA test for the specific pathogen antigen (correct)

Which of the following pathogens was believed to be positive for meningitis in the case regarding Sue Smith?

<p>Jill (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method of gene transfer occurred between the two strains of E.coli in the lab?

<p>Conjugation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of PCR in DNA sequencing?

<p>To amplify DNA segments for analysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strain of E.coli had the gene for ampicillin resistance?

<p>E.coli II (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can researchers confirm the identity of a pathogen after obtaining its DNA sequence?

<p>By comparing it to a database using BLAST (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are some examples of medical interventions that could assist an athlete?

<p>Taking daily vitamins, practicing injury prevention, and maintaining a balanced diet (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of DNA is responsible for ampicillin resistance in E.coli II?

<p>Plasmid DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following individuals was diagnosed with influenza in the meningitis case?

<p>Arnie (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

E.coli I's resistance to which antibiotic is coded on its chromosomal DNA?

<p>Streptomycin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What result occurred on the plate containing both ampicillin and streptomycin?

<p>Neither strain grew (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene transfer method requires direct contact between bacterial cells?

<p>Conjugation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of DNA is transferred during conjugation?

<p>Plasmid DNA only (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why didn't any bacteriophage contribute to the gene transfer in the lab?

<p>DNA was not injected by a virus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of fluoroquinolones on bacterial cells?

<p>They inhibit enzymes that maintain DNA supercoiling. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacteria can sulfonamides effectively target?

<p>Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major limitation of cochlear implants?

<p>They do not assist with central auditory processing disorders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates that a bacterium is sensitive to an antibiotic based on the zone of inhibition?

<p>A clear area exists around the antibiotic disk. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If bacteria become resistant to an antibiotic, what does this imply?

<p>The bacteria can continue to grow despite the antibiotic's presence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is credited as the father of vaccination?

<p>Edward Jenner (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are symptoms of viral infections treated differently from bacterial infections?

<p>Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of vaccine uses inactivated pathogens to provoke an immune response?

<p>Inactivated/Killed vaccine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of a live-attenuated vaccine?

<p>Varicella (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do tetracyclines hinder bacterial growth?

<p>They inhibit the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean when a bacteria is described as having mechanisms of resistance?

<p>The bacteria can mutate to avoid the effects of the antibiotic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a drawback of inactivated vaccines compared to live-attenuated vaccines?

<p>They require more boosters for long-term immunity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogens can be effectively treated with antibiotics?

<p>Meningitis and strep throat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What component of toxoid vaccines is modified to create immunity?

<p>The toxin released by the bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about cochlear implants is accurate?

<p>They require rigorous training for effective use. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of subunit vaccines?

<p>They contain only pieces of the pathogen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a likely consequence of a patient not taking their antibiotic as prescribed?

<p>The bacteria may develop resistance and reproduce. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure of the ear is responsible for collecting sound and funneling it to the auditory canal?

<p>Pinna (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the ear contains fluid that helps maintain balance?

<p>Semicircular canals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the tympanic membrane?

<p>Vibrates in response to sound and transmits vibrations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure marks the boundary between the middle and inner ear?

<p>Oval window (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of the cochlea in the inner ear?

<p>Converts vibrations into a neural signal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in the body when an antibiotic is not taken consistently?

<p>Bacteria adapt and may become more resistant. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Eustachian tube?

<p>Connecting the middle ear with the pharynx. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What part of the ear forms the linkage to transmit vibrations to the inner ear?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ear structure is responsible for decompressing acoustic energy that enters the cochlea?

<p>Round window (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of DNA ligase in the process of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>To seal the gaps between the inserted gene and the plasmid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes sticky ends from blunt ends in DNA fragments?

<p>Sticky ends have unpaired bases due to overhanging ends (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of an epidemiologist during an outbreak?

<p>To search for the disease's cause and control its spread (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the process of inserting Hepatitis B DNA into plasmid DNA, how many cuts were made in the plasmid DNA?

<p>One cut (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct formula to calculate the food specific attack rate?

<p>Number of individuals who are ill / total number of people affected (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristics of a cohort study?

<p>Follows exposed and non-exposed individuals over time (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a guideline when inserting DNA into plasmids?

<p>Cut both viral and plasmid DNA multiple times (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary outcome of bacteria absorbing recombinant plasmids?

<p>They can express new genes like insulin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is a medical intervention?

A medical intervention is any action taken to prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease. It can alter the course of a disease.

What are some categories of medical interventions?

Medical interventions can be categorized by purpose (prevention, diagnosis, treatment), method (drugs, surgery, therapy), and target (individual, population).

Give 3-5 medical interventions an athlete could use.

Examples include taking vitamins, stretching before exercise, attending practice, and eating healthy foods.

What is DNA Sequencing? What is the purpose of PCR in DNA sequencing?

DNA sequencing is the process of determining the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplifies specific DNA sequences to make enough copies for sequencing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How can DNA sequencing identify a pathogen?

Pathogen DNA is sequenced to identify the specific type of organism causing the outbreak. The DNA sequence is then compared to known pathogen sequences in a database to determine the pathogen.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How is ELISA used in pathogen identification?

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a test used to detect the presence of specific antibodies or antigens in a sample. ELISA tests can be used to diagnose infections by detecting the antibodies produced by the immune system in response to the pathogen.

Signup and view all the flashcards

How do we determine the original source of an infection?

By testing individuals who are sick, we can determine the infected person with the highest concentration of antigens, likely the original source of the infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Why is pathogen identification important?

Identifying the pathogen allows for targeted treatment and prevention strategies. Tracing the infection path helps to contain the outbreak and prevent further spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Conjugation

A method of horizontal gene transfer where a bacterial cell directly transfers genetic material (usually a plasmid) to another bacterium through physical contact using a sex pilus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transformation

Horizontal gene transfer that occurs when a bacterium takes up naked DNA from its environment, which can be the remains of a dead bacterium.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transduction

A method of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria where a virus carries bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Plasmid

A circular piece of DNA that replicates independently of the bacterial chromosome and often carries genes for antibiotic resistance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chromosome

The main DNA molecule in a bacterial cell, containing the majority of the cell's genes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antibiotic Resistance

The ability of a bacterium to survive in the presence of a specific antibiotic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Superbug

A bacterial strain that carries the gene for resistance to both ampicillin and streptomycin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ampicillin Resistance Transfer

In the 'Attack of the Superbugs' lab, the transfer of ampicillin resistance from E. coli II to E. coli I using the conjugation method.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fluoroquinolones

A type of antibiotic that works by inhibiting the enzymes called topoisomerases, which are essential for maintaining the supercoiling of DNA in bacteria. This disruption prevents crucial cellular processes, making it effective against a variety of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracycline

A class of antibiotics that works by blocking the attachment of tRNA (transfer RNA) to the ribosome, which is essential for protein synthesis in bacteria. This disruption prevents the production of essential proteins, leading to the death of bacterial cells. It effectively targets specific types of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs)

A class of antibiotics that interfere with the synthesis of folic acid, a crucial nutrient for bacterial growth and survival. By inhibiting the folic acid pathway, they directly target the bacterial metabolism, preventing the essential production of folic acid. This mechanism makes them effective against many Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antibiotic Sensitivity

The ability of a bacteria to be killed or inhibited by an antibiotic. This means the antibiotic can effectively target the bacteria and eliminate it.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Zone of Inhibition

The area around an antibiotic disk on an agar plate where bacteria cannot grow. This clear zone indicates that the antibiotic is effective against the bacteria tested.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gene Transfer

The process by which bacteria can acquire new genes that confer resistance to antibiotics. These genes can be transferred through:

Signup and view all the flashcards

What happens when patients don't take antibiotics as prescribed?

When a patient does not take their full dose of antibiotics as prescribed, they may not eliminate all bacteria. This allows resistant bacteria to survive and multiply, making infection harder to treat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the role of the pinna?

The pinna, or outer ear, gathers sound waves and directs them into the ear canal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What does the external auditory canal do?

The external auditory canal connects the outer ear to the eardrum.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are the three bones of the middle ear?

The malleus, incus, and stapes are three small bones in the middle ear that amplify sound vibrations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the tympanic membrane?

The tympanic membrane, also known as the eardrum, vibrates in response to sound waves.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the tympanic cavity?

The tympanic cavity is the air-filled space in the middle ear that helps transmit sound energy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the oval window?

The oval window is a membrane-covered opening between the middle and inner ear that transmits vibrations to the cochlea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the cochlea?

The cochlea is a spiral-shaped organ in the inner ear responsible for converting vibrations into electrical signals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are the semicircular canals?

The semicircular canals, located in the inner ear, are fluid-filled tubes that help us maintain balance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the Eustachian tube?

The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the throat, equalizing pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a cochlear implant?

A cochlear implant is a device that is surgically implanted into the inner ear to help people with severe hearing loss hear. It works by converting sound into electronic signals that are sent to the auditory nerve.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are some drawbacks of cochlear implants?

Cochlear implants can't fully restore normal hearing. They require time to adjust to, and may not work in noisy environments. They are a complex and expensive procedure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Who is the father of vaccination?

Edward Jenner is considered the father of vaccination, as he developed the first vaccine for smallpox.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are live-attenuated vaccines?

Live-attenuated vaccines contain weakened versions of the pathogen, stimulating an immune response without causing disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are inactivated vaccines?

Inactivated vaccines contain killed pathogens, unable to replicate but still stimulating an immune response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are toxoid vaccines?

Toxoid vaccines use inactivated toxins produced by bacteria, preventing disease caused by those toxins.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are subunit vaccines?

Subunit vaccines contain only specific parts of a pathogen, like proteins, prompting an immune response without the risk of infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Why Are Vaccines Important?

Vaccines are a vital tool in preventing infectious diseases by stimulating the immune system to recognize and fight pathogens, potentially saving lives.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Restriction Enzyme Recognition Site

A specific DNA sequence that a restriction enzyme recognizes and cuts.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Restriction Enzyme

The enzyme that cuts DNA at specific sequences called restriction sites.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sticky Ends

The ends of DNA fragments created by a restriction enzyme, where one strand is longer than the other and has unpaired bases that can bind to complementary sequences.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blunt Ends

The ends of DNA fragments created by a restriction enzyme, where both strands are the same length and have no unpaired bases.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cohort Study

A type of study that follows a group of individuals exposed to a potential risk factor and a group not exposed, over time.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Case-Control Study

A type of study that compares a group with a disease (cases) to a group without the disease (controls) to find associations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Food-Specific Attack Rate

The number of people who got sick from a food divided by the total number of people who ate that food.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Epidemiologist

Public health professionals who investigate disease outbreaks, identify causes, and recommend prevention measures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Medical Interventions

  • A medical intervention is something that helps with the prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of disease.
  • Examples include attending practice and conditioning, stretching, taking vitamins, and eating well.

Investigating an Outbreak

  • Identifying an unknown pathogen:
    • Sequence the pathogen's DNA using an automated sequencer.
    • Use BLAST to identify the pathogen.
    • Perform an ELISA test with the pathogen's antigen to determine if someone is infected.
  • Determining the source of an infection:
    • Identify the infecting pathogen using ELISA.
    • Identify the person who has had the infection longest by measuring the highest antigen concentration.

Using DNA to Identify a Pathogen

  • DNA sequencing: Fluorescent dideoxynucleotides stop DNA replication at a specific base, creating fragments of different lengths.
  • PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Used to amplify DNA fragments for sequencing.
  • BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool): Used to compare unknown DNA sequences with known sequences in a database to identify potential pathogens.

ELISA

  • Pathogens: Disease-causing agents (bacteria, viruses, etc.).
  • Antigens: Protein markers on living cells that trigger an immune response.
  • Antibodies: Proteins created by B cells to attach to antigens, marking them for destruction.
  • Indirect ELISA: Antigen in the well, primary antibody, secondary antibody conjugated with enzyme, substrate. Color change when enzyme and substrate meet.

ELISA Results

  • Qualitative results indicate the presence or absence of an antigen, e.g., a person has 100 ug/mL of antigens.
  • Quantitative results show amounts/concentrations of antigens, indicated by the darkness of the color change.

Serial Dilution

  • Calculations for tube dilutions: (sample)/(sample + diluent).
  • Tube 1 always will be 1/2.
  • If numerator is not 1, reduce it until it's 1.
  • If sample and diluent size are the same, tube dilution size will be the same for all tubes, and final tube dilution is the same for tube 1.

Antibiotic Therapy

  • Gram-positive bacteria: Thick peptidoglycan layer, purple in Gram stain, produces exotoxins.
  • Gram-negative bacteria: Thin peptidoglycan layer, red/pink in Gram stain, produces endotoxins.
  • Antibiotics only target bacterial structures.

Attack of the Superbugs

  • Gene transfer methods:
    • Conjugation: Direct contact via sex pilus.
    • Transformation: Uptake of dead bacterial DNA.
    • Transduction: Virus injects DNA into bacterial cells.

Cochlear Implants

  • Cochlear implants are electronic devices used for individuals with bilateral, severe-to-profound sensorineural hearing loss.
  • It does not come preloaded with language information.
  • Cochlear implants are to help restore hearing for those with such hearing loss.

Disease Prevention Through Vaccination

  • Types of vaccines:
    • Live-attenuated: Weakened pathogens.
    • Inactivated/Killed: Killed pathogens.
    • Toxoid: Inactivated toxins.
    • Subunit: Pieces of pathogens.
    • Conjugated: Pathogen pieces with carrier proteins.

Herd Immunity

  • Herd immunity occurs when a large portion of the population is immune to a disease, protecting those not immune.

Epidemiologist's Role

  • Epidemiologist's role: Identify risk factors, stop the spread, intervene.

Cohort and Case Control Studies

  • Cohort studies: Follow exposed and unexposed groups over time to see incidence of disease.
  • Case-control studies: Compare individuals with a disease to individuals without, looking backward for potential risk factors.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Description

Explore the crucial role of medical interventions in disease prevention, diagnosis, and treatment. This quiz delves into the methods for identifying unknown pathogens, including DNA sequencing, ELISA tests, and the use of PCR in outbreak investigations.

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser