Medical Interventions and Pathogen Identification
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Questions and Answers

What is a medical intervention?

  • Any medication prescribed by a doctor
  • A procedure solely for pain relief
  • Something that helps with prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of disease (correct)
  • Any activity that promotes physical fitness

Which method is used to identify the pathogen causing an outbreak?

  • DNA sequencing with an automated sequencer (correct)
  • Antibody therapy
  • Blood transfusion
  • Physical examination of patients

What role does the ELISA test play in identifying infections?

  • It measures blood sugar levels
  • It determines the concentration of vitamins in the blood
  • It confirms the presence of specific pathogen antigens (correct)
  • It identifies blood type

What is the significance of the person with the highest concentration of antigens in an outbreak?

<p>They have been sick the longest (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA sequencing?

<p>It provides a sequence of the pathogen's DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is PCR utilized in the process of DNA sequencing?

<p>To create an amplified sample of DNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who was confirmed positive for meningitis in the scenario?

<p>Sue, Jill, Maria, and Marco (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medical interventions can assist an athlete?

<p>Stretching before physical activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do dideoxynucleotides play in DNA sequencing?

<p>They stop DNA replication at specific bases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most significant in determining the likely pathogen from the BLAST search results?

<p>Maximum identical score. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of antibodies in the immune response?

<p>To mark foreign cells for destruction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sequence correctly represents the order of components in an indirect ELISA test?

<p>Antigen, primary antibody, secondary antibody, substrate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes pathogens from antigens?

<p>Pathogens can trigger an immune response; antigens are markers on cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do qualitative and quantitative results differ in an ELISA test?

<p>Qualitative results determine presence or absence, while quantitative results measure the amount present. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following defines pathogens?

<p>Organisms or agents that cause disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color change in an ELISA test indicates a reaction?

<p>The well exhibits a color change upon mixing enzyme and substrate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)?

<p>To screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common method of fetal screening?

<p>X-ray imaging (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition would most likely benefit from screening a couple for autosomal recessive alleles?

<p>Tay-Sachs disease (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes newborn screenings?

<p>They assess babies for genetic and metabolic conditions after birth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive traits?

<p>Autosomal dominant traits manifest with just one copy, while recessive traits require two copies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a genetic disorder caused by a change in the DNA sequence of one gene?

<p>Single gene disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a patient not taking their antibiotic as prescribed?

<p>Bacteria can reproduce and potentially become resistant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood type genotype corresponds to blood type O?

<p>ii (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ear structure is responsible for collecting sounds and funneling them to the auditory canal?

<p>Pinna (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of genetic disorder is inherited exclusively from the mother?

<p>Mitochondrial disorder (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the tympanic membrane?

<p>Vibrates in response to sound waves. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of multifactorial genetic disorders?

<p>They are caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure serves as the boundary between the middle and inner ear?

<p>Oval window (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a chromosomal disorder?

<p>Down syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which middle ear structure aids in transmitting sound energy from the outer ear to the inner ear?

<p>Tympanic cavity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would carrier screening be particularly beneficial?

<p>A couple with a family history of autosomal recessive diseases (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the semicircular canals play in the ear?

<p>They help maintain balance through fluid motion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which describes the difference between autosomal and sex-linked traits?

<p>Autosomal traits are irrelevant to gender. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is linked to the tympanic membrane?

<p>Incus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the cochlea do?

<p>Transforms vibrations into a neural signal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential outcomes for a carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder?

<p>They can have affected children if both parents are carriers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure decompresses acoustic energy in the cochlea?

<p>Round window (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can result from improperly taking antibiotics?

<p>Increased likelihood of bacterial infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of DNA ligase in the process of creating a recombinant plasmid?

<p>To form bonds between the plasmid and the gene of interest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes sticky ends from blunt ends during DNA recombination?

<p>Sticky ends have unpaired bases while blunt ends do not (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When cutting plasmid DNA for genetic recombination, how many cuts are made to the plasmid?

<p>One cut in the plasmid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main tasks of an epidemiologist during an outbreak?

<p>Identifying individuals who are at risk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the food-specific attack rate calculated?

<h1>of individuals who are ill / total # of individuals affected (D)</h1> Signup and view all the answers

In a cohort study, what is primarily compared to determine the incidence of disease?

<p>Exposed individuals versus non-exposed individuals over time (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of making specific cuts without affecting certain areas in the viral DNA during genetic modification?

<p>To preserve crucial functionalities like antibiotic resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of a case-control study?

<p>It involves comparison with a group without the disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Medical Intervention

Any procedure or action used to prevent, diagnose, or treat disease.

DNA sequencing

Techniques that help identify and analyze the DNA sequence of pathogens.

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

A powerful technique used in DNA sequencing that amplifies specific regions of DNA, making it easier to analyze.

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

A laboratory test that detects the presence of specific antigens (proteins) associated with a pathogen in a sample.

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BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool)

A computer program that compares DNA sequences with a database of known sequences to identify a matching pathogen.

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Identifying the Source of an Outbreak

The process of identifying the origin or first instance of an infectious disease outbreak.

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Analyzing Pathogen DNA

The analysis of the DNA sequence of an infectious pathogen to determine its characteristics and to track the spread of an outbreak.

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Anti-body Concentration Analysis

A laboratory test that analyzes the concentration of specific antibodies in a sample to determine the level of exposure to a particular pathogen.

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What happens if a patient doesn't take their antibiotics as prescribed?

Bacteria in the body continue to reproduce, leading to an increase in resistant strains that are harder to eliminate.

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What is the pinna?

The part of the ear that collects sound waves and directs them to the auditory canal.

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What is the Eustachian tube?

The tube that connects the middle ear to the pharynx, helping to equalize pressure between the two areas.

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What is the tympanic membrane?

The thin membrane that vibrates in response to sound waves, marking the beginning of the middle ear.

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What are the ossicles?

The three tiny bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) in the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear.

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What is the cochlea?

The fluid-filled structure in the inner ear that converts vibrations into neural signals that the brain interprets as sound.

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What is the oval window?

The boundary between the middle and inner ear, allowing vibrations to enter the cochlea.

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What is the round window?

The membrane in the inner ear that helps release pressure from the cochlea.

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What are the semicircular canals?

The three fluid-filled canals in the inner ear that help maintain balance.

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What is the external auditory canal?

The canal that connects the outer ear to the tympanic membrane.

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What is a pathogen?

A disease-causing agent, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, prions, protozoa, worms, and parasites.

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What is an antigen?

Protein markers found on the surface of living cells that can trigger an immune response when they are unfamiliar to the body.

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What are antibodies?

Proteins produced by B cells that attach to antigens on pathogens, marking them for destruction by the immune system.

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How does DNA sequencing work?

A technique that uses fluorescently labeled dideoxynucleotides to stop DNA replication at specific bases, creating fragments of varying lengths that are then separated and sequenced to determine the order of bases in a DNA molecule.

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What is BLAST?

A bioinformatic tool that compares a DNA sequence to a database of known sequences, allowing for identification of potential matches and evaluation of similarities.

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What is ELISA?

A laboratory test that uses antibodies to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies in a sample, providing both qualitative and quantitative results.

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What is the correct order of components in an indirect ELISA test?

In an indirect ELISA, antigens are added to a well followed by a primary antibody that binds to the antigen. Then, a secondary antibody conjugated with an enzyme is added, which binds to the primary antibody. Finally, the substrate for the enzyme is added, producing a color change if the antigen is present.

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Explain the process of an indirect ELISA test.

Antigen is added to the wells first. Then, a primary antibody, which specifically binds to the antigen, is added. Next, a secondary antibody, conjugated with an enzyme, is added, binding to the primary antibody. Finally, the substrate for the enzyme is added, which interacts with the enzyme to produce a visible color change only if the antigen is present.

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What makes each restriction enzyme unique?

Each restriction enzyme recognizes and cuts a specific DNA sequence, like a molecular scissor with a unique code.

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What's the difference between sticky and blunt ends?

Sticky ends have unpaired bases that can easily bond with complementary strands, whereas blunt ends have no unpaired bases and need more specialized methods for joining.

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What does an epidemiologist do?

An epidemiologist investigates the cause, spread, and prevention of diseases in a community.

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How do we calculate the food specific attack rate?

This calculation determines how many people who ate a specific food also got sick. It helps identify possible foodborne outbreaks.

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Compare cohort and case-control studies.

A cohort study follows exposed and unexposed groups over time to see who develops a disease, while a case-control study compares individuals with a disease to those without, looking for past risk factors.

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How did we insert viral Hepatitis B DNA into the plasmid?

Restriction enzymes cut the viral Hepatitis B DNA at two specific sites, but only a single cut is made in the plasmid. We avoid cutting the antibiotic resistance gene and origin of replication to ensure the plasmid remains functional.

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What does DNA ligase do?

DNA ligase joins the gene of interest (inserted into the plasmid) together, creating a recombinant plasmid capable of expressing the gene.

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How is the recombinant plasmid used to express the new gene?

Bacteria take up the recombinant plasmid, carrying the new gene of interest, and copy or express that gene as they reproduce, passing it on to their offspring.

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Autosomal traits

Traits determined by genes located on autosomes (chromosomes 1-22), not sex chromosomes.

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Sex-linked traits

Traits determined by genes on sex chromosomes (X and Y).

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Single gene disorders

Disorders caused by mutations in a single gene, affecting protein function.

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Mitochondrial disorders

Disorders caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA, passed from mother to child.

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Multifactorial disorders

Disorders caused by a combination of genetic predisposition and environmental factors.

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Chromosomal disorders

Disorders caused by abnormalities in chromosome number or structure (extra, missing, or rearranged chromosomes).

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Carrier Screening

Genetic tests for individuals with family histories of autosomal recessive diseases.

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Genetic testing

A type of genetic testing that analyzes an individual's DNA to detect genetic variations associated with specific diseases.

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What is PGD (Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis)?

A genetic screening method that analyzes a fertilized egg (embryo) for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders before it's implanted in the uterus.

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What is in-vitro fertilization (IVF)?

A type of IVF (in vitro fertilization) where the sperm and egg are fertilized outside the body, allowing doctors to test the embryo before it's implanted.

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What is amniocentesis?

A test used to assess the health of a fetus during pregnancy. It involves inserting a needle through the mother's abdomen into the amniotic sac to extract amniotic fluid for analysis.

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What is chorionic villi sampling (CVS)?

A type of fetal screening that involves taking a small sample of tissue from the placenta (chorionic villi) and analyzing it for genetic abnormalities.

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What is newborn screening?

A test performed on a newborn baby shortly after birth to identify certain genetic and metabolic conditions that may require early intervention.

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Study Notes

Medical Interventions Inventory

  • A medical intervention helps with prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of disease.
  • Examples of medical interventions include: attending practice, stretching, taking daily vitamins, and eating well for an athlete.

Investigating an Outbreak

  • To identify a pathogen, test individuals suspected of being sick. Use an automated sequencer.
  • Input the DNA sequence into BLAST to identify the pathogen.
  • Use an ELISA test to check for pathogen infection antigen.
  • Persons with the highest concentration of antigens have likely been sick the longest.

Using DNA to Identify a Pathogen

  • DNA sequencing uses dideoxynucleotides to stop DNA replication at specific bases.
  • This results in fragments of various lengths, which are identified by an automatic sequencer.
  • BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) is used to identify pathogens by matching nucleotide sequences.
  • E. coli 0157:H7 has the highest maximum identical score in the example.

ELISA

  • Pathogens are disease-causing agents.
  • Antigens are proteins on living cells—foreign antigens trigger immune responses.
  • Antibodies are proteins created by B cells to target antigens for destruction.
  • ELISA can provide both qualitative and quantitative results. Color intensity in ELISA wells indicates antigen concentration.

Serial Dilution

  • Tube dilution is calculated using the formula (sample) / (sample + diluent).
  • The formula for final dilution is tube dilution fraction multiplied with the concentration or using the concentration divided by the denominator.
  • Tube examples are 1:2, 1:4,1:8, and 1:16.

Antibiotic Therapy

  • Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan cell walls and stain purple.
  • Gram-negative bacteria have thin peptidoglycan cell walls and stain red/pink.
  • Antibiotics target bacterial structures, not viral ones.

Which Antibiotic is the Best Choice?

  • Resistance means an antibiotic no longer effectively kills a bacteria.
  • Sensitivity means the antibiotic kills the bacteria.
  • The zone of inhibition is the area around an antibiotic disk where bacteria do not grow.

Attack of the Superbugs

  • Gene transfer methods—conjugation, transformation, transduction—can lead to antibiotic resistance.
  • Conjugation involves direct contact, transformation involves taking up DNA, and transduction involves viruses transferring DNA.
  • The example in the study involves E. coli I and E. coli II transferring DNA.

Cochlear Implants

  • Cochlear implants restore hearing for individuals with severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss.
  • They provide improved communication abilities.
  • Cochlear implants do not correct conductive hearing loss.

Disease Prevention Through Vaccination

  • Various types of vaccines exist: live attenuated, inactivated/killed, toxoid, subunit, and conjugated.
  • Live attenuated vaccines use weakened pathogens.
  • Inactivated vaccines use killed pathogens.
  • Toxoid vaccines use inactivated toxins from pathogens.
  • Subunit vaccines use purified pathogen components.
  • Conjugated vaccines combine a component of the pathogen with a carrier protein.

Herd Immunity

  • Herd immunity occurs when a large population is immune to a disease.
  • Vaccination contributes to herd immunity by increasing immunity in a population.

Life of an Epidemiologist

  • Epidemiologists investigate disease outbreaks, identifying risk factors, and controlling or preventing future outbreaks.
  • Cohort studies follow exposed and unexposed groups over time.
  • Case-control studies compare people with a disease to those without.

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MI Semester 1 Final Exam Study Guide PDF

Description

This quiz explores essential concepts related to medical interventions, the identification of pathogens, and various testing methods such as ELISA and DNA sequencing. It also discusses the implications of antigen concentration during outbreaks and specific medical interventions for athletes. Test your knowledge on these critical topics in health and medicine.

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