COPY: BDS2-important lectures

What is the primary characteristic of leukaemias?

Benign neoplasms of haemopoietic stem cells

Malignant neoplasms of haemopoietic stem cells (correct)

Malignant tumours of blood vessels

Benign growths of bone marrow

What is the effect of bone marrow failure in leukaemia?

Increased immunity to infections

Anaemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia (correct)

Increased production of blood cells

Enhanced coagulation

What are the two main cell lines that leukaemias involve?

Lymphoid and Myeloid (correct)

Erythroid and Lymphoid

Myeloid and Erythroid

Myeloid and Megakaryocytic

What is the characteristic of acute leukaemia?

More than 50% of cells are myeloblasts or lymphoblasts Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the aetiological factors of leukaemia?

Ionising radiation Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of leukaemia on the immune system?

Fever and infections Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of tissue infiltration in leukemia?

Neoplastic cells spreading through the bloodstream Signup and view all the answers

What is the peak incidence age for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

Children between 4-5 years old Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the type of leukemia characterized by a Philadelphia chromosome?

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common leukemia in adults?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) Signup and view all the answers

What is the dental symptom of leukemia?

Gingival overgrowth Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

Hodgkin is nodal and contiguous Signup and view all the answers

What is the aetiology of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Unknown Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Stage I Hodgkin's disease?

Single lymph node region on one side of the diaphragm Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) in children?

Combination chemotherapy Signup and view all the answers

What is the indication for lymph node biopsy in Hodgkin's disease?

To identify Reed-Sternberg cells Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukemia (CLL)?

Peak incidence in adults over 60 years old Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of the Philadelphia chromosome in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

Oncogene with tyrosine kinase activity Signup and view all the answers

What is the percentage of complete remission in advanced stage Hodgkin's disease?

60-90% Signup and view all the answers

What is the peak incidence of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?

Increases with age, rare under 40s Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of bone marrow infiltration in multiple myeloma?

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice to diagnose multiple myeloma?

Protein electrophoresis Signup and view all the answers

What is the management of multiple myeloma?

Treated only if there is evidence of organ damage Signup and view all the answers

What is the feature of leukaemic infiltration in the oral cavity?

Typically occurs on the gingivae Signup and view all the answers

What type of leukaemia is leukaemic infiltration most common in?

AML Signup and view all the answers

What is the common site of intraoral lymphomas?

Fauces and gingivae Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common oral complication of leukaemia treatment?

Mucositis Signup and view all the answers

Which chemotherapy agent is associated with mucositis?

Methotrexate Signup and view all the answers

What is a clinical feature of chemotherapeutic-induced mucositis?

Rapid onset and good recovery following cessation of chemotherapy Signup and view all the answers

What is a complication of radiotherapy on leukaemias?

Osteoradionecrosis and osteomyelitis Signup and view all the answers

What is suggested when chemotherapy/radiotherapy fails?

Haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) Signup and view all the answers

What is used to treat xerostomia in graft vs host disease (GvHD)?

Pilocarpine (Salagen) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of red blood cells?

Transportation of oxygen from lungs to tissues Signup and view all the answers

What is the haemoglobin level range for adult males?

130-170 g/L Signup and view all the answers

What dictates the symptoms and signs of anaemia?

The rate at which anaemia develops Signup and view all the answers

What is a sign of anaemia?

Pallor Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of monocytes and macrophages?

Chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and killing of micro-organisms Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of a reduction in haemoglobin levels below the reference range for age and sex?

Anaemia Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of hemoglobin in the human body?

To carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues Signup and view all the answers

Which type of anemia is characterized by membrane defects?

Hereditary spherocytosis Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

IgG coated red cells interacting with macrophages Signup and view all the answers

What is the percentage of Hb A in adult hemoglobin?

97% Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical feature of hemolytic normocytic anemia?

Pallor Signup and view all the answers

What is the composition of adult hemoglobin?

2 alpha and 2 beta chains Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia worldwide?

Iron deficiency Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of iron deficiency development in vegetarians and vegans?

Poor dietary intake Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for iron deficiency microcytic anemia?

Addressing underlying cause and oral supplementation Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?

Macrocytic Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of vitamin B12 in the body?

Required in a number of enzymatic reactions Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of normocytic anemia?

Normal red blood cells Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of iron deficiency in menorrhagia?

Increased loss of iron Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice for iron deficiency microcytic anemia?

Iron studies Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical feature of vitamin B12 deficiency?

Peripheral neuropathy Signup and view all the answers

What is the association of normocytic anemia?

Chronic inflammatory disease Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of dysphagia?

Difficulty in swallowing Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of dysphagia?

Something sticking in the throat or chest during or after swallowing Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of tumour that causes dysphagia in the oesophagus?

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) Signup and view all the answers

What is a cause of oesophageal stricture that can lead to dysphagia?

Radiation Signup and view all the answers

What is a condition that can cause oesophageal spasm and lead to dysphagia?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of achalasia that can lead to dysphagia?

Failure of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for retained oesophageal contents causing respiratory problems?

Regurgitation Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of globus hystericus?

Sensation of a lump in the throat Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the muscle that connects the pharynx to the stomach?

Oesophagus Signup and view all the answers

What is the type of muscle that makes up the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus?

Striated muscle Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the passage of pale bulky stools that contain fat?

Steatorrhoea Signup and view all the answers

What is the weak point of the oesophagus where Zeneker's diverticulum can form?

Killian's dehiscence Signup and view all the answers

What is the type of epithelium that lines the mucosal layer of the oesophagus?

Stratified Squamous Non Keratinising Epithelium Signup and view all the answers

What is the main reason for oesophagitis?

Inflammation of the oesophagus due to reflux Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the relaxation of the gastro-oesophageal sphincter in achalasia?

Loss of ganglia Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of pharyngeal pouch disease?

Herniation of mucosa through the fibres of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of achalasia of the cardia?

Functional obstruction to oesophageal emptying with dysphagia for solids and liquids Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of balloon dilatation in treating achalasia?

To restore the flow in the oesophagus Signup and view all the answers

What is an oesophageal spasm?

A term for spasm due to a variety of causes Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential result of an oesophageal spasm?

A corkscrew oesophagus Signup and view all the answers

What is an oesophageal web?

A fibrous structure that forms at the upper end of the oesophagus Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to identify oesophageal webs?

Because it is premalignant Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between peptic and gastric ulcers in terms of aetiology?

Peptic ulcers have an acidic aetiology, while gastric ulcers have a non-acidic aetiology Signup and view all the answers

What is the common aetiology of peptic and gastric ulcers?

Mucosal inflammation due to acid and pepsin destruction of the lining mucosa Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between acute and chronic duodenal ulcers?

Chronic ulcers penetrate the submucosa and muscular wall, while acute ulcers only get to the muscularis mucosae Signup and view all the answers

What are two investigations used to diagnose peptic ulcers?

Endoscopy and barium meal Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of chronic inflammation in the stomach?

Reduced acid production leading to iron deficiency Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of carcinoma in oesophageal carcinoma?

Squamous cell carcinoma Signup and view all the answers

What is a risk factor for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

Heavy alcohol use Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of carcinoma of the oesophagus?

Dysphagia Signup and view all the answers

How can carcinoma of the oesophagus spread to the liver?

Through the lymph nodes and eventually the liver Signup and view all the answers

What is a local spread effect of carcinoma of the oesophagus?

Fistulae to the trachea Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnostic test of choice for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

Endoscopy and biopsy Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment of choice for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

Surgery with a 5cm resection margin Signup and view all the answers

What is a cause of haematemesis?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of vomited blood in haematemesis?

Partially digested and dark Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical presentation of colon cancer on the left colon?

Change of bowel habit Signup and view all the answers

What is the dental relevance of carcinoma in the colon?

It causes tooth decay and gum disease Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic feature of osteomas?

Unexplained pain relieved by analgesics Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for diverticular disease?

High fibre diet and surgery Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of IBS-C?

Hard, lumpy stools Signup and view all the answers

What can IBS mask?

Both A and B Signup and view all the answers

What are the three components of the small intestine?

Duodenum, Jejunum, and Ileum Signup and view all the answers

What is the dietary source of coeliac disease?

Gluten sensitivity - wheat, barley, and rye Signup and view all the answers

What is the genetic source of coeliac disease?

The HLA B8 tissue type Signup and view all the answers

What are the three ways coeliac disease is diagnosed?

Using antibodies to gliadin, endomysium, and transglutaminase, and endoscopic biopsy Signup and view all the answers

What is a common gastrointestinal symptom of coeliac disease?

Diarrhea Signup and view all the answers

What is a common extra-intestinal symptom of coeliac disease?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for coeliac disease?

Gluten restriction Signup and view all the answers

What is the risk of coeliac disease in terms of lymphoma and adenocarcinoma?

Oesophagus, small bowel, pancreas, and biliary tract Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of vitamin D deficiency in coeliac disease?

Osteomalacia and rickets in children Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of enamel defects in coeliac disease if the onset is in childhood?

Hypoplasia in permanent dentition Signup and view all the answers

Which inflammatory bowel disease is more common?

Ulcerative colitis Signup and view all the answers

What is the age of onset for Crohn's disease?

26 Signup and view all the answers

What is the immune aetiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?

Defective immune system, leading to autoimmunity Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of smoking on Crohn's disease?

Increased incidence Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic of Crohn's disease in terms of the areas affected?

Anywhere from mouth to anus Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment used to improve the quality of life for a Crohn's patient?

Both medical and surgical treatment Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common oral manifestation of ulcerative colitis?

Aphthous ulcers Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a cutaneous manifestation of ulcerative colitis?

Erythema Nodosum Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of sigmoidoscopy in diagnosing IBDs?

To examine the sigmoid colon Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of the first step in treating IBDs?

To induce remission Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of cyclosporin on dental management in some patients?

Tenderness, swelling, or bleeding of the gums Signup and view all the answers

What is the acronym used to remember the indications for surgery in IBDs?

I CHOP Signup and view all the answers

What is the prognosis for ulcerative colitis?

1/3 single attack, 1/3 relapsing attacks, 1/3 progressively worsen requiring colectomy within 20 years Signup and view all the answers

What is the increased risk of colon cancer associated with?

Ulcerative colitis Signup and view all the answers

What is the valve located in the colon?

Ileocaecal valve Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of aminosalicylates in treating ulcerative colitis?

To maintain remission Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of long-term systemic corticosteroid therapy on dental treatment?

Increased risk of infection and impaired wound healing Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a specific dental lesion associated with Crohn's disease?

Cobblestones Signup and view all the answers

What is the disease with symptoms similar to Crohn's disease?

Orofacial granulomatosis Signup and view all the answers

What diet is used to combat orofacial granulomatosis?

Cinnamon-free diet and Benzoates-free diet Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of ulcerative colitis?

Diffuse mucosal inflammation of the colon with backwash involvement of the terminal ileum Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential aetiology of ulcerative colitis?

Dysregulated interaction between mucosal immunology and intestinal microflora Signup and view all the answers

What is the family history that predisposes to ulcerative colitis?

Jewish Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnosis and characteristic feature of ulcerative colitis?

Colonoscopy and biopsy, with exudates, ulcerations, and loss of vascular pattern Signup and view all the answers

What is the complication/risk of ulcerative colitis?

Colorectal cancer Signup and view all the answers

What is the eye manifestation that can occur with inflammatory bowel diseases, and which one is more prevalent in?

Episcleritis, more prevalent in Crohn's disease Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia?

Recurrent, brief, lancing pain lasting approximately 30 seconds Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of trigeminal neuropathic pain?

Insult to peripheral nerves Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

Anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and vascular decompression Signup and view all the answers

What is burning mouth syndrome characterized by?

Idiopathic burning sensation on the tongue Signup and view all the answers

What is the trigger for burning mouth syndrome?

Stress Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment used for burning mouth syndrome?

Difflam mouthwash and lidocaine gels Signup and view all the answers

What is the main characteristic of multiple sclerosis?

Areas of demyelination in the central nervous system Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathology of multiple sclerosis?

Peri-venular plaques of demyelination known as perineural oedemas Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of epilepsy?

A neurological disorder marked by sudden recurrent episodes of sensory disturbance, loss of consciousness, or convulsions, associated with abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the seizure that is also referred to as Grand-Mal seizures?

Tonic-clonic seizure Signup and view all the answers

What is the dental relevance of multiple sclerosis?

People living with MS may be at increased risk of dental diseases due to reduced manual dexterity Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of allodynia pain?

Pain from normally non-painful stimulus Signup and view all the answers

What is the symptom of a person having an absence seizure?

Stare blankly into space Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common reason for facial pain?

Dental pain Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of an EEG in diagnosing epilepsy?

To see if different parts of the brain are functioning Signup and view all the answers

What is the main treatment for epilepsy?

Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) Signup and view all the answers

What are the two things that cause dental pain?

All of the above Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of taking a pain history in identifying facial pains?

To identify the cause of the pain Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of AEDs on epilepsy?

They change the levels of chemicals in the brain Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of hyperalgesia pain?

Increased response to normally painful stimulus Signup and view all the answers

What is the requirement for using AEDs?

They must be used every day Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of cessation of AEDs?

A seizure will be provoked Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of neuropathic pain?

Pain from nerve pathology or damage Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of neuralgia pain?

Nerve distribution pain Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a CT scan in diagnosing epilepsy?

To find any anatomical abnormalities Signup and view all the answers

What is the percentage of people who use AEDs to control their seizures?

70% Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the frontal lobe of the brain?

Motor control, concentration, and speech Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the reflex test in neurology?

To evaluate the patient's involuntary responses to stimuli Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a focal neurological deficit that lasts longer than 24 hours, resulting from a vascular lesion?

Stroke Signup and view all the answers

What is the level of consciousness characterized by a patient who responds to verbal commands?

Responds to verbal commands Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the parietal lobe of the brain?

Touch and pressure, body awareness Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the tone test in neurology?

To assess the patient's resistance to passive movement of a joint Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of an ischemic stroke?

Blockage of a blood vessel in the brain Signup and view all the answers

What is the FAST acronym used for in strokes?

Face, Arms, Speech, Time to act Signup and view all the answers

What is the percentage of stroke events that are ischemic?

80% Signup and view all the answers

What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A temporary focal neurological deficit Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common lesion that causes stroke?

Hemiplegia Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment of choice for ischemic stroke?

Thrombolysis Signup and view all the answers

What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A type of hemorrhagic stroke Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of an extra dural haematoma?

Head strike Signup and view all the answers

What is a carotid endarterectomy?

A surgical procedure to remove erythematous plaques in the internal carotid artery Signup and view all the answers

What is the treatment used to improve the quality of life for a patient with chronic stroke?

Rehabilitation Signup and view all the answers