Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the primary responsibility of availability management?
What is the primary responsibility of availability management?
What type of baseline captures details of infrastructure related items?
What type of baseline captures details of infrastructure related items?
Which option best describes access management?
Which option best describes access management?
Which of the following is a reason for ITIL's success?
Which of the following is a reason for ITIL's success?
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Which approach includes the phases Plan, Do, Check, and Act?
Which approach includes the phases Plan, Do, Check, and Act?
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Value creation is a principle associated with which stage of the service lifecycle?
Value creation is a principle associated with which stage of the service lifecycle?
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What is one key characteristic of ITIL?
What is one key characteristic of ITIL?
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Which baseline type represents a set of related items within the infrastructure?
Which baseline type represents a set of related items within the infrastructure?
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Which activities are performed by a service desk?
Which activities are performed by a service desk?
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Who is primarily responsible for defining metrics for change management?
Who is primarily responsible for defining metrics for change management?
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Which of the following are included in service asset and configuration management?
Which of the following are included in service asset and configuration management?
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Which part of the service lifecycle focuses on improving process efficiency?
Which part of the service lifecycle focuses on improving process efficiency?
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Which stage of the continual service improvement approach is best associated with determining improvement priorities?
Which stage of the continual service improvement approach is best associated with determining improvement priorities?
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Which process is most influential in measuring the financial value of IT services to the business?
Which process is most influential in measuring the financial value of IT services to the business?
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What is a key activity involved in request fulfillment?
What is a key activity involved in request fulfillment?
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What is NOT part of the access management process?
What is NOT part of the access management process?
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Which process ensures that IT services can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels by managing risks?
Which process ensures that IT services can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels by managing risks?
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What is the best description of a service request?
What is the best description of a service request?
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Which process is dedicated to monitoring IT service performance and detecting when it drops below acceptable limits?
Which process is dedicated to monitoring IT service performance and detecting when it drops below acceptable limits?
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What is the main goal of conducting activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users?
What is the main goal of conducting activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users?
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In the context of IT services, which statement best describes the nature of major incidents?
In the context of IT services, which statement best describes the nature of major incidents?
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Which of the following metrics types supports continual service improvement (CSI)?
Which of the following metrics types supports continual service improvement (CSI)?
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Which of the following best illustrates the purpose of Service Catalog Management?
Which of the following best illustrates the purpose of Service Catalog Management?
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Who is typically identified as the individual or group that defines or agrees on service targets?
Who is typically identified as the individual or group that defines or agrees on service targets?
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How does Financial Management for IT Services primarily function within an organization?
How does Financial Management for IT Services primarily function within an organization?
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In the context of service management, which of the following groups are considered stakeholders?
In the context of service management, which of the following groups are considered stakeholders?
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What role does Change Management play in IT services?
What role does Change Management play in IT services?
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What is the primary responsibility of the request fulfilment process?
What is the primary responsibility of the request fulfilment process?
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During which phase are future business requirements for IT services quantified and designed?
During which phase are future business requirements for IT services quantified and designed?
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Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
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What is one of the identified activities to improve service management processes?
What is one of the identified activities to improve service management processes?
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Which stage of the Deming Cycle completes the cycle with 'Check', 'Act', and 'Plan'?
Which stage of the Deming Cycle completes the cycle with 'Check', 'Act', and 'Plan'?
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Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
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Which process is MOST involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
Which process is MOST involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
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Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
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A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which events?
A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which events?
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Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
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Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
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What is the BEST description of remediation planning?
What is the BEST description of remediation planning?
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Which part of the service portfolio involves active projects and planned services?
Which part of the service portfolio involves active projects and planned services?
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Which step is crucial to take if a change is unsuccessful?
Which step is crucial to take if a change is unsuccessful?
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What must be done with all incidents according to best practices?
What must be done with all incidents according to best practices?
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Which activity in problem management helps in acquiring management information?
Which activity in problem management helps in acquiring management information?
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Which process focuses on minimizing the impact of recurring incidents?
Which process focuses on minimizing the impact of recurring incidents?
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What are the categories of events outlined in ITIL service operation?
What are the categories of events outlined in ITIL service operation?
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What best defines a centralized service desk?
What best defines a centralized service desk?
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Which of the following would assist in implementing a workaround quickly?
Which of the following would assist in implementing a workaround quickly?
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Study Notes
ITIL Foundation (Syllabus 2011) - EXIN EX0-001 Study Notes
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QUESTION NO: 1 - Process owner is responsible for carrying out process activities.
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QUESTION NO: 2 - IT operations management monitors IT infrastructure activities and events.
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QUESTION NO: 3 - Data-Information-Knowledge-Wisdom is a knowledge management hierarchy.
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QUESTION NO: 4 - Processes required to operate a new service are defined during service design.
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QUESTION NO: 6 - Business relationship management aims to ensure high customer satisfaction.
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QUESTION NO: 7 - The four Ps in IT service design are people, process, products, and partners.
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QUESTION NO: 8 - Service strategies value enabling the service provider understanding service levels needed for customer success.
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QUESTION NO: 9 - Incident and event management processes contribute to effective problem detection.
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QUESTION NO: 10 - Change proposals communicate major changes with significant costs and risk.
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QUESTION NO: 11 - Service level agreements (SLAs) and chronological resolution steps are documented in incident models.
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QUESTION NO: 12 - Understanding business activity patterns (PBAs) is crucial for IT service providers to schedule changes effectively and understand customer needs.
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QUESTION NO: 13 - Roles are defined as part of every process.
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QUESTION NO: 14 - Service catalogue management records current service details and dependencies.
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QUESTION NO: 15 - A process owner identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix is accountable for the outcome of an activity.
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QUESTION NO: 16 - Defining, documenting, and agreeing service levels, monitoring service levels, and improving customer satisfaction are objectives of service level management.
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QUESTION NO: 17 - Technology metrics measure components, functions, performance, and efficiency of service design and supporting processes.
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QUESTION NO: 18 - Capacity management includes business, service, and component sub-processes.
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QUESTION NO: 19 - Designing and maintaining service transition packages is NOT part of service design.
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QUESTION NO: 20 - Outcome is the result of carrying out an activity, process, or delivering an IT service.
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QUESTION NO: 21 - Service portfolio management is responsible for managing vendor relationships.
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QUESTION NO: 22 - Local service desk, virtual service desk, IT help desk, and follow-the-sun service desk are service desk organizational structures in service operation.
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QUESTION NO: 23 - Categories of events in UIL service operation book include informational, warning, and exception events.
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QUESTION NO: 24 - Stakeholders are interested in service management activities, resources, targets, and deliverables.
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QUESTION NO: 25 - Incident management objectives include automatically detecting service-affecting events and restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
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QUESTION NO: 26 - The Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) reviews changes that need faster implementation than normal procedures.
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QUESTION NO: 27 - Providing training and certification in project management is NOT an objective of service transition.
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QUESTION NO: 28 - Those planned, currently being delivered, and those withdrawn from service are part of Service Portfolio Management.
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QUESTION NO: 29 - An unplanned interruption of service or a reduction in quality of service is the best description of an incident.
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QUESTION NO: 30 - The correct set of steps for continual service improvement is to Devise a strategy, Design the Solution, Transition, Operate, and Continuously Improve.
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QUESTION NO: 31 - Known error records can be created at any time thought it's useful, and after a workaround has been found.
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QUESTION NO: 32 - The change advisory board is responsible for change authorization.
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QUESTION NO: 33 - Service level management discusses reports with customers to see whether services meet their targets.
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QUESTION NO: 34 - Customer perceptions and business outcomes define the value of a service.
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QUESTION NO: 35 - Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, and identity are basic concepts in access management.
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QUESTION NO: 36 - Resources are types of service assets, and capabilities are not.
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QUESTION NO: 37 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 38 - A service should always deliver value to customers.
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QUESTION NO: 39 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 40 - Availability management is responsible for the availability of IT services and components.
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QUESTION NO: 41 - Configuration baseline captures the details of the infrastructure.
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QUESTION NO: 42 - Access management's purpose is to provide users with the rights to use a service or group of services.
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QUESTION NO: 43 - ITIL is vendor-neutral, doesn't prescribe actions, and represents best practice.
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QUESTION NO: 44 - The Deming Cycle includes four stages: Plan, Do, Check, and Act.
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QUESTION NO: 45 - Continual service improvement is the stage of the lifecycle where value creation is considered.
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QUESTION NO: 46 - Request fulfillment handles complaints and general inquiries from users.
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QUESTION NO: 47 - Suppliers, manufacturers, and vendors are partners in the context of people, process, products, and partners.
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QUESTION NO: 48 - Supplier management performs risk analysis and review of suppliers and contracts regularly.
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QUESTION NO: 49 - Experiences, ideas, insights, and values of individuals are knowledge.
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QUESTION NO: 50 - A service design package (SDP) contains information passed to service transition for new service implementation.
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QUESTION NO: 51 - Financial arrangements, descriptions of goods/services, and responsibilities, and dependencies between parties are commonly found in an IT service contract.
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QUESTION NO: 52 - Service transition contains descriptions of change management, service asset and configuration management, and release and deployment management.
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QUESTION NO: 53 - Reduced total cost of ownership is NOT part of the value proposition for service design.
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QUESTION NO: 54 - Service portfolio management evaluates value that newer services offer.
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QUESTION NO: 55 - The change authority, the change manager, and the Change Advisory Board (CAB) are related to change management.
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QUESTION NO: 56 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 57 - Facilities management is responsible for managing a data centre.
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QUESTION NO: 58 - The RACI model is helpful for defining roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure.
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QUESTION NO: 59 - Service level management analyzes trends in incident data.
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QUESTION NO: 60 - Customer-facing services directly support customer business processes.
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QUESTION NO: 61 - A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services is the best definition of service management.
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QUESTION NO: 62 -Restoring service to a user is NOT an objective of problem management.
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QUESTION NO: 63 - Negotiating and agreeing service level agreements are an objective for service catalogue management.
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QUESTION NO: 64 - Building, testing, and delivering capabilities to provide services as specified by service design is the main aim for release and deployment management.
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QUESTION NO: 65 - Implementation of service and process improvements is part of the CSI approach.
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QUESTION NO: 66 - Configuration Management System (CMS) information helps determine the impact of a problem.
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QUESTION NO: 67 - Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks are best to manage risks.
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QUESTION NO: 68 - Standard practices, and an existing internal understanding of expertise are enablers for best practices.
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QUESTION NO: 69 - The additional P to the four Ps (people, process, products, partners) is potential.
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QUESTION NO: 70 - Design of market spaces is not a primary aspect of service design.
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QUESTION NO: 71 - Service level agreements (SLA) document incident resolution targets.
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QUESTION NO: 72 - Enabling service provider understanding of service levels and responsive changes in a business are values from service strategy.
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QUESTION NO: 73 - The categories of events are informational, scheduled, normal, warning, reactive, proactive, and exception.
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QUESTION NO: 74 - Process owners define strategies, assist with design, and improve processes.
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QUESTION NO: 75 - Governance is concerned with policies and direction.
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QUESTION NO: 76 - Measurement systems, methods and metrics should consider services, architectural structures, configuration items, and processes.
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QUESTION NO: 77 - A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services is the definition of IT service management.
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QUESTION NO: 78 - Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes is not a service transition planning and support responsibility.
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QUESTION NO: 79 - Underpinning contracts document financial arrangements, descriptions of goods and services, and responsibilities/dependencies between parties.
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QUESTION NO: 80 - Service level agreement monitoring chart (SLAM) shows overview of service achievements against targets.
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QUESTION NO: 81 - The process owner is responsible for ensuring the request fulfillment process uses the agreed standard.
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QUESTION NO: 82 - Release and deployment management is responsible for ensuring appropriate testing takes place.
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QUESTION NO: 83 - Business relationship management is about establishing and maintaining a business relationship between a service provider and a customer.
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QUESTION NO: 84 - The outcome of an activity is the result of completing an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service.
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QUESTION NO: 85 - Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured helps with service lifecycle improvements.
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QUESTION NO: 86 - Design coordination ensures utility and warranty requirements are addressed in service designs.
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QUESTION NO: 87 - (No specific information provided)
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QUESTION NO: 88 - Stakeholders are groups interested in service activities, targets, resources, and deliverables from service management.
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QUESTION NO: 89 - The emergency change advisory board is used for speed needed for emergency changes.
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QUESTION NO: 90 - A problem is the cause of two or more incidents, which has a critical impact.
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QUESTION NO: 91 - Service desk is NOT a recognized service provider type within ITIL.
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QUESTION NO: 92 - Incidents can be reported by anyone, and all calls to the desk must be logged as incidents.
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QUESTION NO: 93 - Access management is responsible for providing rights to use an IT service.
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QUESTION NO: 94 - Component Services are NOT directly used by the business, but are required to deliver customer-facing services.
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QUESTION NO: 95 - Technology assists with tasks like Data mining, Measurement & Reporting, Release & Deployment, and Process Design.
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QUESTION NO: 96 - A process can have more than one person accountable as defined in the RACI model.
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QUESTION NO: 97 - A change is the addition/modification/removal of an authorized, planned, or supported service or component and its documentation.
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QUESTION NO: 98 - Experiences of staff, records of user behavior, abilities of suppliers, and user skill levels should be stored in a system.
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QUESTION NO: 99 - Standard changes are usually pre-approved and low risk.
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QUESTION NO: 100 - The stage of service operation in the service lifecycle includes Event management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfilment, Access Management.
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QUESTION NO: 101 - Problem management shares categorization and impact coding systems with Incident Management.
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QUESTION NO: 102 - Service reporting intervals must be agreed with customers.
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QUESTION NO: 103 - Service metrics measure functions, maturity, and cost.
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QUESTION NO: 104 - Restoring service to a user isn't a problem management objective.
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QUESTION NO: 105 - Demand management handles low-risk, frequently occurring, and low-cost changes.
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QUESTION NO: 106 - IT Operations Management provides staff to monitor events in an operations bridge.
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QUESTION NO: 107 - Tasks by a service desk include logging incident/service requests, providing first-line investigation/diagnosis, restoring services, and implementing standard changes.
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QUESTION NO: 108 - Review and analysis of Service Level Achievement results, improving efficiency of service management, and improving cost-effectiveness of IT services are the objectives for Continual Service Improvement (CSI).
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QUESTION NO: 109 - The fourth stage of the Deming Cycle is 'Act'.
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QUESTION NO: 110 - Technology, processes, and services are types of metrics.
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QUESTION NO: 111 - Customers, users, and suppliers are stakeholders in service management.
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QUESTION NO: 112 - The customer defines or agrees their service targets from the service provider's perspective.
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QUESTION NO: 113 - Request fulfillment is for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services.
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QUESTION NO: 114 - Service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers.
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QUESTION NO: 115 - Wisdom cannot be provided by a tool.
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QUESTION NO: 116 - Ensuring an agreed level of IT service to current IT services is the purpose of service level management.
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QUESTION NO: 117 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 118 - A RACI chart defines roles, and responsibilities.
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QUESTION NO: 119 - Remediation plan evaluation happens before the post-implementation review.
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QUESTION NO: 120 - Any change that the organization believes could be beneficial is part of the design coordination activities.
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QUESTION NO: 121 - (No specific information provided)
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QUESTION NO: 122 - Ensuring the impact of changes and recording/evaluating changes are part of change management.
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QUESTION NO: 123 - Strategic customers are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider. (These are internal customers)
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QUESTION NO: 124 - Access management is closely related to information security management.
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QUESTION NO: 125 - Service strategy includes details of service catalogue management, information security and supplier management.
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QUESTION NO: 126 - Categorizing incidents helps provide trends to help with problem management in an ITSM.
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QUESTION NO: 127 - (No specific information provided)
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QUESTION NO: 128 - Enabling service provider understanding of service levels and responsive changes are goals from service strategy.
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QUESTION NO: 129 - Major problem reviews examine things done correctly & incorrectly, how to prevent recurrence, and what could've been better.
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QUESTION NO: 130 - The relationship in service asset & configuration management describes how the configuration items work together to deliver services.
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QUESTION NO: 131 - Sources of best practice include Academic research, Internal experience, and industry practices.
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QUESTION NO: 132 - (No specific information provided)
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QUESTION NO: 133 - Change models should include steps to handle the change, responsibilities and tasks, timescales for actions and complaint procedures.
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QUESTION NO: 134 - Configuration Items (CIs) can exist as part of other CIs, and the choice of which CIs to record depends on the level of control.
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QUESTION NO: 135 - The types of service as defined in ITIL are Enabling, Core, and Enhancing.
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QUESTION NO: 136 - Workarounds are documented in Problem Records.
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QUESTION NO: 137- A process must be measurable.
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QUESTION NO: 138 - Design and development of service capabilities is NOT a responsibility of service transition
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QUESTION NO: 139 - Technical management is a function encompassing providing hardware repair, management of the technical support staff, and overall management of the IT infrastructure.
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QUESTION NO: 140 - Outsourced service desk is not a recognized type in ITIL's service operation.
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QUESTION NO: 141 - Business management focuses on managing the performance, utilization, and capacity of IT elements.
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QUESTION NO: 142 - IT service continuity management is responsible for ensuring that IT services meet the minimum agreed-upon business-related service levels, by managing potential risks.
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QUESTION NO: 143 - A service request is a user request for information, advice, a standard change, or access.
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QUESTION NO: 144 - Event management is responsible for monitoring and detecting a service disruption below performance limits.
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QUESTION NO: 145 - Major incidents require separate procedures, sometimes longer times, and less documentation.
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QUESTION NO: 146 - The service operation stage's purpose is to deliver and manage IT services at established levels for all business users and customers.
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QUESTION NO: 147 - Service operation adds value by ensuring the service value is visible to customers.
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QUESTION NO: 148 - Customer and user satisfaction are two primary ways to create value.
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QUESTION NO: 149 - A Definitive Media library is a secure area where authorized media configuration items (CIs) are stored.
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QUESTION NO: 150 - Supplier management is responsible for negotiating third-party contracts.
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QUESTION NO: 151 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 152 - Hardware within a data center, power/cooling equipment, and recovery sites are managed by facilities management.
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QUESTION NO: 153 - Service design is concerned with defining policies and objectives.
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QUESTION NO: 154 - Design and modeling, reporting, pattern recognition/analysis, and detection/monitoring are areas of service management that can benefit from automation.
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QUESTION NO: 155 - Reliability is how long a service or item can perform its function without failing.
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QUESTION NO: 156 - Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained is a responsibility of service catalogue management.
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QUESITON NO: 157 - Defining and agreeing to release and deployment plans with stakeholders are objectives of release and deployment management.
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QUESTION NO: 158 - The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system.
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QUESTION NO: 159 - The four Ps in ITIL are people, process, products, and partners.
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QUESTION NO: 160 - The IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on service metrics design, business continuity design, business impact analysis, and risk assessment.
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QUESTION NO: 161 - An operational level agreement (OLA) is between a service provider and a different part within the same organization.
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QUESTION NO: 162 - Business activity patterns (PBAs) drive demand for services.
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QUESTION NO: 163 - One objective of Service transition is to ensure service changes support business objectives.
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QUESTION NO: 164 - Any change of state that affects a service's ability to function, or the quality/performance is defined as an incident.
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QUESTION NO: 165 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 166 - A major incident is one with a high priority, and high impact.
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QUESTION NO: 167 - Monitoring system availability and designing availability into solutions are proactive approaches in availability management.
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QUESTION NO: 168 - Recording service desk staff absence does not directly involve event management.
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QUESTION NO: 169 - A configuration level is not a layer of a multi-level SLA.
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QUESTION NO: 170 - Supplier management and service level management are responsible for regular reviews of contracts.
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QUESTION NO: 171 - Service asset and configuration management controls, records, and reports the relationships between IT infrastructure components.
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QUESTION NO: 172 - Coordinating activities is not part of the Deming Cycle.
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QUESTION NO: 173 - A service level agreement (SLA) is an agreement between a service provider and their customer.
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QUESTION NO: 174 - Service strategy's objectives include providing understanding, ensuring a working relationship, and defining value creation.
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QUESTION NO: 175 - Both adapting best practice for specific industry sectors, and integrating ITIL with other operating models, are assisted by complementary guidance.
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QUESTION NO: 176 - A service-based SLA covers one service for all customers.
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QUESTION NO: 177 - Access management is responsible for managing the rights to access a service or group of services.
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QUESTION NO: 178 - The service operation lifecycle includes event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management.
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QUESTION NO: 179 - The service desk handles incident and request logging, investigation, diagnosis, and service restoration.
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QUESTION NO: 180 - The change management owner is responsible for defining change management metrics.
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QUESTION NO: 181 - Recording relationships between CIs, identification of CIs, recording virtual CIs, and approving software funding are within the scope of service asset and configuration management.
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QUESTION NO: 182 - Continual service improvement is about finding ways to improve process efficiency and cost-effectiveness.
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QUESTION NO: 183 - Understanding and agreeing on priorities for improvement is part of the "Where do we want to be?" phase of the CSI approach.
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QUESTION NO: 184 - Financial management is the process that contributes most to quantifying the financial value of IT services.
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QUESTION NO: 185 - A service-based SLA covers one service for all users of that service.
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QUESTION NO: 186 - (No specific information provided)
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QUESTION NO: 187 - An Internal service is one that operates between two business units in the same organization.
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QUESTION NO: 188 - Transforming resources into valuable services is better known as service management.
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QUESTION NO: 189 - The customer is responsible for agreeing on service targets.
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QUESTION NO: 190 - Service transition planning and support provides overall planning, ensures that the transitions are authorized, and provides the required resources to record and track the transitions.
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QUESTION NO: 191 - Service transition planning and support maintains policies, standards, and models for service transitions.
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QUESTION NO: 192 - Design coordination aims to provide a single control point for service design stage activities.
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QUESTION NO: 193- Design coordination produces service design packages (SDPs).
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QUESTION NO: 194 - Process managers monitor and report on process performance and identify improvement opportunities.
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QUESTION NO: 195 - A process manager is accountable for operational process management.
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QUESTION NO: 196 - All processes deliver results to customers/stakeholders and define activities within a single function.
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QUESTION NO: 197 - The actions to take when closing an incident involve validating categorization(if needed) and ensuring user satisfaction.
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QUESTION NO: 198 - Providing information to users about what is available is NOT part of request fulfillment processes.
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QUESTION NO: 199 - Supplier management is primarily responsible for managing contracts.
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QUESTION NO: 200 - The valid portions of a service portfolio are the service pipeline, service knowledge management system, and the service catalogue.
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QUESTION NO: 201 - Service Design packages (SDPs) are created when an IT servie is new or has major/emergency changes, or is retired.
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QUESTION NO: 202 - Benefits of service transition include: reuse of assets, lower costs, and an increase in successful change execution.
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QUESTION NO: 203 - Request fulfillment, not the other options, is a service desk function.
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QUESTION NO: 204 - Remediation planning is the planning done for unsuccessful changes to fix errors.
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QUESTION NO: 205 - Incidents must be fully logged, not only those noticed by the user.
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QUESTION NO: 206 - Categorization in problem management facilitates easy tracking and reporting.
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QUESTION NO: 207 - Problem management eliminates recurring incidents and minimizes their impact.
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QUESTION NO: 208 - Service operation book categories are informational, scheduled, warning, exception, and normal.
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QUESTION NO: 209 - A centralized service desk often gives the impression of multiple desks operating from a single location.
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QUESTION NO: 210 - A known error database is most useful for quickly implementing a workaround.
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QUESTION NO: 211 - Risk registers are not part of release policies.
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QUESTION NO: 212 - ITIL is successful due to not being tied to a specific vendor.
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QUESTION NO: 213 - Known errors are created when a workaround is available.
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QUESTION NO: 214 - Budgeting and accounting are mandatory elements of financial management for IT services.
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QUESTION NO: 215 - Future business requirements for IT services should be quantified and implemented in a timely manner.
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QUESTION NO: 216 - The service portfolio represents all resources presently used within the service life cycle, not just those in a particular stage.
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QUESTION NO: 217 - Service asset and configuration management's objectives include: Identifying, Controlling, Reporting, Verifying service assets & configuration items (CIs); Managing and protecting the integrity of service assets & configuration items; Establishing an accurate & complete configuration management system; Documenting and maintaining security operation and maintenance.
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QUESTION NO: 218 - The change management process stage focused on what happens is if a change proves unsuccessful is remediation planning.
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QUESTION NO: 219 - Service transition is most concerned with designing new/changed services.
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QUESTION NO: 220 - Best practice in service level management includes understanding terminology, but not all targets needing specific measurement.
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QUESTION NO: 221 - Service owners are tasked with day-to-day operations and contributing to the improvement of the service they own.
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QUESTION NO: 222 - In IT Operations management, technical management and change management, and IT operations control and facility management are included.
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QUESTION NO: 223 - Business relationship management is concerned with customer satisfaction and action plans regarding customer dissatisfaction.
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QUESTION NO: 224 - The definitive media library is managed by service asset and configuration management.
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QUESTION NO: 225 - Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party are service provider business models.
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QUESTION NO: 226 - Design coordination involves any changes that could benefit the organization.
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QUESTION NO: 227 - Failed change details, change schedule updates, and reviews of completed changes are often included in CAB agendas.
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QUESTION NO: 228 - Enabling and enabling services are two of the ITIL service types.
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QUESTION NO: 229 - Serviceability is the ability of a service, component or CI to meet its agreed function.
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QUESTION NO: 230 - Both incident models and known error records can help in resolving incidents.
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QUESTION NO: 231 - Communication related to changes, performance reporting, and routine operational communication are types within service operation.
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QUESTION NO: 232 - A CSI register is used to record possible service improvement opportunities.
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QUESTION NO: 233 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 234 - Event, problem, access, and request fulfilment are part of service operation.
- QUESTION NO: 235 - Public frameworks gain wider distribution and are easier to verify.
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QUESTION NO: 236 - Processes are a unit of an organization and describe delivering specific results in response to events.
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QUESTION NO: 237 - Service transition planning and support 'establishes new services into supported environments'.
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QUESTION NO: 238 - External customers are customers who contractually purchase services from an IT service provider.
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QUESTION NO: 239 - Requiring a service desk call for service requests isn't a capability of self service.
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QUESTION NO: 240 - SKMS is NOT a part of the CMS(Configuration Management system).
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QUESTION NO: 241 - The group responsible for approving faster changes is the Emergency CAB (ECAB).
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QUESTION NO: 242- Service Design details different ITIL publications.
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QUESTION NO: 243 - Service Transition Planning and Support is the process for maintaining and updating service policies, standards, and models.
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QUESTION NO: 244 - A SKMS (Service knowledge management system) does not include a CMDB (Configuration Management Database).
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QUESTION NO: 245 - Major parts of Service Assets are those in relation to Services and Infrastructure, Resources and Capabilities, and Utility and Warranty.
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QUESTION NO: 246 - (No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 249 - The purpose of service operation is to deliver and support IT services at agreed levels for all customers.
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QUESTION NO: 250 - The models most useful in defining an organizational structure is the RACI model.
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QUESTION NO: 251 - Service desk staff are more effective if they are well trained.
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QUESTION NO: 252 - Service Strategy helps with how to prioritize budget across a portfolio, define what services are offered and to who, and define patterns of business activity.
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QUESTION NO: 253 -(No specific information given)
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QUESTION NO: 254 - Each of the PDCA cycle stages should be repeated to implement continual improvement.
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QUESTION NO: 255 - In continual service improvement, data needs to be gathered to answer the question "Did we get there?".
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QUESTION NO: 256 - A service level manager is responsible for agreeing targets, designing services, and ensuring contracts/agreements are in place.
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QUESTION NO: 257 - A combination of roles is needed to execute service asset and configuration management, including Configuration Administrator, Librarian, Configuration Manager, and Configuration Analyst.
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QUESTION NO: 258 - The Incident Manager should manage the first, second, and third lines within an organization effectively so as to respond to events.
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QUESTION NO: 259 - The known errors (KEDB) and configuration management system (CMS) form part of the larger SKMS.
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QUESTION NO: 260 - The main goal of service portfolio is to measure service value using the business value perspective.
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QUESTION NO: 261 - Application management is responsible for deciding whether to buy or build an application.
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QUESTION NO: 262 - Customer/Business needs is the first level of the V-Model.
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QUESTION NO: 263 - Customer/Business needs is the first level of the V-Model.
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QUESTION NO: 264 - Service acceptance criteria support the lifecycle design stage.
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QUESTION NO: 265 - Service desk structural arrangements include the following options for organization structure: local service desk, virtual service desk, IT help desk, and follow-the-sun service desk.
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QUESTION NO: 266 - Wisdom, which is a combination of experiences and insights, cannot be stored by tools.
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QUESTION NO: 267 - Request fulfillment is responsible for handling any low risk, frequently occurring, and low cost changes.
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QUESTION NO: 268 - Business value can be measured across all parts of the service management lifecycle.
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QUESTION NO: 269 - Overall business risk optimization is NOT an aim of change management; standardized methods and procedures are, all changes to CIs are.
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QUESTION NO: 270 - Change management works with incident management to create permanent solutions to issues identified.
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QUESTION NO: 271 - Understanding customer usage patterns is part of demand management.
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QUESTION NO: 272 - An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a lowering of its quality is the best definition of an incident.
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QUESTION NO: 273 - Service design's best description is the design and development of services and service management processes.
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QUESTION NO: 274 - The Request Fulfillment process is in charge of handling frequently occurring, low-risk, low-cost changes.
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QUESTION NO: 275 - The four reasons to monitor and measure are Validate, Diagnose, Justify, Intervene.
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QUESTION NO: 276 - Identifying business objectives, IT objectives, process metrics, and vision/strategy are helpful for continual service improvement (CSI).
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QUESTION NO: 277 - An alert notifies that a threshold or condition has changed.
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QUESTION NO: 278 - Providing information on comparing actual performance with design standards is NOT a Request Fulfillment process.
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QUESTION NO: 279 - Wisdom cannot be stored and managed in any tool.
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QUESTION NO: 280 - Supplier management is responsible for managing underpinning contracts.
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QUESTION NO: 281 - Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate is part of service catalogue management, but ensuring information consistency with the service portfolio is not.
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QUESTION NO: 282 - Service metrics are the overall end-to-end functionality, and technology metrics gauge efficiency and capability of individual components.
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QUESTION NO: 283 - Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible is not a problem management objective.
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QUESTION NO: 284 - An unplanned interruption to an IT service is the best definition of an incident.
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QUESTION NO: 285 - Process objectives should contain terms of business benefits and goals.
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QUESTION NO: 286 - The definition of Process Control includes planning and regulating a process to achieve best practice, which is incorrect.
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QUESTION NO: 287 - A Service Level Agreement is an agreement between a service provider and the customer.
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QUESTION NO: 288 - Service Design includes required capabilities and resources.
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QUESTION NO: 289 - The Request Fulfillment owner is responsible for ensuring the Request Fulfillment Process follows procedures.
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QUESTION NO: 290 - Extreme internal focus is an organizational imbalance where the focus remains with the internal functions rather than the customer output.
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QUESTION NO: 291 - Where are we now is the initial stage of the 7 step improvement process.
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QUESTION NO: 292 - The request fulfillment process owner is responsible for ensuring the agreed process is followed.
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QUESTION NO: 293 - Ensuring correct skills for infrastructure management is NOT a responsibility of application management.
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QUESTION NO: 294 - Defining what to measure is the first step in the 7 step improvement process.
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**QUESTION NO: 295
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Description
Test your knowledge on the ITIL framework and service management practices. This quiz covers key concepts such as availability management, access management, and continual service improvement. Enhance your understanding of ITIL principles and their application in service lifecycle management.