CHEM2456 FINAL EXAM REVIEW

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following best describes the role of helper T-cells in the adaptive immune response?

  • Assisting in the differentiation of B-cells and T-cells and attracting macrophages. (correct)
  • Providing immunological memory to prevent reinfection.
  • Releasing chemicals that directly lyse infected cells.
  • Regulating and suppressing the actions of other immune cells to prevent autoimmunity.

In the context of ELISA assays, what is the primary purpose of the "blocking" step?

  • To wash away any non-specifically bound antibodies.
  • To amplify the signal from the enzyme-labeled antibody.
  • To denature any unbound proteins.
  • To prevent the antibodies from binding directly to the assay plate. (correct)

Which statement accurately contrasts monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies?

  • Monoclonal antibodies are less specific and have a higher risk of cross-reactivity compared to polyclonal antibodies.
  • Monoclonal antibodies are derived from multiple B-cell clones, while polyclonal antibodies are derived from a single B-cell clone.
  • Monoclonal antibodies recognize multiple epitopes on an antigen, whereas polyclonal antibodies recognize a single epitope.
  • Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single epitope on an antigen, whereas polyclonal antibodies recognize multiple epitopes. (correct)

What is the function of the Fc region of an antibody?

<p>All of the above. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant disadvantage of direct ELISA compared to indirect ELISA?

<p>Direct ELISA is less sensitive. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Western blotting, what is the purpose of 'blocking' the membrane?

<p>To prevent non-specific binding of the antibody to the membrane. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods is most appropriate for quantifying small molecules?

<p>Competitive ELISA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main advantage of using a vacuum oven for moisture determination in food samples?

<p>It minimizes oxidation and decomposition of the sample. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In food analysis, why is the measurement of moisture content important?

<p>It influences microbial growth and food stability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of water is most readily available for microbial growth in food?

<p>Free water (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which analytical method is best suited for determining the moisture content of honey?

<p>Refractometry (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major disadvantage of using a drying oven to measure moisture content in high-fat foods?

<p>It can lead to an overestimation of moisture content due to oxidation of fats. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the 'ash' content in proximate analysis of food?

<p>It indicates the total mineral content in food. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of food proximate analysis, what does the term 'carbohydrate' generally refer to?

<p>The difference between the total mass of the sample and the sum of moisture, ash, fat, and protein. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is an example of why free fatty acids are measured in food?

<p>To indicate the level of oil degradation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of food analysis, what does the iodine value (IV) indicate about a fat or oil sample?

<p>The total amount of unsaturated fatty acids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided text, what is the primary purpose of the Kjeldahl method in food analysis?

<p>To measure the nitrogen content, which is then used to estimate protein content. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a 'Preventive Control Plan' (PCP) according to the Safe Food for Canadians Regulations (SFCR)?

<p>To detail how risks to food safety and humane treatment of food animals are identified and controlled. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which key elements must be included in traceability documentation, according to Codex Alimentarius?

<p>The common name of the food, lot code, and details to trace the food back one step. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between 'HACCP' and 'HARPC' systems?

<p>HACCP is control-point focused, while HARPC is risk-based. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sensory attribute refers to chemical feeling factors perceived by the trigeminal nerve in the mouth and aftertaste sensations?

<p>Texture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the most important consideration when testing soils?

<p>To determine fertilizer needs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Clostridium botulinum to food?

<p>Can result in death (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of using bacteria in food that is considered undesirable?

<p>Production of Pigments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

True or False: Different Bacteria needs the same atmospheres to grow in.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Durham Tube in Microbiology?

<p>To detect gas in a experiment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given food that is highly acidic in food, what is the best way to detect the microbes?

<p>Use acidified media (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

True for False: High pH is needed when there is to be microbial response

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is not a factor of having effective microbes

<p>Weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

True or False: Salinity and water are related.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best way to tell if a plate from lab had bacterial colonies

<p>Have at least 30 colonies and up to 300 colonies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TNTC mean?

<p>Too Numerous to Count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A techinician is testing a new sauce with bacteria and needs to find out how many colonies are there, but the bacteria colonies overides the media. What can a technician do?

<p>Count another plate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does E.g. gelatinase do?

<p>Does hydrolysize gelatine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lab needed to decide what kind of bacteria is in the experiment. Out of the listed answers , what is known to help categorize of what they are?

<p>Biochemical Reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lab was not able to differantiate or tell what kind of blood cells are there. So a media is used to differntiate. What media must be used to differientiate blood cells.

<p>Blood Agar Media (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which description relates with use undefiened yeast extract

<p>Easy to Make (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

There was not a type of carbohydrate from the following choice. What carboydrate is it.

<p>Stachyose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of immunology?

<p>The study of the body's defense mechanisms against foreign substances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the adaptive immune system differ from the innate immune system in its response to pathogens?

<p>The adaptive immune system is highly specific to particular antigens, while the innate system is nonspecific. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following components is NOT a physical barrier in the innate immune system?

<p>Antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do complement systems enhance the action of antibodies?

<p>By helping antibodies target pathogens for destruction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cells act as a bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems by presenting antigens?

<p>Dendritic cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do natural killer (NK) cells eliminate compromised host cells?

<p>By inducing apoptosis in infected cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of helper T-cells in the adaptive immune response?

<p>Assisting in B-cell and T-cell differentiation and attracting macrophages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the structure of IgG contribute to its function?

<p>The constant region allows it to activate complement pathways. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes monoclonal antibodies from polyclonal antibodies?

<p>Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single specific epitope, while polyclonal antibodies recognize multiple epitopes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an epitope?

<p>The specific part of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a direct ELISA, which component is directly conjugated to an enzyme?

<p>The primary antibody (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is spectrophotometry used in ELISA assays?

<p>To measure the emitted light which correlates with the amount of antigen-antibody binding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What advantage does the use of a secondary antibody provide in an indirect ELISA?

<p>Signal amplification, leading to increased sensitivity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a competitive ELISA, how does a higher concentration of antigen in the sample affect the light detection?

<p>Decreases light detection because more antigen in the sample means less enzyme-linked antibody will bind to the reference antigen on the plate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of transferring proteins to a membrane in Western blotting?

<p>To make the proteins accessible for antibody detection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Western blotting, what is the purpose of using secondary antibodies?

<p>To amplify the signal from the primary antibody. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of using Western blots for protein quantification?

<p>It is semi-quantitative and can be subject to variability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lateral flow assays are best suited for what type of analysis?

<p>Rapid, qualitative detection of a specific target. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between sandwich and competitive lateral flow assays with regard to epitope size?

<p>Sandwich assays require larger epitopes, while competitive assays work best with smaller epitopes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In proximate analysis, how are carbohydrates typically determined?

<p>By calculating the difference between the total weight and the sum of the other components (moisture, ash, fat, and protein). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is moisture content an important parameter in food analysis?

<p>It affects microbial growth, texture, and legal conformity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does 'bound water' differ from 'free water' in foods?

<p>Bound water is not available to microorganisms, while free water supports microbial growth. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does water activity (a_w) measure?

<p>The partial vapor pressure of water in a substance relative to pure water. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is controlling water activity important in food preservation?

<p>To inhibit the growth of bacteria and molds that cause spoilage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary challenge when using an air oven to determine the moisture content of high-fat foods?

<p>The fat can oxidize, leading to an overestimation of the water content. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main advantage of using a vacuum oven for moisture analysis compared to an air oven?

<p>It reduces oxidation and decomposition of the sample because of low boiling point of temperature and pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What principle does the Karl Fischer titration method rely on for moisture determination?

<p>Titration of water with iodine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which type of food product is Karl Fischer titration most suitable?

<p>Low-moisture foods such as oils, honey, and powdered milk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Bidwell-Sterling method for moisture determination relies on what principle?

<p>Distilling a sample with a water-immiscible solvent and measuring the water collected. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Bidwell-Sterling moisture test?

<p>It has low precision due to difficulties reading the meniscus and emulsion formation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the principle behind using Near-Infrared (NIR) spectroscopy for moisture determination?

<p>Measuring the absorption of infrared radiation by water molecules. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by 'ash' content in food proximate analysis?

<p>The total mineral content. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is determining the ash content important in food analysis?

<p>To assess food quality, detect adulteration, and prepare samples for mineral determination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does 'wet ashing' differ from 'dry ashing' in food sample preparation?

<p>Wet ashing uses strong acids to oxidize organic matter, while dry ashing uses heat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In food analysis, what does the iodine value (IV) of a fat or oil indicate?

<p>The degree of unsaturation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is nitrogen content analyzed in food samples?

<p>To estimate the protein content. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of adding thiosulfate in the distillation step of the Kjeldahl method?

<p>To break up trapped materials so nitrogen can be more easily steam distilled. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Safe Food for Canadians Regulations (SFCR), what is the main focus of preventative controls?

<p>Controlling risks to food safety and humane treatment of food animals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The HACCP system involves identifying potential hazards. What constitutes a 'hazard' in this context?

<p>Any chemical, (micro)biological or physical property that can cause an unacceptable risk to consumer health. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a 'Critical Control Point' (CCP) in a HACCP system?

<p>A step at which controls can be applied to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In sensory analysis of food, which sensation is perceived by taste buds?

<p>Sweet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What consideration is a part of sensory evaluations?

<p>Time of day of testing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best captures the purpose of a taste panel in food product development?

<p>To assess consumer likes and dislikes and integrate this with product formulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When comparing soil samples to grow plants in, what should be considered first?

<p>Nutrient in the soil. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What problem is indicative of spoiled fruit?

<p>Organic acids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bacteria/ microbe needs little to no 02?

<p>Obligate anerboes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action to do for food prevent in general.

<p>Changes in the storage conditions of the food to prevent growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can indicate for what bacteria is?

<p>How the biochemical reactions go. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of air drying soil samples for 2-3 days before analysis?

<p>To inhibit microbial activity that could alter the soil composition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A food microbiologist is tasked with rapidly determining the presence of a specific pathogen in a food sample. Which method would be most suitable for this purpose?

<p>Molecular biology testing for genetic markers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key factor differentiates a chemically defined media from a complex media used in microbiology?

<p>The complete knowledge of all chemical components (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of food preservation, how does lowering the pH of canned goods help prevent spoilage?

<p>It inhibits the growth of many spoilage microorganisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Certain bacteria in milk is observed using the method of titratable acidity (TA). As the population of these bacteria increases, what happens to the titratable acidity (TA)?

<p>TA increases as these bacteria produce more lactic acid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a food sample is found to be contaminated with C. botulinum, what is the primary concern regarding its consumption?

<p>It will cause muscle weakness and blurred vision, potentially leading to death. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does adjusting the water actvity affect the shelf life of a food?

<p>Increase water activity facilitates certain chemical changes and microbial growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In food analysis, what is the primary reason for testing fat content?

<p>To optimize desired final composition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When analyzing the constituents needed for plant growth, define what a macronutient is and what are some examples?

<p>Basic requirements all plants need in high doses, C, N, S, P, Na, Mg, Ca and K (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A food product with a monochromatic look can affect?

<p>All food with a monochromatic look (single colour) is often considered as unappealing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the material, what is a reason for setting up a taste panel?

<p>Both (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do food microbiologists prevent growth in a food system?

<p>They understand with the microorganisms can be present in a system so food require storage conditions that prevent growth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does temperature affect what is considered the growth of microorganisms?

<p>Using a different range of temperatures can grow different bacteria with different attributes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Safe Food for Canadians Regulations (SFCR), what elements should a food business include in their Preventative Control Plan (PCP)?

<p>Product description, process flow diagram, traffic flow diagram, hazard identification, and evaluation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When looking to see what types of bacteria there are, what medium would be used?

<p>Differential media (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What method is most time efficient for determining bacterial activity?

<p>Indirect method (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following Codex Alimentarius guidelines, what information is required on traceability documents for food products?

<p>Trace the food one step back and one step forward. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a food production facility, what does a traffic flow diagram illustrate within the context of a Preventative Control Plan (PCP)?

<p>The movement of employees, materials, and waste to identify potential cross-contamination points (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for conducting a total dry ash procedure in food analysis?

<p>Detect adulteration of food (deliberate contamination) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a plate has Too Numerous To Count (TNTC), what must be done?

<p>Dilution may help to get accurate counts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is immunology?

The study of all defense mechanisms used by the body.

What is immunity?

Protection from disease and especially infectious diseases.

What are the immune systems?

The cells and molecules that provide the immune protection.

What is immune response?

The manner in which the body responds to a foreign agent e.g. virus, chemical.

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What is an antigen?

The foreign agent that elicits an immune response.

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What is the Innate Immunity System?

Physical, chemical, and cellular barriers that are always present.

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What is a physical barrier?

Barrier structures or substances.

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What is the skin's role in immunity?

Covers the vast majority of the body and provides a physical barrier to prevent entry into the body.

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What are mucous membranes?

Line the mouth, nose, eyelids, windpipe, lungs, stomach, intestines, urethra and urinary bladder. Produce mucus

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What is a chemical barrier?

Conditions that make pathogen survival difficult.

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What is the role of stomach acid in immunity?

High acidity inhibits microbial growth and can kill microbes.

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What is the role of tears in immunity?

Tears contain salt and lysozyme which help to lyse (break open) possible pathogens, particularly under stressful situations.

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What is lysozyme?

An enzyme that lyses cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.

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What is inflammation?

Helps to localize infection. It is often characterized by redness, heat and swelling of the injured part.

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What is the complement system?

Biochemical cascade that helps antibodies to get rid of pathogens or targets pathogens for destruction by other cells.

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What are cellular defenses?

Recruitment of particular types of cells which are the main line of defense in non-specific immunity

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What is the role of mast cells?

Reside in connective tissue and mucus membranes. They are primarily involved with wound healing and defense against pathogens.

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What are phagocytes?

Means "cell eaters", they engulf "phagocytose” pathogens by extending their plasma membranes around pathogens.

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What are macrophages?

Means “large eaters” and are able to move outside of the vascular system and across capillary walls.

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What are neutrophils?

They are also called granulocytes because of granules in their cytoplasm. They can produce hydrogen peroxide, oxygen radicals and hypochlorite that kill off pathogens. Average adult produces 100 billion per day.

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What are dendritic cells?

Look like neuronal dendrites but are not part of the nervous system. They are involved with antigen presentation and act as a bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems.

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What is the role of natural killer cells?

Does not directly attack invading pathogens but destroys compromised host cells such as virus-infected cell or tumour cells.

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What is the adaptive immunity system?

Involves many different types of cells that function if the innate system fails to prevent a foreign cell or molecule from entering the body.

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Specificity of Adaptive Immunity

Highly specific and capable of recognizing and eliminating specific antigens.

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How long does adaptive immunity take?

May take up to 7 days to become fully effective.

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How does vaccination work?

Can provide immunologic memory i.e. “remembers” antigens (basis for vaccinations).

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What makes up Adaptive Immunity?

Consists of lymphocytes known as B- and T-cells, effector cells and memory cells.

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Why are B-cells named so?

Called B-cells because they mature in the bone marrow.

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Why are T-cells named so?

Called T-cells because they mature in the thymus.

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What is the role of Helper T-cells?

Assist with B- and T-cell differentiation and release chemicals that attract macrophages.

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What is the Cytotoxic T-cells?

Bind to specific cells and release chemicals that lyse the cells (for example, infected cells)

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What is IgG?

The most common antibody (Ab)

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Glycosylated of IgG

It is named IgG due to it being glycosylated (whole Ab is ~150 kDa)

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What makes up the antibody IgG?

Composed of four polypeptide chains: 2 light chains (subscript L), 2 heavy chains (subscript H)

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What size of the Chain?

Each chain has a variable domain and one (light) or three (heavy) domains, each domain is ~110 amino acids

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What is Fab?

Antigen binding fragment (the arms of the Y)

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What it the FC region?

Crystallizable fragment (the trunk of the Y)

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Epitope

Variable region recognizes the epitope by non-covalent interactions

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Monoclonal vs Polyclonal?

Antibodies can be monoclonal (recognize a single specific epitope) or polyclonal (several different antibodies that bind to different epitopes on the same protein)

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Role of antibody?

Antibodies are a part of the acquired immune system. They target foreign material for destruction by the innate immune systems

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The FC function

The Fc region binds to a Fc receptor in an effector cell a phagocyte that will engulf the foreign material

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Antibodies tool help

Antigen combines with antibody.

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Proximate analysis

Proximate analysis data shown on the label under the heading "Nutrition(al) Facts"

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Proximate analysis determines

Moisture, ash, fat and protein

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Economics of transport

Amount of water affects the mass and cost of shipping

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What is the shelf life?

Water content affects the microbial growth and staleness of foods.

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Affects the textures

Consumer expectations that products should not be too dry or too slimy.

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Types of water

Bulk, adsorbed, bound.

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Oxidation of the product

High-fat foods oxidation produce increase mass

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Volatile components

Fatty is volatile components which leads to overestimate water content

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Low water

Drying balance.

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High water

Chemical or physical methods to analysis

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Calculation of water

Changes in mass is used to to calculate the % of water

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Advantage of vacuum oven

Reduced oxidation and composition.

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Covered drying method helps to

Help prevent the readsorption of water from air during cooling

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Distillation method

Inert atmosphere no present reduces the oxidation

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KF volumetric Reagent

Alcohol, base, and SO2.

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Instrumental Method measures

Measure water vibration at 3333 and 1640,6000 to 4000

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What is ash?

Ash = inorganic residue that remains after incineration of organic matter

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What is the point of ash?

Food quality (nutrients) and to detect adulteration of food or dirt

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To test soil analysis

Measure the dirt and sand present, used in soil analysis

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What is wet ashing?

Heat and strong acids are used in ashing to loss less volatile

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What are lipids?

Non-polar biological molecules

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What is iodine value?

Measure of g of iodine per g of fat

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What is the burning point of an oil or fat.

Burning point of an oil or fat where it produces bluish smoke continuously

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What is kJeldahl method?

To determine of protein in food, Analyse for N, most N content in food is in proteins

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What is a carbohydrate?

Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharide molecules.

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Health benefit molecules

Helps food intake as move digestive to swell

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Carbohydrate determination

Proximate, fat, protein and ash.

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What occurs to pectin?

Plant complex in for cell walls uses a gelling

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PH paper

2 part pH meter

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Analyse of soil focuses

Plants determine the soluble amounts

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Preventive Controls for food

For food, based on the Codex Alimentarius General Principles of Food Hygiene

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What is based on Codex Alimentarius?

Food should be traceable forward to the person whom the food was provided and back to the immediate supplier

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Bilingual

All that is contained

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Taste can be?

Test buds e.g salty bitter

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What is texture

Flavour

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Bad guys are know as

Microorganisms are a cause of food waste.

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Most

Detects

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An assumption

Each colony is a bacterial or yeast cell.

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The quick measure

Microbial activity such as titratable acidity TA in milk

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What is microbiological?

The detection and identification of microorganisms are a critical aspect of food analysis

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Food spoilage

Acidifying foods by adding organic acids or acid-producing microorganisms

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Study Notes

Unit 3 - An Introduction to Immunology

  • Immunology = study of the body’s defense mechanisms
  • Immunity = protection from disease and especially infectious diseases
  • Immune systems = the cells and molecules that provide the immune protection
  • Immune response = the manner in which the body responds to a foreign agent, e.g., virus, chemical
  • Antigen = the foreign agent that elicits an immune response
  • Two systems of immunity: Innate and Acquired

The Innate Immunity System

  • Includes physical, chemical, and cellular barriers and is always present
  • Physical barriers = barrier structures or substances
  • Skin covers the vast majority of the body and acts as a physical barrier to prevent entry into the body
  • Mucous membranes line the mouth, nose, eyelids, windpipe (trachea), lungs, stomach, intestines, urethra, and urinary bladder
  • Mucous membranes produce mucus, a thick, viscous material that can trap foreign bodies and contains lysozyme which is an enzyme that can breakdown bacterial cell walls
  • Chemical barriers = conditions that make pathogen survival difficult
  • Stomach acid inhibits microbial growth and can kill microbes since most susceptible bacteria exist for less than fifteen minutes at a pH below 3
  • Denaturation and hydrolysis of proteins occur at acidic pH
  • Tears contain salt and lysozyme help to lyse possible pathogens, under stressful situations, known as lacrimal
  • Sweat contains salt, butyric acid and lysozyme. Sweat is acidic and helps to reduce microbial growth, helping to lyse pathogens
  • Lysozyme is an enzyme that lyses cell walls of gram-positive bacteria and was named by Alexander Fleming when he was testing mucus from a patient with a head cold on bacterial cultures
  • Inflammation helps to localize infection and is characterized by redness, heat and swelling of the injured part
  • Complement system = biochemical cascade that helps antibodies to rid pathogens or targets pathogens for destruction by other cells
  • Cellular barriers = recruitment of particular types of cells which are the main line of defence in non-specific immunity
  • Mast cells reside in connective tissue and mucus membranes, involved with wound healing and defence against pathogens, and also play a role in allergy
  • Phagocytes engulf pathogens by extending their plasma membranes around pathogens and includes macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells

Phagocytes

  • "Cell eaters" engulf or "phagocytose” pathogens by extending their plasma membranes around pathogens
  • Macrophages = “large eaters” can move outside of the vascular system and across capillary walls, destroys pathogens through the process of “respiratory burst" (production of reactive oxygen species)
  • Neutrophils are also called granulocytes because of granules in their cytoplasm
  • Neutrophils produce hydrogen peroxide, oxygen radicals and hypochlorite that kill off pathogens, and adults produce 100 billion neutrophils per day
  • Dendritic cells look like neuronal dendrites but are not part of the nervous system
  • Dendritic cells are involved with antigen presentation which acts as a bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems
  • Natural killer (NK) cells does not directly attack invading pathogens but destroys compromised host cells such as virus-infected cell or tumour cells
  • Natural killer cells induce apoptosis (programmed cell death) of infected cells causing them to destroy themselves from the inside

The Adaptive (acquired) Immunity System

  • A system that involves many different types of cells that function if the innate system fails to prevent a foreign cell or molecule from entering the body
  • A system that is highly specific and capable of recognizing and eliminating specific antigens
  • Can take up to 7 days to become fully effective
  • Can provide immunologic memory i.e. “remembers” antigens which is a basis for vaccinations
  • Involves hypersomatic mutation that allows a small number of genes to produce extreme numbers of antigen receptors
  • Consists of lymphocytes known as B- and T-cells, effector cells and memory cells
  • Average healthy adult has around 2 trillion lymphocytes
  • B-cells are called B-cells because they mature in the bone marrow
  • Mature B-cells can interact with dendritic cells and can differentiate into plasma cells (produce antibodies) or memory cells
  • T-cells are called T-cells because they mature in the thymus and involves 4 different types
  • Helper T-cells assist with B- and T-cell differentiation and release chemicals that attract macrophages
  • Cytotoxic T-cells bind to specific cells and release chemicals that lyse the cells (for example, infected cells)
  • Suppressor T-cells regulate other immune cells and helps to turn down an immune response
  • Memory T-cells have a similar function to memory B cells and helps if a reinfection occurs

Antibodies

  • Antibodies (Ab) are a part of the acquired immune system and target foreign material for destruction by the innate immune systems
  • Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the most common antibody, named IgG due to it being glycosylated (whole Ab is ~150 kDa)
  • Is composed of four polypeptide chains: two light chains (subscript L), and two heavy chains (subscript H)
  • The polypeptide chains are joined by disulfide bonds
  • Each chain has a variable domain and one (light) or three (heavy) domains, and each domain is ~110 amino acids
  • Fragment antigen-binding (Fab) = antigen binding fragment, and are the arms of the Y
  • Crystallizable Fragment (Fc) = the trunk of the Y
  • The variable region recognizes the epitope by non-covalent interactions, that are known as complementarity
  • Epitope is the foreign (non-histocompatible (non-self)) material
  • Antibodies can be monoclonal (recognize a single specific epitope) or polyclonal (several different antibodies that bind to different epitopes on the same protein)
  • The Fc region binds to a Fc receptor in an effector cell, a phagocyte that will engulf the foreign material and neutralize it
  • B cells are a cell type that display different types of antibodies (with different variable regions) on their surface
  • If a specific epitope is bound by an antibody (or several antibodies) on the B cell receptor, this stimulates the production of more of that type of antibody through signal transduction pathways in the cells
  • To raise antibodies against a protein of interest inject an organism with the purified protein, harvest its blood and if the sequence is known it can also be produced recombinantly

Applications of Immunological Molecules

  • Antigen-antibody specificity allows for binding of a single type of molecule, which is useful for Quantification (ELISA), Detection (Western blotting, lateral flow assays), and Purification (Affinity chromatography – Unit 2)
  • Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) relies on an antibody that has an enzyme linked to its Fc region (chemical linkage between the enzyme and the antibody)
  • Spectrophotometric enzyme activity assay can be used to detect the enzyme and therefore antibody
  • Commonly uses horseradish peroxidase which catalyzes the reaction

Types of ELISA

  • Direct ELISA involves coating a 96 well plate coated with sample, all proteins in the sample are adsorbed onto the plate surface
  • A blocking buffer "blocks" any remaining protein binding sites on the plate to prevent antibodies from binding directly to the plate
  • The enzyme-linked antibody is added and incubated to bind the antigen, then the unbound antibodies are washed away
  • Enzyme substrates are added, and a plate-reading spectrophotometer detects the emitted light
  • As concentration of antigen increases, emitted light increases
  • Advantages: fast and simple protocol
  • Disadvantages: less specific since you are only using one antibody, and a potential for high background if all proteins from a sample are immobilized in well
  • Indirect ELISA involves coating a 96 well plate with sample, all proteins in the sample are adsorbed onto the plate surface
  • A blocking buffer "blocks" any remaining protein binding sites on the plate to prevent antibodies from binding directly to the plate
  • Primary antibody, which binds the antigen, is bound and then washed a way
  • A secondary enzyme-linked antibody is added (epitope is the Fc part of the primary antibody), is bound to the primary antibody, and is washed away
  • Enzyme substrates are added, and a plate- reading spectrophotometer detects the emitted light
  • As concentration of antigen increases, emitted light increases
  • Advantages: amplification using a secondary antibody, and flexibility
  • Disadvantages: potential for cross-reactivity caused by secondary antibody
  • Reason to perform indirect ELISA: higher sensitivity
  • Sandwich ELISA involves a plate coated in capture antibodies
  • A blocking buffer blocks any remaining protein binding sites on the plate to prevent antigen from binding to the plate
  • Antigen incubation allows the the antigen to be bound
  • Antibody incubation can be done as a direct method or indirect
  • Enzyme substrates are added, plate-reading spectrophotometer detects the emitted light
  • As concentration of antigen increases, emitted light increases
  • Advantages: highest specificity and sensitivity, and compatible with complex sample matrices
  • Disadvantages: longer protocol, and challenging to develop
  • Competitive ELISA involves a 96 well plate coated with reference antigen
  • A blocking buffer "blocks" any remaining protein binding sites on the plate to prevent antibodies from binding directly to the plate
  • Incubate the sample (which contains the antigens) with limited amount of labelled antibodies
  • Add the sample-Ab mixture to the plate (Abs that did not bind to sample will bind to plate instead as the more antigen in the sample, the less antibody will be able to bind to the antigen in the well, hence "competition.")
  • Ab bound to sample will wash away, and Ab bound to reference will remain
  • Enzyme substrates are added, and plate-reading spectrophotometer detects the emitted light As concentration of antigen in the free sample increases, light detection will decrease
  • Advantages: ability to quantitate small molecules
  • Disadvantages: less specific since you are only using one antibody, and requires a conjugated antigen

Western Blots

  • Used to visualize a single protein of interest in SDS-PAGE
  • The steps are to run SDS-PAGE, transfer all proteins to membrane, block, stain with primary Ab (1º Ab) and wash, stain with secondary Ab (2º Ab) and wash, and then detect via horseradish peroxidase (HRP)
  • Identification of a specific protein in a complex mixture of proteins, where a protein mixture is separated by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, and the protein bands are transferred by electrophoresis (electroblotting) on to a membrane matrix
  • Nitrocellulose or polyvinylidene difluoride (PVDF) membrane matrix has good non-specific protein binding properties
  • Electroblotting uses an electric current which is passed through the gel to facilitate the transfer of protein to the membrane
  • The charged proteins move from within the gel onto the membrane while maintaining the organization they had within the gel that increases its antibody detection
  • Block the membrane to prevent non-specific binding to ensure the membrane and antibody used for detection of target protein is not bonded
  • Non-specific binding is blocked by placing the membrane in a dilute solution of protein – typically non-fat dry milk with small percentage (0.05%) of detergent such as Tween 20
  • The protein in the dilute solution attaches to the membrane in all places where the target proteins have not attached so when the antibody is added, there is no room on the membrane for it to attach other than on the binding sites of the specific target protein
  • This reduces background in the final product of the Western blot and leads to clearer results that eliminates false positives
  • Membrane is incubated with a primary antibody (monoclonal antibody) directed against the antigen -protein you are looking for
  • In the second step, it is incubated with a secondary antibody (conjugated/linked to a reporter enzyme) that is specific for the primary antibody.
  • The enzyme's substrate then reveals the antibody-bound antigen, then precipitates next to the enzyme and stains the membrane
  • Development of the blot is stopped by washing away the soluble dye where the most common detection methods use secondary antibodies conjugated to alkaline phosphatase (AP) or horseradish peroxidase (HRP).

Lateral Flow Assays

  • Can be used in sandwich or competitive format
  • Typically large epitopes = sandwich, smaller epitopes = competitve
  • Used for SNAP tests, rapid COVID tests, home pregnancy tests, recombinant growth hormone, and for drug detection
  • Delivers qualitative test results as opposed to quantitative

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