167 Questions
Where are alpha 1 receptors found in the body?
Heart
What is the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system responsible for?
Blood pressure regulation
Where is aldosterone released from?
Adrenal Cortex
What is the primary cause of hypertension?
Genetics
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be classified as stage 2 hypertension?
140/90
What is the equation for calculating blood pressure?
BP = CO \times SVR \times HR
Which of the following is a determinant of systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
Tone of underlying smooth muscle
Which of the following is an adverse effect of thiazide diuretics?
Increased glucose levels
Which of the following is an adverse effect of loop diuretics?
Increased excretion of potassium
Which of the following is an adverse effect of alpha 1 antagonists?
Hypotension
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors?
Blocking the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
Which of the following is the most correct about ARBs?
Blocks Angiotensin 2 from attaching to angiotensin 2 receptor
What is the mechanism of action for thiazide diuretics?
Blocking the Na/Cl symporter
What is the mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?
Block influx of Ca2+ into vascular muscles
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be classified as stage 1 hypertension?
130/80
What is the equation for calculating blood pressure?
BP = CO \times SVR \times HR
Where is Beta 1 predominantly found?
Cardiac muscle
Which blood pressure reading would be classified as stage 1 hypertension?
140/80
What is the equation for calculating cardiac output (CO)?
CO = SV x HR
Which of the following is a determinant of systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
Tone of underlying smooth muscle
Which of the following is an adverse effect of alpha 2 agonists?
Dry mouth
What are some adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists?
Hyperkalemia
Which of the following is an adverse effect of direct vasodilators?
Hypotension
What are some adverse effects of loop diuretics?
Dehydration
Which of the following is an adverse effect of beta blockers?
Sexual dysfunction
What are some adverse effects of ACE inhibitors?
Hyperkalemia
Which of the following is an adverse effect of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?
Hypotension
What are some adverse effects of thiazide diuretics?
Dehydration
Which of the following is an adverse effect of ARBs?
Increased potassium levels
What are some adverse effects of alpha 1 antagonists?
Dizziness
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be classified as elevated blood pressure?
130/80
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be classified as stage 1 hypertension?
140/80
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be classified as stage 2 hypertension?
140/90
What is the equation for calculating blood pressure?
BP = CO \times SVR \times HR
What are the determinants of cardiac output?
Volume of blood, amount of blood in chamber, and health of the heart
What is a determinant of systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?
Tone of underlying smooth muscle
What is the neurotransmitter involved in the physiologic control of blood pressure?
Norepinephrine
Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Sympathetic is fight or flight, releases norepinephrine. Parasympathetic involves normal processes and releases acetylcholine.
What are the two adrenergic receptors?
Alpha and beta
Where are beta 1 receptors predominantly found?
Heart
Which of the following is the MOA of aldosterone antagonists?
Inhibit aldosterone-mediated stimulation of ENaC and Na+ ATPase synthesis
Which of the following is an example of a calcium channel blocker (CCB) that blocks calcium influx into cardiac tissue?
Diltiazem
Which of the following is the primary cause of secondary hypertension?
Another medical condition
Which of the following is the most correct about white coat hypertension?
It is characterized by elevated blood pressure only in a medical environment
Which of the following is the most correct about loop diuretics?
They increase excretion of sodium and chloride ions
Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with beta blockers?
Bronchospasm
Which of the following is the MOA of central acting antihypertensives?
Decrease sympathetic outflow
Which of the following is a risk factor associated with hypertension that can be modified?
Unhealthy diet high in sodium
Which of the following is an example of a first-line antihypertensive medication?
Captopril
Which of the following is the MOA of direct vasodilators?
Open potassium channels resulting in hyperpolarization of vascular smooth muscle
Which branch of biology deals with the functions and activities of life or living matter?
Physiology
What is the physiology of abnormal states, specifically involving the functional changes that accompany a particular syndrome or disease?
Pathophysiology
Which branch of medical science deals with the incidence, distribution, and control of disease in a population?
Epidemiology
Which branch of medical science is concerned with the causes and origins of diseases and abnormal conditions?
Etiology
What are the 'communication systems' that regulate the structure and function of all other systems in the body?
Body systems
What is a biochemical entity on or within a cell to which an endogenous ligand or a drug binds, resulting in a change in cell function?
Drug target
Which of the following is an example of a protein target?
Enzyme
Which of the following organs is responsible for drug metabolism?
Liver
Which type of secretion involves two pumps to move drugs from blood to the lumen of the nephron?
Tubular secretion
Which of the following organs secrete drugs into bile canaliculi?
Liver
Which of the following organs is responsible for drug excretion or retention?
Kidney
What is the reverse process of tubular secretion/tubular reabsorption?
Tubular reabsorption
Which of the following molecular weights can undergo glomerular filtration?
<2000
Which of the following organs are minor organs for excretion?
Lungs and breast
What is the term for the movement of drugs from the kidney back into the bloodstream?
Tubular reabsorption
Which type of drugs are poorly filtered by the kidneys?
Acidic drugs
Which of the following is the major organ responsible for drug metabolism?
Liver
Which of the following is true about drug distribution in the body?
Drugs with high protein binding distribute more slowly from blood into tissues.
Which of the following is true about drug excretion?
Drugs can be excreted either unchanged (parent drug) or as metabolites.
Which of the following is true about drug metabolism?
For a drug to be metabolized, it must be bound by metabolizing enzyme.
Which of the following is an example of drug activity modification during metabolism?
Beta blockers are converted to inactive forms.
Which of the following is true about drug elimination?
Drug elimination is the combined processes of drug metabolism and drug excretion.
Which of the following organs are the two major organs for drug excretion?
Liver and Kidney
Which of the following is a type of enzyme inhibitor that binds to the catalytic site?
Competitive inhibitor
Which of the following is NOT a type of enzyme inhibitor?
Reversible inhibitor
What is the primary difference between a competitive inhibitor and a noncompetitive inhibitor?
Competitive inhibitors bind to the catalytic site, while noncompetitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric or regulatory site
What is the primary difference between a reversible inhibitor and a nonreversible inhibitor?
Reversible inhibitors can bind and unbind from enzymes, while nonreversible inhibitors irreversibly bind to enzymes
What is the primary difference between a partial agonist and a full agonist?
Partial agonists have a lower intrinsic value than full agonists
Which of the following is NOT a type of receptor?
DNA transcription nuclear receptor
What is the primary focus of pharmacodynamics (PD)?
The study of drugs' molecular and biochemical actions and physiologic effects on human target cells, tissues, and organs
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate complement?
Type-III
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by cell destruction due to antigen-specific antibody (IgG) and complement?
Type-II
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is immediate and mediated by IgE antibodies?
Type-I
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is T cell-mediated and does not involve antibodies?
Type-IV
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the release of inflammatory mediators from basophils or mast cells?
Type-I
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has the typical onset within 1 hour, but may also occur within 1-6 hours?
Type-I
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has the typical onset of >72 hours to weeks?
Type-II
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has the typical onset of >72 hours to weeks?
Type-III
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has the typical onset of >72 hours?
Type-IV
Which hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the clinical presentation of rhinitis, acute asthma, urticaria, angioedema, and anaphylaxis?
Type-I
Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction?
A reaction caused by an overactive immune system to an antigenic drug
According to the International Consensus (ICON) on Drug Allergy, when should the term 'drug allergy' be used?
For drug reactions with proven immune mechanism
What is the difference between a hypersensitivity reaction and an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune-mediated, while ADRs are not
What are the most common sources of allergens/substances that can induce hypersensitivity reactions?
Animals, pollen, dust, and mold
Which of the following is a characteristic of a hypersensitivity reaction?
It is an organ-specific reaction
What is the primary difference between a hypersensitivity reaction and an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
The immune mechanism involved
What is the term used for unwanted, uncomfortable, or hazardous effects induced by a drug?
Adverse drug reaction (ADR)
What is the proposed term for drug reactions with a proven immune mechanism?
Drug allergy
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a hypersensitivity reaction?
Drug interaction
What is the term used for a hypersensitivity reaction caused by an overactive immune system to an antigenic drug?
Drug allergy
Which of the following is responsible for 6% to 10% of adverse reactions to medications?
Drug allergy
Which of the following is NOT a preformed, pharmacologically active chemical mediator triggered when antigens cross-link IgE molecules?
Variety of other enzymes
Which of the following is the correct order of isotype switching from IgM to IgG, IgA, or IgE upon a second exposure to the same antigen?
IgM -> IgG -> IgA -> IgE
Which of the following is responsible for the production of an IgE-mediated response in immediate reactions?
Immunoglobulins
Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of immediate reactions?
Maculopapular exanthems
Which of the following is the correct order of organs and tissues involved in hypersensitivity reactions?
Head -> Eyes -> Ear -> Nose -> Lungs -> Heart -> Stomach -> Blood vessels -> Skin -> Others
Which of the following is the correct pathway for the pro-hapten/hapten concept?
Small compounds -> Covalently bind to carrier proteins -> Recognized as foreign by antigen processing cells -> Immunogenic drug portion processed by APCs -> Presented on MHC molecules for recognition by T cells
Which of the following is the correct pathway for the p-i concept?
Drugs bind initially to the T cell receptor -> Signal T cell activation -> Initiation of delayed T-cell mediated reactions
Which of the following is NOT a newly formed mediator of allergic reactions?
Histamine
Which of the following is NOT a soluble mediator of the adaptive immune response?
IgD
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Type 1 Diabetes?
Nausea
What is the main cause of insulin resistance in Type 2 Diabetes?
Visceral obesity
What percentage of Americans with diabetes have Type 2 Diabetes?
90%
Which of the following is NOT a sign of Type 2 Diabetes?
Increased thirst
What are the common complications associated with Type 2 Diabetes?
Hypertension, dyslipidemia, atherosclerosis
What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 Diabetes?
Age, genes, obesity, past history of gestational diabetes
Which of the following is a characteristic of Type 1 Diabetes?
It is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
What is the most common form of Type 1 Diabetes?
Immune mediated Type 1 diabetes
What are the symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes?
Polyuria, polydipsia, rapid weight loss, ketonuria
What is the treatment for Type 1 Diabetes?
Healthy (eucaloric) diet and insulin
What are the risk factors for Type 1 Diabetes?
Autoimmune, genetic, or environmental factors
What is the primary cause of Type 1 Diabetes?
Destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Which of the following is a symptom of peripheral neuropathy?
Burning or stabbing pain in the feet
What is the initial phase of fibrosis in the kidneys in diabetic nephropathy?
Diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane
What is the term used to describe the leakage of small amounts of albumin from the blood into the urine in the initial phases of diabetic nephropathy?
Microalbuminuria
Which of the following is a waste product used to indicate the levels of kidney damage in diabetic nephropathy?
Creatinine
How long does it usually take for kidney failure to occur in people who have lived with diabetes for more than 25 years without any signs of kidney failure?
It usually takes 15 to 25 years for kidney failure to occur
What is the risk of developing kidney failure for people who have lived with diabetes for more than 25 years without any signs of kidney failure?
The risk of developing kidney failure decreases
Which of the following is a criteria for diagnosing diabetes based on fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level?
FPG ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L)
Which of the following is a criteria for diagnosing diabetes based on 2-hour postprandial plasma glucose (PG) level during oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)?
PG ≥200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L)
What is the target A1C level recommended by the American Diabetes Association (ADA)?
A1C <7.0%
What is the main function of the insulin receptor?
To bind to insulin
Which of the following is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness?
Diabetic retinopathy
What is the primary source of glucose in the body?
Dietary intake
Which of the following is a major complication associated with diabetes mellitus?
Retinopathy
What are the two major types of diabetes mellitus?
Type 1 and Type 2
What is the recommended diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus in non-pregnant adults?
Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level of ≥ 6.5%
What is the term used to describe the chronic high blood sugar levels in diabetes mellitus?
Hyperglycemia
What are the major organs that can be affected by the chronic hyperglycemia of diabetes mellitus?
Eyes and kidneys
Why were the terms 'insulin-dependent diabetes' and 'non-insulin-dependent diabetes' eliminated?
They were based on pharmacologic considerations
Which drug decreases hepatic glucose production and enhances insulin sensitivity?
Metformin
Which drug reduces plasma glucose by preventing kidneys from reabsorbing glucose back to the blood stream leading to increased glucose excretion?
SGLT-2 inhibitors
Which drug stimulates insulin secretion and suppresses high postprandial (after meal) glucagon secretion, decreasing hepatic glucose output?
GLP-1 receptor agonist
Which drug prolongs the half-life of endogenously produced GLP-1 and GIP, thereby increasing glucose-dependent insulin secretion from the pancreas?
DPP-4 inhibitor
Which drug enhances insulin sensitivity in muscle, liver, and fat tissues by binding to peroxisome proliferation activated receptor gamma primarily located on fat and vascular cells?
TZDs
Which drug enhances insulin secretion by binding to the SUR1 receptor on pancreatic beta cells?
Sulfonylureas
What is the site for metformin?
Liver
What is the site for dapagliflozin or empagliflozin?
Kidneys
What is the site for dulaglutide or liraglutide?
Pancreas
What is the site for linagliptin and sitagliptin?
Pancreas
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for thiazolidinediones (TZDs)?
Bind to PPAR G located primarily on fat and vascular cells, enhancing insulin sensitivity in muscle, liver, and fat tissues
What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?
Enhance insulin secretion by binding the sulfonylurea receptor on pancreatic Beta cells
What are some adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of metformin?
GI side effects, B12 lowering, and lactic acidosis
What are some adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of SGLT-2 inhibitors?
Mycotic infections, UTI, polyuria, dehydration, dizziness, hypotension
What are some adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of GLP-1 agonists?
Nausea/Vomiting, Diarrhea, Hypoglycemia when combined with sulfonylurea or insulin
What are some adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of DPP-4 inhibitors?
Stuffy runny nose, headache, URI, increasing hospitalization risks in patients with heart failure
What are some adverse effects of thiazolidinediones (TZDs)?
Fluid retention, weight gain
What are some adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of sulfonylureas?
Hypoglycemia
Which of the following is an adverse drug reaction (ADR) of metformin?
B12 lowering
Which of the following is an adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors?
Dehydration
Which of the following factors is likely the primary determinant of obesity?
Genetics
Which of the following hormones increases appetite?
Ghrelin
Which region of the brain has been referred to as the hunger center?
Lateral hypothalamus
Which of the following hormones is responsible for appetite suppression?
GLP-1
What is the largest determinate of energy expenditure in an individual?
Metabolic rate
When does the basal metabolic rate (BMR) occur?
4 hours after a meal
What is the equation for calculating BMI (Body Mass Index)?
BMI = weight (kg)/square of the height (m^2)
Test your knowledge of hypertension and blood pressure with this quiz. Learn about the different stages of hypertension and how to define elevated blood pressure. Discover the equation for calculating blood pressure and understand the meaning of systolic blood pressure. Challenge yourself with this informative quiz!
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