First Medical Aid
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary goal of first aid, as defined in the provided material?

  • To diagnose the underlying medical condition of the victim.
  • To stabilize and save a person in a sudden health crisis. (correct)
  • To provide definitive medical treatment to individuals.
  • To replace professional medical services at all times.
  • What is the correct sequence of actions after confirming a person is unresponsive?

  • Call 112, check response, open airway, check breathing.
  • Check breathing, call for help, open airway, begin chest compressions.
  • Shout for help, check response, open airway, call 112.
  • Open airway, check breathing, call 112, begin chest compressions. (correct)
  • What is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths in CPR, as mentioned?

  • 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths. (correct)
  • 20 chest compressions to 1 rescue breath.
  • 5 chest compressions to 1 rescue breath.
  • 15 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths.
  • In the context of the 'chain of survival', what is the significance of bystander CPR?

    <p>It is a crucial intervention before the arrival of emergency services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the provided information, what is the potential survival rate if early resuscitation and defibrillation are provided promptly?

    <p>Greater than 60% survival.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended rate for chest compressions during CPR?

    <p>100-120 per minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct depth of chest compressions for an adult during CPR?

    <p>5-6 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When performing rescue breaths, how long should each breath last?

    <p>1 second</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action to take immediately after checking that the scene is safe?

    <p>Check response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should you do if you observe abnormal breathing shortly after the heart stops?

    <p>Recognize it as a sign of cardiac arrest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should you consider changing the CPR operator?

    <p>Every 2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When using an AED, what should you do while the device is analyzing rhythm?

    <p>Stand clear and do not touch the victim</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended compression depth for children during CPR?

    <p>At least 1/3 of the depth of the chest</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct first step when using an AED?

    <p>Switch on the AED</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should you do if a victim starts to breathe normally after CPR?

    <p>Place them in the recovery position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended ventilation rate for an adult using a BVM?

    <p>10-12 breaths per minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation should active oxygen therapy with a self-inflating bag be used?

    <p>When the patient is not breathing, or when their breathing rate is below 10 or above 30 breaths per minute.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended oxygen flow rate when providing oxygen therapy?

    <p>12-15 liters per minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An oxygen cylinder contains 150 atm of pressure and has a capacity of 3 liters. If the oxygen is being administered at a rate of 10 liters per minute, how long will the oxygen last?

    <p>45 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of oxygen administration involves the patient breathing independently through a mask with a reservoir?

    <p>Passive oxygen therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Following examination of the neck, what specific action should be taken?

    <p>Immobilize the cervical spine with a collar.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a rapid trauma assessment of a patient's chest, which finding would be MOST concerning?

    <p>Paradoxical chest movements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assessing the belly in a rapid trauma assessment, what are key things to evaluate?

    <p>Whether the belly is soft or hard, any visible wounds, and any pain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the 'Load and Go' transport decision?

    <p>The patient requires immediate transport to the hospital due to serious injuries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During examination of a patient's extremities, what finding would indicate a potential injury requiring specific attention?

    <p>Pathological mobility, pain, or crackling.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When performing a modified jaw thrust, the rescuer should use which maneuver?

    <p>Esmarch maneuver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What breathing rate in an adult would be classified as bradypnea?

    <p>Less than 10 breaths per minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is breathing at 8 breaths per minute. What immediate action should the rescuer take?

    <p>Provide respiratory support with BVM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When checking for a pulse, what additional assessments should be made?

    <p>Assess skin color, temperature and capillary refill</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pulse rate in an adult is considered to be tachycardia?

    <p>120 beats per minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario should a rapid trauma assessment be performed?

    <p>In the event of a fall from a height or when the victim is unconscious</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a rapid trauma assessment, what should be assessed specifically in the head and neck area?

    <p>Check for visible wounds, jugular vein filling, trachea position, and neck tenderness/distortion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an adult is breathing at 35 breaths per minute, what specific intervention is suggested?

    <p>Administration of high-flow oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'S' in the SAMPLE scheme refer to during a patient interview?

    <p>Symptoms the patient is experiencing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the purpose of the 'AVPU' scale?

    <p>To assess the patient's level of consciousness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it appropriate to use the head tilt and chin thrust method to open an airway?

    <p>When the patient is unconscious and a cervical spine injury is <em>not</em> suspected.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action to take when assessing the airway of an unconscious, non-speaking patient?

    <p>Open the airway by suctioning any contents from the mouth.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should the head tilt and chin thrust method be avoided when a cervical spine injury is suspected?

    <p>It can further damage the cervical spine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'A' of the ABC scheme stand for during the assessment of vital signs?

    <p>Airway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the patient's examination, which of the following constitutes the correct sequence?

    <p>Patient interview followed by physical examination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient does not respond to voice commands, but responds to pain, how is their consciousness state classified using the AVPU scale?

    <p>Pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest, according to the text?

    <p>Anaphylactic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with Septic shock?

    <p>Shortness of breath</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by a loss of contractile muscle tissue in the heart?

    <p>Infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of neurogenic shock?

    <p>Damage to the spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common symptom associated with both anaphylactic shock and neurogenic shock?

    <p>Hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of cardiac tamponade?

    <p>Filled jugular veins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of septic shock?

    <p>Bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions are characterized by breathing difficulties?

    <p>Anaphylactic shock and Septic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of shock at the cellular level?

    <p>Metabolic poisoning due to oxygen deficit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of shock is primarily associated with a significant decrease in vascular resistance?

    <p>Septic shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of shock does the body's compensatory mechanisms remain effective?

    <p>Early shock (compensated)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant symptom of metabolic acidosis caused by shock?

    <p>Cardiopulmonary collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What metabolic process is primarily shifted to during shock due to oxygen deficit?

    <p>Anaerobic metabolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT a non-specific symptom of shock?

    <p>Increased heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily causes hypovolemic shock?

    <p>Fluid loss through the kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor contributes to a decrease in blood pressure during shock?

    <p>Decreased circulatory blood volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a hallmark feature of cardiogenic shock?

    <p>Inadequate pumping efficiency of the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is likely to result from decreased blood flow through cerebral vessels?

    <p>Consciousness disorders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is typically associated with septic shock?

    <p>Increased body temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the body respond to perceived low oxygen concentration during shock?

    <p>Shallow and fast breathing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During shock, what is the physiological effect of sweating?

    <p>Reduced skin blood flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical brain injury associated with head trauma?

    <p>Spinal cord compression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom associated with a basilar skull fracture?

    <p>Bruising behind the ears and around the eyes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of diffuse axonal damage?

    <p>Extensive brain damage leading to cerebral edema and subarachnoid hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of a brain contusion, which of the following is a characteristic symptom?

    <p>Prolonged loss of consciousness and possible stroke symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement BEST describes the relationship between head trauma and cervical spine injury?

    <p>All patients with head and facial trauma should be considered to have a cervical spine injury until proven otherwise.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism that leads to a collapsed lung in open pneumothorax?

    <p>Air entering the pleural cavity and increasing the intrapleural pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the correct dressing for an open chest wound, according to the text?

    <p>A sterile piece of foil glued on three sides, a ventilated dressing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In tension pneumothorax, what is the primary reason for the impairment of the healthy lung?

    <p>Increased pressure in the pleural cavity from trapped air, which compresses the healthy lung.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic sign of a developing tension pneumothorax, but NOT massive hemothorax?

    <p>Tracheal displacement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In massive hemothorax, what causes the pleural cavity to fill with blood?

    <p>Damage to the intercostal vessels and lung tissue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a common symptom of a head injury?

    <p>Warm, pink skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference in the presentation of jugular veins between massive hemothorax and cardiac tamponade?

    <p>Jugular veins are collapsed in massive hemothorax and distended in cardiac tamponade.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bleeding is characterized by bleeding between the skull and the outer layer of the dura mater?

    <p>Epidural bleeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological process is most directly impaired by cardiac tamponade?

    <p>The filling of heart chambers during diastole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with symptoms including a midline trachea, filled jugular veins, and a pulse rate that diminishes during inhalation. These symptoms are most likely associated with which condition?

    <p>Cardiac tamponade</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A spinal cord injury that develops due to hypoxia or edema after the initial trauma is best described as:

    <p>Secondary spinal cord injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Excessive deflection, bending, compression, rotation, and stretching are all mechanisms of?

    <p>Blunt spinal injuries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a typical symptom that would indicate a possible spinal injury?

    <p>Radial pulse weakness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the best description of an open pneumothorax?

    <p>A chest wound that allows air to enter the pleural space</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient coughing up blood, having cyanosis, and tracheal displacement would most likely be suffering from which of the following?

    <p>Chest injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organs are located within the upper abdominal cavity?

    <p>Liver, gallbladder, spleen, stomach, and duodenum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of a chest injury?

    <p>Agitation and confusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is characteristic of a blunt abdominal injury?

    <p>Caused by crushing, leading to potential rupture of parenchymal or cavernous organs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for managing eviscerated organs in a gastroschisis injury?

    <p>Cover the organs with a moist, sterile, and impermeable dressing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organs are situated in the retroperitoneal space?

    <p>Kidneys, ureters, pancreas, abdominal aorta, and inferior vena cava.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical body position recommended for a patient with abdominal injuries?

    <p>Lying position, with legs bent at the hip and knee joints.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mortality rate range associated with blunt abdominal injuries?

    <p>10-30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of abdominal injury is most likely to result in extensive damage to internal organs?

    <p>Gunshot wounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the lower abdominal cavity located?

    <p>Below the rib arches.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial action to take if a patient experiencing a stroke stops breathing?

    <p>Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a symptom specifically associated with hyperglycemia, but not hypoglycemia?

    <p>Increased urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a seizure, what is the most appropriate immediate action to ensure the patient's safety?

    <p>Place something soft under the patient's head.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is specifically indicative of hypoglycemia?

    <p>Strong feeling of hunger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the immediate priority when observing a patient with dyspnea?

    <p>Monitor vital signs until help arrives.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assisting an adult who is choking but still able to cough, what is the most appropriate action to take?

    <p>Encourage them to continue coughing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a choking infant becomes limp and unconscious, what modification to the standard choking procedure should be made?

    <p>Immediately begin resuscitation with modified chest compression steps.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which combination of symptoms is MOST indicative of a fainting episode?

    <p>Pale, cold skin, rapid breathing, and short-term loss of consciousness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MOST immediate action to take when encountering a person who has fainted?

    <p>Place them safely on the ground and lift their legs up.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing severe, radiating chest pain, shortness of breath, and a fear of death. What condition should be the primary concern?

    <p>Myocardial Infarction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key step in providing immediate care for a person suffering from a suspected myocardial infarction, aside from monitoring vital signs?

    <p>Immobilize in a sitting position and provide fresh air.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a cause for chest pain, but is NOT an immediate life threatening emergency?

    <p>Muscle pain.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a known heart condition has chest pain, shortness of breath and other symptoms indicative of a heart attack. Besides basic first aid, what immediate additional actions can be taken if specific items are available?

    <p>Assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin and giving aspirin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    First Medical Aid with Nursing Elements

    • This presentation covers first aid and basic life support (BLS) with automated external defibrillation (AED).
    • First aid is a set of actions taken to help someone in sudden health crisis, performed by bystanders, including using public medical supplies and drugs.

    Objectives

    • Participants should demonstrate how to assess a collapsed victim post-cardiac arrest.
    • Participants should demonstrate how to perform chest compressions and rescue breathing (CPR).
    • Participants should be able to properly use an AED.
    • Participants must know how to position an unconscious breathing victim in the recovery position.

    Background

    • In Europe, a cardiac arrest happens approximately every 45 seconds.
    • Bystander CPR is essential before emergency services arrive.
    • Early resuscitation and defibrillation within 1 to 2 minutes can lead to a >60% survival rate.

    Chain of Survival

    • Early recognition and calling for help is crucial to prevent cardiac arrest.
    • Early CPR buys time before emergency services arrive.
    • Early defibrillation is essential to restart the heart.
    • Post-resuscitation care aims to restore the quality of life.

    Approach Safely

    • Check for response by shaking shoulders and asking, "Are you okay?".
    • Shout for help.
    • Open the airway: Tilt the head backward.
    • Check for breathing (look, listen, and feel); note that abnormal breathing is a sign of possible cardiac arrest.
    • Call 112 or emergency services.
    • Perform 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths.

    CPR in Children

    • Adult CPR techniques can be applied to children.
    • Chest compressions should be at least one-third of the chest depth.

    AED in Children

    • AEDs are appropriate for use in children over 8 years old.
    • For children between 1 and 8 years old, use pediatric pads and settings; otherwise, use adult mode.
    • Use an AED in children under 1 year only if manufacturer instructions indicate suitability.

    Defibrillation

    • Turn on AED when opening the lid. Some AEDs automatically switch on.
    • Apply pads to the victim's bare chest.
    • Analyze the heart rhythm.
    • If indicated, deliver the shock.
    • Follow all AED prompts and instructions.
    • If the AED advises no shock needed, follow the device's guidance.

    Handling Various Heart Rhythms

    • Assess heart rhythm using AED.

    • Follow directives from the device.

    • For no shock advised, follow the device's guidance.

    • If the victim starts breathing normally, place in the recovery position.

    • Common heart rhythms include Ventricular fibrillation, Ventricular tachycardia, Asystole, and Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA). These rhythms are illustrated in the provided notes.

    • Note: Accurate and thorough illustrations for all steps are critical.

    • Illustrations and procedures are included in the provided pages. Importantly, there is a suggested procedure for a 'load and go' approach vs. a 'stay and play' strategy when deciding on immediate transport versus continued assessment and treatment on-site. A summary of these approaches follows:

    • Load and go: Immediate transport is prioritized in cases of severe injury.

    • Stay and play: A patient that can benefit from continued monitoring and treatment prior to transport.

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    Description

    This quiz focuses on essential first aid techniques and basic life support (BLS) procedures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator (AED). Participants will learn how to assess a victim, perform CPR, and position an unconscious breathing victim. Understanding these skills is critical for timely intervention in emergencies.

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