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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of RNA polymerase II in transcription?

  • To process messenger RNA after synthesis
  • To bind to ribosomes in the cytoplasm
  • To synthesize proteins from mRNA
  • To synthesize complementary RNA from a DNA template (correct)
  • What is the end product of transcription?

  • DNA
  • Proteins
  • Messenger RNA (mRNA) (correct)
  • Polypeptides
  • In the process of translation, which molecule carries the genetic information from mRNA to the ribosome?

  • DNA
  • Messenger RNA (mRNA)
  • Transfer RNA (tRNA) (correct)
  • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  • Which molecule is NOT required for the transcription process?

    <p>Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the coding strand of DNA relate to the newly synthesized RNA strand?

    <p>It is identical, with thymine replaced by uracil (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the promoter region in gene transcription?

    <p>To determine the template strand for transcription. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element of the core promoter is recognized by the TATA-binding protein (TBP)?

    <p>TATA box (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the downstream promoter element (DPE) located in relation to the transcription start site?

    <p>28-32 nucleotides downstream (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor recognizes the B recognition element (BRE)?

    <p>Transcription factor TFIIB (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the TATA box?

    <p>It is the first identified eukaryotic core promoter motif. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the 5' cap added to mRNA during processing?

    <p>Increases the stability of the mRNA strand against degradation (B), Promotes binding of ribosomes for translation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for adding the poly(A) tail to the newly synthesized mRNA?

    <p>Poly A polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sequence typically signals the end of transcription for mRNA?

    <p>AUAAA sequence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the function of the methyl groups added during the capping of 5' mRNA?

    <p>Facilitate the inverted orientation of guanosine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total approximate length of the poly(A) tail added to mRNA?

    <p>200-250 adenosine residues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are exons primarily responsible for?

    <p>Contributing to the mature RNA product (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sequences are found at the exon-intron boundaries?

    <p>Conserved 5’ splice site sequences (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which role do exonic splicing enhancers (ESE) perform in RNA splicing?

    <p>They help recruit small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of human inherited diseases is estimated to arise from splicing errors?

    <p>Approx. 15-30% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components are included in small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (snRNPs)?

    <p>Small nuclear RNAs and associated proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure serves as a gateway across the nuclear envelope for RNAs and proteins?

    <p>Nuclear Pore Complex (NPC) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following signals indicates that a protein should be transported into the nucleus?

    <p>Nuclear Localization Signal (NLS) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of macromolecules does the hydrophobic mesh formed by FG domains in nucleoporins block?

    <p>Large macromolecules (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which proteins are responsible for ferrying proteins across the nuclear envelope?

    <p>Importins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which proteins are exclusively engaged in the export of mature mRNAs from the nucleus?

    <p>Nxf1 and Nxt1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily determines the transcriptional state of myofibers and skin fibroblasts?

    <p>Expression of certain genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which category of transcription factors binds specifically to regulatory sites of a particular gene?

    <p>Sequence-specific transcription factors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of zinc fingers in transcription factors?

    <p>They bind to specific sequences in the major groove of DNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the activation domain in a transcription factor?

    <p>To promote interactions with other proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature of transcription factors allows them to regulate multiple genes?

    <p>Their binding to various regulatory sites (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a score of 1 point signify in the context of treatment efficacy discussion?

    <p>Minimal information on treatment options without details on limitations or side effects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario describes a score of 3 points?

    <p>The student acknowledged the treatment options but lacked depth in side effects coverage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for a score of 4 points regarding limitations and side effects?

    <p>A complete discussion including limitations, side effects, and efficacy of the treatment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which additional factor is suggested to be relevant in evaluating treatments?

    <p>Age or gender-related factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by references not being from within the last 10 years?

    <p>References are outdated and may not reflect current knowledge. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'semi-conservative replication' refer to in DNA replication?

    <p>Each daughter DNA molecule consists of one original and one new strand. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur in eukaryotic cells?

    <p>S Phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are replicons in the context of eukaryotic DNA replication?

    <p>Small portions of the eukaryotic genome replicated simultaneously. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the replication fork during DNA replication?

    <p>It serves as a site for nucleotide incorporation into new strands. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many different origins of replication are estimated to be in human cells?

    <p>10,000-100,000 origins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the direction in which new DNA strands are synthesized during replication?

    <p>5' → 3' (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are Okazaki fragments?

    <p>Small DNA fragments synthesized away from the replication fork (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA during replication in prokaryotes?

    <p>DnaB helicase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do licensing factors play in eukaryotic DNA replication?

    <p>They recruit helicase to the origin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism reduces mismatch errors during DNA replication?

    <p>The action of RNA primers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of genetic mutation involves a permanent change in the DNA sequence but does not change the overall protein function?

    <p>Silent mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What genetic alteration is characterized by the presence of extra copies of a whole chromosome?

    <p>Nondisjunction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene is commonly associated with repeat expansion mutations leading to Huntington's Disease?

    <p>HTT (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for genetic mutations that arise in germ cells and can be passed to offspring?

    <p>Hereditary mutations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a frameshift mutation?

    <p>An insertion or deletion of DNA that shifts the entire reading frame (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mutation occurs during germline development or immediately after fertilization?

    <p>De novo mutation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do homozygous genotypes consist of?

    <p>Two identical alleles of a gene (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an autosomal dominant disorder, what is the likelihood of an affected child if one parent is affected?

    <p>50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an incorrect characteristic of recessive alleles?

    <p>They can mask dominant alleles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is true regarding autosomal dominant disorders?

    <p>They affect males and females equally. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural feature is characteristic of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)?

    <p>7 transmembrane helical domains (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is responsible for activating the G protein upon ligand binding to a GPCR?

    <p>GTP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the effector protein in GPCR signaling?

    <p>To activate second messengers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component involved in the GPCR signaling pathway?

    <p>Hydrophobic inhibitors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the Gα subunit of a G protein after GTP is bound?

    <p>It dissociates from the Gβγ complex and activates an effector (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of receptor protein-tyrosine kinases (RTKs) in cellular signaling?

    <p>They induce phosphorylation of intracellular proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acids are primarily involved in the phosphorylation process discussed in cell signaling?

    <p>Serine, threonine, tyrosine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect can protein phosphorylation have on cellular behavior?

    <p>Trigger protein degradation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function related to protein phosphorylation?

    <p>Store genetic information. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can differential phospho patterns between cell types indicate?

    <p>Potential differences in cancer treatment decisions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which second messenger is primarily associated with the Gq signaling pathway?

    <p>IP3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the transcription factor CREB in the context of cAMP signaling?

    <p>It promotes the transcription of cAMP-sensitive genes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of receptor primarily engages in signal transduction involving IP3 and DAG?

    <p>G Protein-Coupled Receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does the Gs protein have on adenylyl cyclase activity?

    <p>It activates adenylyl cyclase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathways is primarily linked to excessive cell proliferation and malignancies?

    <p>G12/13 signaling pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of light on cGMP levels in rod cells?

    <p>cGMP levels decrease, causing hyperpolarization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which effector enzyme is associated with the Gαt protein in the signaling pathway of vision?

    <p>cGMP phosphodiesterase (PDE) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of mutations in the RGS9 gene for visual perception?

    <p>Slower increase in cGMP levels, impairing adaptability to light changes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do phospholipid phosphatases play in cell signaling?

    <p>They dephosphorylate phospholipids, affecting the levels of second messengers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which secondary messenger is generated from the cleavage of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2)?

    <p>Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) (A), Diacylglycerol (DAG) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of receptor is NOT included in the classification of cell signaling receptors?

    <p>Transcription factors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the end product after ATP is converted in a G-protein coupled receptor pathway involving glucagon?

    <p>cAMP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molecule is activated as a part of the intracellular signaling pathway when a ligand binds to a G-protein coupled receptor?

    <p>Adenylyl cyclase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is responsible for releasing Ca2+ from intracellular stores in G-protein coupled pathways?

    <p>IP3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does DAG primarily activate in a G-protein coupled receptor signaling pathway?

    <p>Protein Kinase C (PKC) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one function of second messengers in cell signaling?

    <p>They activate/inactivate target proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which receptor type involves a dimerization process upon ligand binding?

    <p>Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases (RTKs) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following examples is a ligand for receptor protein-tyrosine kinases?

    <p>Epidermal Growth Factor (EGF) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of receptor protein-tyrosine kinases?

    <p>They consist of a single transmembrane domain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of receptor plays a significant role in the immune response by generating diversity?

    <p>B- and T-cell receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Transcription

    The process of synthesizing complementary RNA from a DNA template in the nucleus.

    Translation

    The process of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm, using information encoded by mRNA.

    RNA Polymerase

    An enzyme that binds to DNA, initiates transcription at a specific site (promoter), and synthesizes RNA.

    mRNA (messenger RNA)

    The RNA molecule that carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

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    Central Dogma

    The fundamental concept in molecular biology that describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.

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    Core Promoter

    Region of a gene containing key elements like the TATA box, crucial for general transcription factor binding and RNA polymerase activity.

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    TATA box (element)

    A specific DNA sequence (TATAWAWR) that plays a role in the binding of transcription factor TBP to the DNA for transcription initiation.

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    Initiator Element (INR)

    A DNA sequence (YYANWYY) overlapping the start site of transcription crucial for RNA pol II. Recognized by TAFs.

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    Proximal Promoter Elements

    Regions near the start of transcription (close by) that binding sites of transcription factors regulating gene expression timing and level

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    Transcription Start Site (TSS)

    The exact location where the RNA polymerase begins building an mRNA strand from a DNA template

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    mRNA factory

    A complex of proteins and enzymes that travels with RNA polymerase during transcription, processing mRNA as it is being synthesized.

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    5' cap

    A protective structure added to the 5' end of mRNA, consisting of a guanine nucleotide linked to the mRNA in an unusual 5'-5' triphosphate bridge, with methyl groups added to the guanine and adjacent nucleotides.

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    Poly(A) tail

    A long string of adenine nucleotides added to the 3' end of mRNA, providing protection from degradation by exonucleases and aiding in nuclear export.

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    What role do the phosphorylation states of CTD play?

    Phosphorylation of the CTD (C-terminal domain) of RNA polymerase, especially by TFIIH and P-TEFb, recruits specific enzymes responsible for processing mRNA, like capping enzymes and poly(A) polymerase.

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    RNA splicing

    The process of removing non-coding sequences (introns) from pre-mRNA and joining the coding sequences (exons) together to form a mature mRNA molecule.

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    What are introns?

    Introns are non-coding sequences within a gene that are removed during RNA processing. They are not included in the mature RNA product, which is used for protein synthesis.

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    What are exons?

    Exons are coding regions within a gene that are retained in the mature RNA product. They contribute to the final protein sequence.

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    What are splice sites?

    Splice sites are specific sequences at the boundaries between introns and exons that signal where to cut and join the RNA during splicing.

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    What are snRNPs?

    Small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (snRNPs) are complexes of small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) and proteins that are involved in RNA splicing.

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    Exonic splicing enhancer (ESE)

    Exonic splicing enhancers are sequences within exons that help recruit snRNPs to ensure proper splicing.

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    Nuclear Pore Complex

    A large protein complex embedded in the nuclear envelope that acts as a gateway for the transport of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm.

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    Nucleoporins

    Proteins that make up the Nuclear Pore Complex (NPC).

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    FG Domain

    A specific protein domain rich in phenylalanine (F) and glycine (G) amino acids, found in nucleoporins lining the central channel of the NPC.

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    NLS

    Nuclear Localization Signal; a short sequence of amino acids on a protein that targets it for import into the nucleus.

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    NES

    Nuclear Export Signal; a short sequence of amino acids on a protein that targets it for export out of the nucleus.

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    Transcription Factors (TFs)

    Proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences to regulate gene transcription; they can either activate or repress gene expression.

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    DNA-binding Domain

    A part of a transcription factor that directly binds to specific DNA sequences, recognizing and interacting with specific nucleotide base pairs.

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    Activation Domain

    A region in a transcription factor that interacts with other proteins, like co-activators, to enhance the rate of transcription.

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    Dimerization Domain

    A domain that allows transcription factors to form dimers (pairs of identical or similar proteins) which can increase their binding affinity to DNA and regulate transcription more effectively.

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    Zinc Finger

    A common DNA-binding motif in transcription factors, characterized by a structure where a zinc ion coordinates with amino acids to form a finger-like projection.

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    Write-up Style Score

    A score assigned to the overall quality of an assignment, considering factors like organization, clarity, and writing style.

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    Organizational Issues

    Problems with the way an assignment is structured, making it difficult to understand or follow.

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    Spelling Errors

    Mistakes in the spelling of words in an assignment.

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    Reference Section

    A dedicated part of an academic paper where all sources used are listed in a standardized format.

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    References Too Old?

    A problem where the sources used in a paper are not recent enough, potentially indicating outdated information.

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    Treatment Efficacy

    How well a treatment works in achieving its desired outcome. This involves considering the effectiveness of the treatment in addressing the specific condition or symptoms.

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    Treatment Limitations

    Factors that restrict the effectiveness or applicability of a treatment. These can include constraints like age, gender, underlying health conditions, or potential side effects.

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    Treatment Side Effects

    Unintended consequences or adverse reactions that may occur as a result of a treatment. These can range from mild to severe and are important to consider when evaluating the overall risk-benefit profile of a treatment.

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    Evaluating Treatment Effectiveness

    Assessing the overall effectiveness of a treatment by considering not only its positive outcomes but also its limitations and any potential side effects. This involves weighing the benefits against the risks.

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    Age/Gender Relevance

    How age or gender can influence the effectiveness and appropriateness of a particular treatment. Certain treatments might be more suitable or have different outcomes depending on the individual's age or biological sex.

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    Semi-Conservative Replication

    A method of DNA replication where each new DNA molecule has one original strand (from the parent molecule) and one newly synthesized strand.

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    Replication Fork

    The Y-shaped region where parental DNA strands are separated and new strands are synthesized during DNA replication.

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    What are Replicons?

    Small portions of the eukaryotic genome that are replicated independently, enabling efficient replication of the large DNA molecule.

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    Replication Foci

    Localized regions within the nucleus where multiple replicons are actively engaged in DNA replication.

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    DNA Polymerase Holoenzyme

    A complex of proteins, including DNA Polymerase III, that carries out DNA synthesis during replication.

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    Leading Strand

    The new DNA strand synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, following the movement of the replication fork.

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    Lagging Strand

    The new DNA strand synthesized discontinuously in fragments (Okazaki fragments) in the 5' to 3' direction, moving away from the replication fork.

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    Okazaki Fragments

    Short DNA segments synthesized on the lagging strand, requiring an RNA primer for each fragment.

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    What is the role of RNA primer?

    RNA primer provides a starting point for DNA polymerase to extend new DNA strands, as it cannot initiate synthesis on its own.

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    DNA Helicase

    The enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between the strands using ATP.

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    Point Mutation

    A change in a single nucleotide within a DNA sequence.

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    Frameshift Mutation

    An insertion or deletion of nucleotides that shifts the reading frame of a gene, changing the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein.

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    Copy Number Variation (CNV)

    A change in the number of copies of a DNA sequence.

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    Repeat Expansion

    An increase in the number of copies of a short DNA sequence, often causing genetic disorders.

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    Nondisjunction

    An error in cell division where chromosomes fail to separate properly, leading to abnormal chromosome numbers in daughter cells.

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    De novo mutations

    Genetic changes that occur spontaneously during germline development (egg or sperm) or right after fertilization in a single cell. This results in the child having the mutation present in every cell of their body, but without family history of the disorder.

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    Somatic mutations

    Genetic alterations that occur in a single cell of the body after fertilization, affecting only the cells descended from that original mutated cell. They are NOT inherited.

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    Autosomal dominant inheritance

    A pattern of inheritance where only one copy of a mutated gene is needed for an individual to develop a disease. Affected individuals have a 50% chance of passing on the mutation to their offspring.

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    Homozygous

    Having two identical alleles for a particular gene. Can be homozygous dominant (BB) or homozygous recessive (bb).

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    Heterozygous

    Having two different alleles for a particular gene (Bb).

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    What is signal transduction?

    The process by which cells receive and respond to signals from their environment. This involves a chain of events where one molecule activates another, ultimately leading to a cellular response.

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    What role do kinases and phosphatases play in signal transduction?

    Kinases add phosphate groups (phosphorylation) to proteins, while phosphatases remove them (dephosphorylation). These changes can activate or inactivate proteins, controlling their function.

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    What are GPCRs?

    G-protein coupled receptors are transmembrane proteins that bind to signaling molecules outside the cell. This binding activates an intracellular G-protein, which then triggers further signaling events.

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    What are RTKs?

    Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane proteins that have enzymatic activity. Binding of signaling molecules causes the receptor to dimerize and activate its kinase domain, leading to phosphorylation of other proteins.

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    How can phosphorylation affect protein behavior?

    Phosphorylation can alter protein activity by activating or inhibiting enzymes, modifying protein-protein interactions, changing a protein's location within the cell, or triggering protein degradation.

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    What are G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)?

    GPCRs are a large and diverse family of membrane proteins that bind to a wide range of signaling molecules, triggering intracellular signaling cascades.

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    What are the 3 subunits of a G protein?

    G proteins consist of three subunits: alpha (α), beta (β), and gamma (γ). They are inactive when bound to GDP and become activated when GDP is exchanged for GTP.

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    How do GPCRs activate effector proteins?

    Ligand binding to the GPCR triggers a conformational change, leading to the activation of the G protein. The activated Gα subunit then interacts with and activates an effector protein, like adenylyl cyclase.

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    What are some examples of ligands that bind to GPCRs?

    GPCRs bind to various ligands, including small molecules like hormones (epinephrine, dopamine), neurotransmitters (acetylcholine), and gases (NO, CO), as well as steroids and lipid messengers.

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    What are the key steps in GPCR-mediated signal transduction?

    1. Ligand binds to the GPCR, causing a conformational change. 2. This change allows G protein to bind to the receptor. 3. Gα exchanges GDP for GTP, becoming activated. 4. Activated Gα dissociates from Gßγ and binds to an effector protein. 5. Effector protein activity changes, triggering downstream cellular responses.
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    What are second messengers?

    Small molecules that relay signals inside cells. They are generated by effector enzymes in response to an external signal and activate/deactivate target proteins.

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    What is the role of G proteins in signal transduction?

    G proteins are proteins that act as molecular switches. They are activated by GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) and can activate different effector enzymes, leading to diverse cellular responses.

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    What are the 3 subtypes of G proteins?

    Gs, Gi, and Gq. Gs activates adenylyl cyclase, increasing cAMP levels. Gi inhibits adenylyl cyclase, reducing cAMP levels. Gq activates phospholipase C, producing IP3 and DAG.

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    IP3 and DAG

    Second messengers produced by the activation of phospholipase C (PLC) via Gq proteins. IP3 triggers calcium release from intracellular stores, while DAG activates protein kinase C (PKC).

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    How does cAMP affect gene transcription?

    Increased cAMP levels activate protein kinase A (PKA). PKA can phosphorylate CREB (cAMP response element-binding protein), a transcription factor. Phosphorylated CREB binds to DNA, activating gene transcription.

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    What are examples of ligands that bind to GPCRs?

    GPCRs bind to various ligands including hormones (epinephrine, dopamine), neurotransmitters (acetylcholine), and gases (NO, CO), as well as steroids and lipid messengers.

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    Signal Transduction

    The process by which cells communicate with each other and their environment, receiving and responding to signals.

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    Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs)

    Transmembrane proteins that act as signal receptors. They become activated when signaling molecules bind to them, triggering a cascade of phosphorylation events.

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    Mitogen-Activated Protein Kinases (MAPKs)

    A family of protein kinases involved in signal transduction pathways. They play a role in regulating cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation.

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    How do RTKs activate MAPKs?

    Ligands bind to RTKs causing them to dimerize and activate their kinase activity. This initiates a phosphorylation cascade ultimately leading to the activation of MAPKs.

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    What are the roles of MAPKs in disease?

    Dysregulation of MAPK pathways can contribute to diseases like cancer, inflammation, and cardiovascular diseases. These pathways can be hijacked by cancer cells to promote abnormal growth.

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    Ligand-mediated dimerization

    When one signal molecule (ligand) binds to two receptor proteins at the same time, causing them to associate and form a dimer.

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    Receptor-mediated dimerization

    When two different signal molecules (ligands) bind to two separate receptor proteins, causing them to associate and form a dimer.

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    What are common RTK ligands?

    Insulin, VEGF, PDGF, EGF, and FGF are common ligands that bind to RTKs, initiating various signaling pathways.

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    What is the role of RTK in Human Health?

    RTKs play a crucial role in cell growth, division, and survival. Dysfunction in RTK signaling can lead to diseases like cancer, particularly breast cancers that test positive for HER2.

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    Study Notes

    Eukaryotic Gene Transcription and Translation

    • Eukaryotic gene transcription and translation are the processes by which genetic information is used to synthesize proteins in eukaryotic organisms.
    • Transcription is the process where a DNA sequence is copied into a complementary RNA sequence
    • Translation is the process where the RNA sequence is used to synthesize a protein.
    • The process of transcription and translation are vital for the production of proteins necessary for cellular functions.

    Molecular Mechanisms of Disease: Cellular Components

    • The diagram depicts a eukaryotic cell, highlighting various cellular components.
    • Cytoskeleton: Microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microvilli, centrosome (pericentriolar material, centrioles)
    • Nucleus: Chromatin, nuclear pore, nuclear envelope, nucleolus, glycogen granules
    • Endoplasmic reticulum (ER): Rough ER, smooth ER
    • Golgi complex
    • Plasma membrane
    • Mitochondria
    • Lysosomes
    • Proteasomes
    • Ribosomes (free and attached to rough ER)
    • Secretory vesicles

    Transcription

    • Involves the synthesis of complementary RNA from a DNA template in the nucleus.
    • Starting material: DNA
    • Required machinery: RNA polymerase II, transcription factors.
    • End product: messenger RNA (mRNA) after processing.

    Translation

    • Involves the synthesis of proteins in the cytoplasm using information encoded by mRNA.
    • Starting material: mRNA
    • Required machinery: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and ribosomal protein, transfer RNA (tRNAs)
    • End product: polypeptide
    • The Central Dogma involves transcription of DNA to RNA and then translation of RNA to proteins

    Transcription: Sense and Antisense DNA

    • The coding strand's sequence is identical to the newly synthesized RNA strand.
    • The template strand (antisense) is complementary to the newly synthesized RNA.
    • Thymine (T) in DNA is replaced by uracil (U) in RNA.
    • RNA is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
    • The 3′ to 5′ DNA strand is used as the template for transcription.

    Transcription: Transcription Units and Genes

    • Transcription units encode one or more genes.
    • Both strands of DNA generally encode genes (in opposite directions).
    • A prokaryotic transcription unit typically codes for multiple proteins.
    • Eukaryotic transcription units typically code for a single protein gene.

    Transcription: Eukaryotic RNA Polymerases

    • Eukaryotes use three different RNA polymerases to transcribe the different types of RNA.
    • RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA.
    • RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNA.
    • RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA.

    Transcription: The Core Promoter

    • Site on DNA where RNA polymerase binds prior to transcription initiation.
    • Specifies which strand of DNA should serve as template.
    • Composed of core promoter elements, located in close proximity to the transcription start site (+1).

    Eukaryotic Core Promoter Elements

    • TATA box, BRE, Inr, DPE, initiator elements

    Transcription: Enhancer Regions

    • Enhancer regions are located some distance upstream of the transcription start site.
    • Enhancers bind transcription factors and affect gene expression rate.
    • Enhancers can affect gene expression both positively (increase) and negatively (decrease).

    Eukaryotic Transcription: Initiation

    • The preinitiation complex (PIC) forms at the core promoter.
    • General transcription factors (GTFs) assemble at the promoter, and help position RNA polymerase.
    • Transcription initiation begins when the RNA polymerase II complex unwinds the DNA and initiates RNA synthesis after phosphorylation of CTD.

    Eukaryotic Transcription: Elongation

    • RNA polymerase continues to slide along the DNA template synthesizing the mRNA.
    • Approximately 20-50 nucleotides are added per second.
    • Positive supercoiling in front, and negative supercoiling behind the RNA polymerase.

    Eukaryotic Transcription: Termination

    • In eukaryotes, transcription termination is less well-defined.
    • A Polyadenylation signal sequence (PAS) triggers mRNA cleavage and addition of a poly(A) tail (a string of adenine nucleotides).
    • Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes processing steps before translation begins.

    Transcription Factors

    • Proteins that regulate gene expression by binding to specific DNA sequences.
    • Examples are general transcription factors (GTFs) and specific transcription factors.

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    Description

    This quiz covers the essential processes of eukaryotic gene transcription and translation, including how DNA is transcribed into RNA and how RNA is translated into proteins. Understanding these mechanisms is crucial for grasping how proteins are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Additionally, it touches on the role of various cellular components in these processes.

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