Endometrial Carcinoma: Risk Factors & Diagnosis
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Which of the following is the MOST significant genetic risk factor associated with sporadic serous endometrial carcinoma?

  • MSH2/MLH1 mutations
  • PTEN mutations
  • BRCA1/2 mutations
  • TP53 mutations (correct)

A 70-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Endometrial biopsy reveals a non-endometrioid adenocarcinoma. Which of the following histological subtypes is associated with the POOREST prognosis?

  • Serous adenocarcinoma (correct)
  • Adenosquamous carcinoma
  • Mucinous adenocarcinoma
  • Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be associated with an increased risk of uterine sarcomas?

  • Tamoxifen use
  • Late menopause
  • History of HPV infection (correct)
  • Early menarche

A patient diagnosed with endometrial cancer is found to have malignant cells exfoliated into the peritoneal cavity. Through which anatomical structure did these cells MOST likely spread?

<p>Fallopian tubes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to endometrioid adenocarcinomas, non-endometrioid endometrial cancers are more likely to be associated with:

<p>Sporadic origins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding, painful intercourse, and pelvic pain. While these symptoms can indicate several conditions, which of the following is most directly suggested by this combination?

<p>Possible vulvar cancer, considering the pain and bleeding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the characteristics of trophoblastic disease, which treatment approach is most likely to be effective?

<p>Chemotherapy, given the disease's high chemosensitivity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Vulvar cancer, potentially associated with HPV, shares symptom overlap with other conditions. Aside from postmenopausal bleeding, which symptom would most strongly suggest the need to investigate for vulvar cancer specifically?

<p>Palpable mass. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician is evaluating a postmenopausal patient. Which factor would MOST heighten their suspicion for vulvar cancer over other potential causes of postmenopausal bleeding?

<p>The patient reports a history of HPV infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that trophoblastic disease is highly curable, what is the most important next step after initial diagnosis to ensure optimal patient outcomes?

<p>Prompt and aggressive chemotherapy to eradicate the disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with bone pain and a history of prostate cancer. Which diagnostic finding would MOST strongly suggest osteoblastic metastasis?

<p>Bone scintigraphy showing increased uptake (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 68-year-old male is diagnosed with T2 prostate cancer. Considering treatment options and patient factors, what is the MOST appropriate initial approach?

<p>Radical prostatectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with prostate cancer experiences increased urinary frequency and difficulty initiating urination. This MOST likely indicates involvement of which anatomical zone of the prostate?

<p>Transitional zone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 75-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presents with new onset back pain. His PSA is 12 ng/mL and Gleason score is 8. Which imaging modality is MOST appropriate to assess for metastasis?

<p>Bone scintigraphy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate interpretation of a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level between 4-10 ng/mL?

<p>Suggests the need for further evaluation due to moderate risk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with T3 prostate cancer. What treatment approach is generally CONTRAINDICATED?

<p>Radical prostatectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following stages with its description:

  1. T1
  2. T2
  3. T3

A. Contained within the capsule B. Barely visible, non-palpable C. Beyond the capsule

<p>1B, 2A, 3C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical scenario would be MOST appropriate for 'watchful waiting' as a management strategy for prostate cancer?

<p>An 80-year-old male with T2 disease and a Gleason score of 6, and significant comorbidities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary screening method recommended for cervical cancer?

<p>PAP smear (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with advanced cervical cancer?

<p>Regular menstruation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of HPV testing in cervical cancer screening?

<p>To detect high-risk HPV types that can lead to cervical cancer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Stage IB cervical cancer is likely to undergo which surgical procedure?

<p>Radical hysterectomy with lymphadenectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors indicates a poorer prognosis in cervical cancer?

<p>Deep stromal infiltration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging technique is considered the 'gold standard' for diagnosing cervical cancer?

<p>MRI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which stages of cervical cancer is radiation therapy (RT) with concomitant chemotherapy typically recommended?

<p>Stages IIB-IVB (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of cervical cancer progression, starting from HPV infection?

<p>HPV → CIN → CIS → Invasive Carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cervical cancer develops hydronephrosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition in the context of her cancer?

<p>Tumor invasion blocking the ureters (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a targeted therapy drug used in the treatment of cervical cancer?

<p>Bevacizumab (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young patient with Stage 1A cervical cancer desires to preserve her fertility. Which surgical option might be considered?

<p>Conization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate 5-year survival rate for a patient diagnosed with Stage III cervical cancer?

<p>35% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero is a risk factor for which type of cancer?

<p>Clear cell carcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of cervical cancer?

<p>Squamous cell carcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Wertheim-Meigs surgery is associated with which of the following procedures?

<p>Radical hysterectomy and lymphadenectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic procedure is typically the initial step in evaluating a patient suspected of having ovarian cancer?

<p>Transvaginal ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a family history of HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is concerned about their risk of developing ovarian cancer. What is the approximate increased risk linked to hereditary factors like HNPCC?

<p>5-10% of cases (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors has been shown to have a protective effect against the development of ovarian cancer?

<p>Tubal ligation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Surface epithelial cell tumors (SECTs) are the most common type of ovarian cancer. Which of the SECT subtypes is most frequently encountered?

<p>Serous (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old patient is diagnosed with an ovarian germ cell tumor. What is a key characteristic of germ cell tumors compared to surface epithelial tumors?

<p>Germ cell tumors are generally very chemosensitive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What surgical procedure is typically part of the standard treatment for ovarian cancer?

<p>Oophorectomy, often with salpingectomy and hysterectomy, and pelvic lymphadenectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

CA-125 is a marker used in the management of ovarian cancer. What is the primary utility of CA-125 in this context?

<p>To check for recurrence and monitor treatment response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

High-grade serous carcinomas are a subtype of surface epithelial ovarian cancer with certain genetic mutations. Which mutations are most associated with high-grade serous ovarian cancer?

<p>TP53 and BRCA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is ovarian cancer often diagnosed at an advanced stage?

<p>There is no effective screening method, and symptoms often do not appear until the cancer is advanced. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with advanced ovarian cancer undergoes cytoreductive surgery. What is the primary goal of this surgical intervention?

<p>To remove as much visible tumor as possible (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common initial symptom of renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?

<p>Painless hematuria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) develops polycythemia. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

<p>Overproduction of erythropoietin (EPO) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the ONLY potentially curative treatment for renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?

<p>Nephrectomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) is being evaluated for metastatic disease. What is the MOST common site of metastasis for RCC?

<p>Lungs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is MOST associated with clear cell renal cell carcinoma?

<p>Association with VHL gene mutations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with penile carcinoma in situ. Which of the following is generally considered the FIRST-LINE treatment?

<p>Circumcision (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following viruses is MOST strongly associated with the development of penile cancer?

<p>Human Papillomavirus (HPV) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a mass on the penis and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. After biopsy confirmation of invasive squamous cell carcinoma, which factor would MOST significantly influence the prognosis?

<p>Presence of perineural invasion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common subtype of invasive penile cancer?

<p>Squamous cell carcinoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST method for diagnosing testicular cancer?

<p>Ultrasound (USG) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young adult male presents with a testicular mass. Serum tumor marker analysis reveals elevated AFP levels. This finding is MOST suggestive of which type of testicular cancer?

<p>Yolk sac tumor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is the MOST significant risk factor for the development of testicular cancer?

<p>Cryptorchidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which of the following procedures should be avoided due to the risk of spreading the cancer?

<p>Testicular biopsy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the TNM staging system for penile cancer, what does a T2 classification indicate?

<p>Tumor invading the corpus spongiosum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are biopsies typically avoided in the diagnostic workup of testicular cancer?

<p>Biopsies can potentially spread malignant cells, altering the stage and prognosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Non-endometrioid cancer

A type of uterine cancer, includes serous, clear cell, carcinosarcoma; poorer prognosis.

Prognostic factors

Factors influencing cancer outcome: grade, lymph node status, myometrial invasion.

High-risk metastasis

Serous endometrial carcinoma shows 90% TP53 mutation; high chance of spreading to peritoneum.

Uterine sarcomas

Rare uterine cancers, including carcinosarcoma and leiomyosarcoma, seen often in African Americans.

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Presentation signs

Common symptoms include abnormal bleeding, vaginal discharge, and pelvic pain; 90% have abnormal bleeding.

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Prostate Cancer Epidemiology

Most common cancer in men, occurring in 10-15% of males typically over 50.

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PSA Test

Prostate specific antigen test used for diagnosis, not cancer specific.

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Staging (TMN)

System to stage prostate cancer, combining T stages with Gleason scores.

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Symptoms of Prostate Cancer

Includes pain during urination, frequent urination, and impotence.

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Treatment Options for T1/T2

Options include watchful waiting, prostatectomy, or radiotherapy.

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Advanced Prostate Cancer Symptoms

Bone pain from osteoblastic metastasis in later stages.

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Watchful Waiting

Monitoring patients without immediate treatment, for older age groups.

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Screening Recommendations

Not recommended due to many clinically insignificant cases.

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Ovarian Cancer Incidence

Increasing incidence due to aging population, making it the most lethal gynecologic cancer with 70% detected at advanced stages.

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Initial Screening Method

First step in diagnostic process is transvaginal ultrasound (USG) of abdomen and pelvis, followed by CT scan.

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Advanced Imaging in Ovarian Cancer

Chest CT or X-ray is used to check for pleural effusion and spread above diaphragm.

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Biopsy in Ovarian Cancer

Biopsy is required for a definitive diagnosis of ovarian cancer.

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Hereditary Risk Factors

Hereditary factors like BRCA1/2, HNPCC, and Gorlin syndrome are responsible for 5-10% of ovarian cancer cases.

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Common Risk Factors

Risk factors include nulliparity, endometriosis, prolonged estrogen exposure, and infertility.

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Protective Factors

Tubal ligation and contraceptives can serve as protective factors against ovarian cancer.

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Major Ovarian Tumor Type

Surface epithelial cell tumors are the most common (70%) and account for 90% of malignant tumors in women 20 or older.

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Serous Epithelial Tumors

Serous SECT is the most common subtype, divided into low and high grade, with high grade linked to mutations.

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Tumor Marker

CA-125 is a tumor marker used for monitoring treatment and checking recurrence, though it is not very specific.

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PET-CT

A diagnostic imaging technique used to assess micrometastasis in cancers.

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Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)

The most common type of kidney cancer, often linked to smoking and obesity.

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VHL mutation

A hereditary mutation associated with several types of tumors, including clear cell carcinoma.

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Clear Cell Carcinoma

The predominant form of renal cell carcinoma, representing 80-90% of cases, arising from tubular cells.

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Robust Treatment

Nephrectomy is the main potentially curative treatment for renal tumors.

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Fuhrman Score

A classification system used for grading renal cell carcinoma based on cell characteristics.

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Papillary Carcinoma

A subtype of renal cell carcinoma that can also present in VHL disease.

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Invasive SCC

The most common subtype of penile cancer that is aggressive and can invade surrounding tissues.

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Penile Carcinoma in situ

A non-invasive cancer confined to the surface of the penis, such as Bowen disease.

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HPV Risk Factors

Human Papillomavirus types 16, 18, 31, and 33 are associated with penile cancer.

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Cryptorchidism

A condition where one or both testicles fail to descend, increasing testicular cancer risk.

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USG for Testicular Cancer

Ultrasound is the gold standard for diagnosing testicular tumors.

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Markers LDH, AFP, and BHCG

Blood markers used for assessing germ cell tumors in testicular cancer diagnosis.

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Staging Testicular Cancer

Determining the extent of cancer spread, commonly assessed through imaging like CT scans.

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Paraneoplastic Syndromes

Disorders that occur due to cancer, such as polycythemia and hypercalcemia.

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Postmenopausal bleeding

Abnormal uterine bleeding occurring after menopause; may indicate health issues.

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Difficult urination

Pain or trouble experienced while urinating, also known as dysuria.

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Pelvic pain

Discomfort or pain felt in the lower abdominal area; can be associated with various conditions.

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Vulvar cancer

A rare cancer affecting the external female genitalia, often linked to HPV.

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Trophoblastic disease

A rare, curable cancer linked to pregnancy that is highly sensitive to chemotherapy.

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Cervical Cancer Incidence

4th most common cancer in women worldwide, especially in developing countries.

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PAP Smear Guidelines

Screening starts at ages 18-25, every 1-3 years until 60-65, then HPV test every 5 years after 30.

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Mean Age of Diagnosis

The average age for cervical cancer diagnosis is 50 years old.

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Main Risk Factor

Mainly associated with HPV exposure, particularly types 16, 18, 31, 33.

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Secondary Risk Factors

Includes smoking, immunodeficiency (AIDS), and long-term hormonal contraception use.

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SCC and AC

SCC (squamous cell carcinoma) accounts for 80-90% and AC (adenocarcinoma) for 15% of cervical cancers.

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Typical Presentation

Often asymptomatic until advanced; may present with irregular bleeding, discharge, or pelvic pain.

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Hydronephrosis

A condition caused when cancer blocks ureters, leading to kidney failure, the most common death cause.

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Diagnosis Techniques

Diagnosis is through a speculum exam and biopsy, with MRI as the gold standard.

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Staging System

FIGO staging: 0=CIS; I=confined to cervix; II=beyond cervix; III=pelvic wall; IV=invading bladder or rectum.

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Stage 1A Treatment

Treatment options include hysterectomy or conization, particularly for younger patients wanting children.

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Stage IIB-IVB Treatment

Involves radiotherapy with chemotherapy since surgery is not recommended for advanced stages.

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Negative Prognostic Factors

Include positive pelvic nodes, deep stromal infiltration, and positive surgical margin.

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5-Year Survival Rates

Survival rates are: 0=100%; I=85%; II=65%; III=35%; IV=7% indicating poorer outcomes with advanced stages.

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Ovarian Cancer Early Symptoms

Ovarian cancer often has no early symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.

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Study Notes

Prostate Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Most common cancer in men; usually diagnosed in men over 50. Frequency increases with age.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Age, family history (diagnosis under 50 increases risk threefold), African origin, prolonged androgen exposure, obesity, poor diet. Genetic mutations like TMPRSS2-ERG fusion gene, hypermethylation of certain genes, and others.
  • Presentation: Asymptomatic in early stages. Later may experience pain when urinating. Symptoms can also include hematospermia, impotence, and impaired semen production.
  • Advanced Stages: Characterized by bone pain -osteoblastic metastasis.
  • Diagnosis: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test (not cancer-specific, repeat if elevated). Digital Rectal Exam (DRE). MRI with Gleason score. Ultrasound-guided biopsies.
  • Staging: Determined by tumor size, location (T1-T4), and lymph node involvement(N), and presence of distant metastasis (M).
  • Treatment: Watchful waiting for low-grade, early-stage cancers. Prostatectomy (surgical removal of prostate), radiation therapy (RT), or hormonal therapy. Choices depend on stage, patient's overall health.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Deadly in only a small portion of cases if caught early. Prognostic factors include PSA score, Gleason score, TMN stage.

Bladder Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Sixth most common cancer worldwide, third most common cancer in men. More frequent in men over 50–80 years old.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: The most important risk factor is smoking; Exposure to chemicals (arylamine, phenacetine), prior chemotherapy (cyclophosphamide), radiotherapy, chronic UTIs, neurogenic bladder and schistosomiasis. Genetics may play a low role.
  • Subtypes: Urothelial carcinoma (vast majority), Squamous cell carcinoma(SCC), Adenocarcinoma
  • Presentation: Hematuria (blood in urine) is most common symptom. Dysuria. Urinary urgency. Bladder irritation. Recurring urinary tract infections. Pelvic/lumbar pain and leg edema, Bone pain.
  • Diagnosis: Cystoscopy and biopsy. Urine tests - dipsticks & cytology, full blood counts, liver/kidney function. CT/MRI, IV pyelography, bone scan, PET scan may be used for investigation
  • Treatment: Depends on the stage of the disease; no muscle involvement (T1) treatment involves TURB cystoscopy and BCG intravesical or high-risk group, cystectomy is used for muscle involvement (T2). Muscle invasion T3/T4 tumors are treated with aggressive surgery.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Often recurrent. Around 80% of cases present with muscle invasion. A poor prognosis is expected in cases with a tumor stage T4.

Renal Cancer

  • Epidemiology: More common in men over 60.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Smoking, obesity, and hypertension are factors that may correlate with the disease.
  • Subtypes: Clear cell carcinoma (most common), papillary carcinoma, chromophobe carcinoma.
  • Presentation: Mostly painless, but some with hematuria (blood in urine), abdominal mass, or dull flank pain, fever and weight loss (SAA). Hypertension is a symptom in some cases.
  • Diagnosis: Urine sample (Blood, Leukocytes, Nitrates). USG to locate the tumor. CT scan (high-resolution). PET-CT. No biopsy.
  • Treatment: Nephrectomy (surgical removal of the kidney) for potentially cure able stages. Ablation for inoperable cases. RT and targeted therapy (VEGFR TK+ mTOR) are palliative.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Invasion possible to the renal vein or perinephric fat. May metastasize to lungs, bones, liver, and adrenal glands.

Penile Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Rare in Europe, common in central Africa and Brazil.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Caused by HPV 16, 18, 31, 33. Risk factors include poor hygiene, circumcision status, phimosis, lichen sclerosis, smoking, and UVA exposure.
  • Presentation: Presence of mass on the penis. Variations in morphology include lump, ulcer, sore, crust, and wart-like lesions.
  • Diagnosis: Biopsy of the affected area, USG/MRI of the penis and adjacent structures. Lymph node biopsy is performed if lymph nodes are palpable.
  • Treatment: Circumcision if Penile Carcinoma in situ (CIS). Treatments like topical imiquimod, 5-FU, lasers ablation in T1/T2 cases. Radical surgery like partial or total glansectomy is selected for T3/T4 cases. Radiation therapy or inguinal lymph node removal may be part of the treatment.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Poor prognosis. Sentinel nodes are inguinal nodes.

Testicular Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Most common cancer in young men (20-35).
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) is the only known risk factor, others are Testicular dysgenesis syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome.
  • Subtypes: Seminoma (most common type in adults), embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, choriocarcinoma.
  • Presentation: Often painless enlargement or lump. Diagnosis can be made by USG, serum markers like LDH, AFP and B-HCG, and biopsies are usually not performed as there is a risk of further spreading.
  • Treatment: Orchiectomy (surgical removal of testis). RT or chemo with the stage of the tumor.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Good prognosis for seminomas. High chemosensitivity for nonseminomas.

Breast Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Most common non-skin malignancy in women; second most common cancer death after lung cancer.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Female gender, age, family history, BRCA1/2 & TP53 mutations. Other known factors include Caucasian ethnicity, early menarche, late menopause, exposure to estrogen, alcohol, obesity.
  • Subtypes: Luminal A, Luminal B, HER2+, Triple-negative,
  • Presentation: Painless breast mass, skin changes (retraction, dimpling), nipple inversion, satellite nodules, inflammation.
  • Diagnosis: Mammography, USG, MRI, biopsy, receptor status tests (estrogen/progesterone/HER2), and other tests as required depending on the stage.
  • Treatment: Breast-conserving surgery + RT, total mastectomy, chemotherapy, hormonal therapy (tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors).
  • Progression & Prognosis: Determined by subtype, tumor size, nodal involvement, estrogen receptor status, and other prognostic factors- Good prognosis with luminal A; poor for triple-negative.

Endometrial Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Most common gynecologic malignancy. Primarily affecting postmenopausal women.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Age, obesity, diabetes mellitus. Exposure to estrogen, early menarche, and late menopause. Genetic mutation (PTEN, MSI, BRCA mutations), family history of breast, ovarian cancer, DES.
  • Subtypes: Endometrioid (90%+), Non-endometrioid (serous, clear cell, carcinosarcoma).
  • Presentation: Abnormal bleeding (Postmenopausal bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding. vaginal discharge)
  • Diagnosis: Pelvic exam, biopsy, dilatation and curettage. Additional investigations like USG, CT, MRI, and staging to assess spread.
  • Treatment: Total hysterectomy (often with removal of ovaries), and possible chemotherapy or radiotherapy in advanced stages for metastasis and high-risk factors.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Good prognosis for endometrioid; poor prognosis for serous, clear cell, or carcinosarcoma due to higher risk of risk of metastasis (spread) via the peritoneum.

Cervical Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Fourth most common cancer in women globally, incidence varies by region.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: HPV, smoking, multiple pregnancies, immunodeficiency (AIDS), DES in utero exposure.
  • Subtypes: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) accounts for ~ 80–90%. Adenocarcinoma (AC) accounts for ~ 10–15%.
  • Presentation: Often asymptomatic in pre-invasive stage. Later presents with bleeding, vaginal discharge, vaginal bleeding, irregular menstrual cycle, pelvic pain, and back pain.
  • Diagnosis: PAP smear, HPV testing. After detection, colposcopy, biopsy and tissue analysis is required to know the grade and extent of the disease.
  • Treatment: Stage 1A: hysterectomy (removal of uterus). Stage 1B-IIA: Radical hysterectomy with Lymphadenectomy. Stage IIB-IVB: Radiation therapy with chemo.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Slow progression; slow process over 10-20 years; HPV → CIN → CIS → invasive carcinoma.

Ovarian Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Most lethal gynecologic malignancy.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: Hereditary (BRCA1/2, HNPCC, Lynch syndromes, other syndromes. ) Nulliparity, infertility. Long-term estrogen use.
  • Subtypes: Surface epithelial cell tumors (70%): Serous, mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell. Germ cell tumors (15-20%). Sex-cord stromal tumors (2-3%).
  • Presentation: Non-specific symptoms, like bloating, abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, vaginal bleeding, or urinary symptoms.
  • Diagnosis: First transvaginal USG and abdominal CT to determine extent of disease. Staging and biopsy.
  • Treatment: Surgical staging, oophorectomy and possibly hysterectomy + chemo or RT. Types of chemo therapy depend on the stage of the tumor and the type of cancer.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Often discovered late. High risk of peritoneal metastasis.

Vaginal Cancer

  • Epidemiology: Rare in both women and men. Primarily affects older adults.
  • Risk Factors & Etiology: HPV. Early age DES exposure, vaginal adenosis, history of cervical cancer, vaginal irritation. Smoking and other long-term exposure.
  • Subtypes: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), adenocarcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, and other subtypes.
  • Presentation: Bleeding and discharge (especially after menopause), pain during intercourse, difficulty peeing and other systemic symptoms such as pelvic pain and constipation.
  • Diagnosis: Pelvic examination, colposcopy, and biopsy.
  • Treatment: Depends on the stage of the tumor; surgical removal of the vaginal tissue in early stages. RT or chemo in advanced stages.
  • Progression & Prognosis: Prognosis depends on the stage and the type of cancer.

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