Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following is the MOST significant genetic risk factor associated with sporadic serous endometrial carcinoma?
Which of the following is the MOST significant genetic risk factor associated with sporadic serous endometrial carcinoma?
- MSH2/MLH1 mutations
- PTEN mutations
- BRCA1/2 mutations
- TP53 mutations (correct)
A 70-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Endometrial biopsy reveals a non-endometrioid adenocarcinoma. Which of the following histological subtypes is associated with the POOREST prognosis?
A 70-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Endometrial biopsy reveals a non-endometrioid adenocarcinoma. Which of the following histological subtypes is associated with the POOREST prognosis?
- Serous adenocarcinoma (correct)
- Adenosquamous carcinoma
- Mucinous adenocarcinoma
- Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be associated with an increased risk of uterine sarcomas?
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be associated with an increased risk of uterine sarcomas?
- Tamoxifen use
- Late menopause
- History of HPV infection (correct)
- Early menarche
A patient diagnosed with endometrial cancer is found to have malignant cells exfoliated into the peritoneal cavity. Through which anatomical structure did these cells MOST likely spread?
A patient diagnosed with endometrial cancer is found to have malignant cells exfoliated into the peritoneal cavity. Through which anatomical structure did these cells MOST likely spread?
Compared to endometrioid adenocarcinomas, non-endometrioid endometrial cancers are more likely to be associated with:
Compared to endometrioid adenocarcinomas, non-endometrioid endometrial cancers are more likely to be associated with:
A patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding, painful intercourse, and pelvic pain. While these symptoms can indicate several conditions, which of the following is most directly suggested by this combination?
A patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding, painful intercourse, and pelvic pain. While these symptoms can indicate several conditions, which of the following is most directly suggested by this combination?
Considering the characteristics of trophoblastic disease, which treatment approach is most likely to be effective?
Considering the characteristics of trophoblastic disease, which treatment approach is most likely to be effective?
Vulvar cancer, potentially associated with HPV, shares symptom overlap with other conditions. Aside from postmenopausal bleeding, which symptom would most strongly suggest the need to investigate for vulvar cancer specifically?
Vulvar cancer, potentially associated with HPV, shares symptom overlap with other conditions. Aside from postmenopausal bleeding, which symptom would most strongly suggest the need to investigate for vulvar cancer specifically?
A clinician is evaluating a postmenopausal patient. Which factor would MOST heighten their suspicion for vulvar cancer over other potential causes of postmenopausal bleeding?
A clinician is evaluating a postmenopausal patient. Which factor would MOST heighten their suspicion for vulvar cancer over other potential causes of postmenopausal bleeding?
Given that trophoblastic disease is highly curable, what is the most important next step after initial diagnosis to ensure optimal patient outcomes?
Given that trophoblastic disease is highly curable, what is the most important next step after initial diagnosis to ensure optimal patient outcomes?
A patient presents with bone pain and a history of prostate cancer. Which diagnostic finding would MOST strongly suggest osteoblastic metastasis?
A patient presents with bone pain and a history of prostate cancer. Which diagnostic finding would MOST strongly suggest osteoblastic metastasis?
A 68-year-old male is diagnosed with T2 prostate cancer. Considering treatment options and patient factors, what is the MOST appropriate initial approach?
A 68-year-old male is diagnosed with T2 prostate cancer. Considering treatment options and patient factors, what is the MOST appropriate initial approach?
A patient with prostate cancer experiences increased urinary frequency and difficulty initiating urination. This MOST likely indicates involvement of which anatomical zone of the prostate?
A patient with prostate cancer experiences increased urinary frequency and difficulty initiating urination. This MOST likely indicates involvement of which anatomical zone of the prostate?
A 75-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presents with new onset back pain. His PSA is 12 ng/mL and Gleason score is 8. Which imaging modality is MOST appropriate to assess for metastasis?
A 75-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presents with new onset back pain. His PSA is 12 ng/mL and Gleason score is 8. Which imaging modality is MOST appropriate to assess for metastasis?
What is the MOST accurate interpretation of a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level between 4-10 ng/mL?
What is the MOST accurate interpretation of a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level between 4-10 ng/mL?
A patient is diagnosed with T3 prostate cancer. What treatment approach is generally CONTRAINDICATED?
A patient is diagnosed with T3 prostate cancer. What treatment approach is generally CONTRAINDICATED?
Match the following stages with its description:
- T1
- T2
- T3
A. Contained within the capsule
B. Barely visible, non-palpable
C. Beyond the capsule
Match the following stages with its description:
- T1
- T2
- T3
A. Contained within the capsule B. Barely visible, non-palpable C. Beyond the capsule
Which clinical scenario would be MOST appropriate for 'watchful waiting' as a management strategy for prostate cancer?
Which clinical scenario would be MOST appropriate for 'watchful waiting' as a management strategy for prostate cancer?
What is the primary screening method recommended for cervical cancer?
What is the primary screening method recommended for cervical cancer?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with advanced cervical cancer?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with advanced cervical cancer?
What is the purpose of HPV testing in cervical cancer screening?
What is the purpose of HPV testing in cervical cancer screening?
A patient diagnosed with Stage IB cervical cancer is likely to undergo which surgical procedure?
A patient diagnosed with Stage IB cervical cancer is likely to undergo which surgical procedure?
Which of the following factors indicates a poorer prognosis in cervical cancer?
Which of the following factors indicates a poorer prognosis in cervical cancer?
Which imaging technique is considered the 'gold standard' for diagnosing cervical cancer?
Which imaging technique is considered the 'gold standard' for diagnosing cervical cancer?
For which stages of cervical cancer is radiation therapy (RT) with concomitant chemotherapy typically recommended?
For which stages of cervical cancer is radiation therapy (RT) with concomitant chemotherapy typically recommended?
What is the primary route of cervical cancer progression, starting from HPV infection?
What is the primary route of cervical cancer progression, starting from HPV infection?
A patient with cervical cancer develops hydronephrosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition in the context of her cancer?
A patient with cervical cancer develops hydronephrosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition in the context of her cancer?
Which of the following is a targeted therapy drug used in the treatment of cervical cancer?
Which of the following is a targeted therapy drug used in the treatment of cervical cancer?
A young patient with Stage 1A cervical cancer desires to preserve her fertility. Which surgical option might be considered?
A young patient with Stage 1A cervical cancer desires to preserve her fertility. Which surgical option might be considered?
What is the approximate 5-year survival rate for a patient diagnosed with Stage III cervical cancer?
What is the approximate 5-year survival rate for a patient diagnosed with Stage III cervical cancer?
Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero is a risk factor for which type of cancer?
Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero is a risk factor for which type of cancer?
What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
Wertheim-Meigs surgery is associated with which of the following procedures?
Wertheim-Meigs surgery is associated with which of the following procedures?
Which diagnostic procedure is typically the initial step in evaluating a patient suspected of having ovarian cancer?
Which diagnostic procedure is typically the initial step in evaluating a patient suspected of having ovarian cancer?
A patient with a family history of HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is concerned about their risk of developing ovarian cancer. What is the approximate increased risk linked to hereditary factors like HNPCC?
A patient with a family history of HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is concerned about their risk of developing ovarian cancer. What is the approximate increased risk linked to hereditary factors like HNPCC?
Which of the following factors has been shown to have a protective effect against the development of ovarian cancer?
Which of the following factors has been shown to have a protective effect against the development of ovarian cancer?
Surface epithelial cell tumors (SECTs) are the most common type of ovarian cancer. Which of the SECT subtypes is most frequently encountered?
Surface epithelial cell tumors (SECTs) are the most common type of ovarian cancer. Which of the SECT subtypes is most frequently encountered?
A 25-year-old patient is diagnosed with an ovarian germ cell tumor. What is a key characteristic of germ cell tumors compared to surface epithelial tumors?
A 25-year-old patient is diagnosed with an ovarian germ cell tumor. What is a key characteristic of germ cell tumors compared to surface epithelial tumors?
What surgical procedure is typically part of the standard treatment for ovarian cancer?
What surgical procedure is typically part of the standard treatment for ovarian cancer?
CA-125 is a marker used in the management of ovarian cancer. What is the primary utility of CA-125 in this context?
CA-125 is a marker used in the management of ovarian cancer. What is the primary utility of CA-125 in this context?
High-grade serous carcinomas are a subtype of surface epithelial ovarian cancer with certain genetic mutations. Which mutations are most associated with high-grade serous ovarian cancer?
High-grade serous carcinomas are a subtype of surface epithelial ovarian cancer with certain genetic mutations. Which mutations are most associated with high-grade serous ovarian cancer?
Why is ovarian cancer often diagnosed at an advanced stage?
Why is ovarian cancer often diagnosed at an advanced stage?
A patient with advanced ovarian cancer undergoes cytoreductive surgery. What is the primary goal of this surgical intervention?
A patient with advanced ovarian cancer undergoes cytoreductive surgery. What is the primary goal of this surgical intervention?
Which of the following is the MOST common initial symptom of renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?
Which of the following is the MOST common initial symptom of renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?
A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) develops polycythemia. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?
A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) develops polycythemia. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?
Which of the following is the ONLY potentially curative treatment for renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?
Which of the following is the ONLY potentially curative treatment for renal cell carcinoma (RCC)?
A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) is being evaluated for metastatic disease. What is the MOST common site of metastasis for RCC?
A patient with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) is being evaluated for metastatic disease. What is the MOST common site of metastasis for RCC?
Which of the following characteristics is MOST associated with clear cell renal cell carcinoma?
Which of the following characteristics is MOST associated with clear cell renal cell carcinoma?
A patient is diagnosed with penile carcinoma in situ. Which of the following is generally considered the FIRST-LINE treatment?
A patient is diagnosed with penile carcinoma in situ. Which of the following is generally considered the FIRST-LINE treatment?
Which of the following viruses is MOST strongly associated with the development of penile cancer?
Which of the following viruses is MOST strongly associated with the development of penile cancer?
A patient presents with a mass on the penis and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. After biopsy confirmation of invasive squamous cell carcinoma, which factor would MOST significantly influence the prognosis?
A patient presents with a mass on the penis and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. After biopsy confirmation of invasive squamous cell carcinoma, which factor would MOST significantly influence the prognosis?
Which of the following is the MOST common subtype of invasive penile cancer?
Which of the following is the MOST common subtype of invasive penile cancer?
What is the BEST method for diagnosing testicular cancer?
What is the BEST method for diagnosing testicular cancer?
A young adult male presents with a testicular mass. Serum tumor marker analysis reveals elevated AFP levels. This finding is MOST suggestive of which type of testicular cancer?
A young adult male presents with a testicular mass. Serum tumor marker analysis reveals elevated AFP levels. This finding is MOST suggestive of which type of testicular cancer?
Which of the following conditions is the MOST significant risk factor for the development of testicular cancer?
Which of the following conditions is the MOST significant risk factor for the development of testicular cancer?
A patient is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which of the following procedures should be avoided due to the risk of spreading the cancer?
A patient is suspected of having testicular cancer. Which of the following procedures should be avoided due to the risk of spreading the cancer?
In the TNM staging system for penile cancer, what does a T2 classification indicate?
In the TNM staging system for penile cancer, what does a T2 classification indicate?
Why are biopsies typically avoided in the diagnostic workup of testicular cancer?
Why are biopsies typically avoided in the diagnostic workup of testicular cancer?
Flashcards
Non-endometrioid cancer
Non-endometrioid cancer
A type of uterine cancer, includes serous, clear cell, carcinosarcoma; poorer prognosis.
Prognostic factors
Prognostic factors
Factors influencing cancer outcome: grade, lymph node status, myometrial invasion.
High-risk metastasis
High-risk metastasis
Serous endometrial carcinoma shows 90% TP53 mutation; high chance of spreading to peritoneum.
Uterine sarcomas
Uterine sarcomas
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Presentation signs
Presentation signs
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Prostate Cancer Epidemiology
Prostate Cancer Epidemiology
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PSA Test
PSA Test
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Staging (TMN)
Staging (TMN)
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Symptoms of Prostate Cancer
Symptoms of Prostate Cancer
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Treatment Options for T1/T2
Treatment Options for T1/T2
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Advanced Prostate Cancer Symptoms
Advanced Prostate Cancer Symptoms
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Watchful Waiting
Watchful Waiting
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Screening Recommendations
Screening Recommendations
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Ovarian Cancer Incidence
Ovarian Cancer Incidence
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Initial Screening Method
Initial Screening Method
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Advanced Imaging in Ovarian Cancer
Advanced Imaging in Ovarian Cancer
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Biopsy in Ovarian Cancer
Biopsy in Ovarian Cancer
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Hereditary Risk Factors
Hereditary Risk Factors
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Common Risk Factors
Common Risk Factors
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Protective Factors
Protective Factors
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Major Ovarian Tumor Type
Major Ovarian Tumor Type
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Serous Epithelial Tumors
Serous Epithelial Tumors
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Tumor Marker
Tumor Marker
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PET-CT
PET-CT
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Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
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VHL mutation
VHL mutation
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Clear Cell Carcinoma
Clear Cell Carcinoma
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Robust Treatment
Robust Treatment
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Fuhrman Score
Fuhrman Score
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Papillary Carcinoma
Papillary Carcinoma
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Invasive SCC
Invasive SCC
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Penile Carcinoma in situ
Penile Carcinoma in situ
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HPV Risk Factors
HPV Risk Factors
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Cryptorchidism
Cryptorchidism
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USG for Testicular Cancer
USG for Testicular Cancer
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Markers LDH, AFP, and BHCG
Markers LDH, AFP, and BHCG
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Staging Testicular Cancer
Staging Testicular Cancer
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Paraneoplastic Syndromes
Paraneoplastic Syndromes
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Postmenopausal bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding
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Difficult urination
Difficult urination
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Pelvic pain
Pelvic pain
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Vulvar cancer
Vulvar cancer
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Trophoblastic disease
Trophoblastic disease
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Cervical Cancer Incidence
Cervical Cancer Incidence
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PAP Smear Guidelines
PAP Smear Guidelines
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Mean Age of Diagnosis
Mean Age of Diagnosis
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Main Risk Factor
Main Risk Factor
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Secondary Risk Factors
Secondary Risk Factors
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SCC and AC
SCC and AC
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Typical Presentation
Typical Presentation
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Hydronephrosis
Hydronephrosis
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Diagnosis Techniques
Diagnosis Techniques
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Staging System
Staging System
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Stage 1A Treatment
Stage 1A Treatment
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Stage IIB-IVB Treatment
Stage IIB-IVB Treatment
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Negative Prognostic Factors
Negative Prognostic Factors
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5-Year Survival Rates
5-Year Survival Rates
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Ovarian Cancer Early Symptoms
Ovarian Cancer Early Symptoms
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Study Notes
Prostate Cancer
- Epidemiology: Most common cancer in men; usually diagnosed in men over 50. Frequency increases with age.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Age, family history (diagnosis under 50 increases risk threefold), African origin, prolonged androgen exposure, obesity, poor diet. Genetic mutations like TMPRSS2-ERG fusion gene, hypermethylation of certain genes, and others.
- Presentation: Asymptomatic in early stages. Later may experience pain when urinating. Symptoms can also include hematospermia, impotence, and impaired semen production.
- Advanced Stages: Characterized by bone pain -osteoblastic metastasis.
- Diagnosis: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test (not cancer-specific, repeat if elevated). Digital Rectal Exam (DRE). MRI with Gleason score. Ultrasound-guided biopsies.
- Staging: Determined by tumor size, location (T1-T4), and lymph node involvement(N), and presence of distant metastasis (M).
- Treatment: Watchful waiting for low-grade, early-stage cancers. Prostatectomy (surgical removal of prostate), radiation therapy (RT), or hormonal therapy. Choices depend on stage, patient's overall health.
- Progression & Prognosis: Deadly in only a small portion of cases if caught early. Prognostic factors include PSA score, Gleason score, TMN stage.
Bladder Cancer
- Epidemiology: Sixth most common cancer worldwide, third most common cancer in men. More frequent in men over 50–80 years old.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: The most important risk factor is smoking; Exposure to chemicals (arylamine, phenacetine), prior chemotherapy (cyclophosphamide), radiotherapy, chronic UTIs, neurogenic bladder and schistosomiasis. Genetics may play a low role.
- Subtypes: Urothelial carcinoma (vast majority), Squamous cell carcinoma(SCC), Adenocarcinoma
- Presentation: Hematuria (blood in urine) is most common symptom. Dysuria. Urinary urgency. Bladder irritation. Recurring urinary tract infections. Pelvic/lumbar pain and leg edema, Bone pain.
- Diagnosis: Cystoscopy and biopsy. Urine tests - dipsticks & cytology, full blood counts, liver/kidney function. CT/MRI, IV pyelography, bone scan, PET scan may be used for investigation
- Treatment: Depends on the stage of the disease; no muscle involvement (T1) treatment involves TURB cystoscopy and BCG intravesical or high-risk group, cystectomy is used for muscle involvement (T2). Muscle invasion T3/T4 tumors are treated with aggressive surgery.
- Progression & Prognosis: Often recurrent. Around 80% of cases present with muscle invasion. A poor prognosis is expected in cases with a tumor stage T4.
Renal Cancer
- Epidemiology: More common in men over 60.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Smoking, obesity, and hypertension are factors that may correlate with the disease.
- Subtypes: Clear cell carcinoma (most common), papillary carcinoma, chromophobe carcinoma.
- Presentation: Mostly painless, but some with hematuria (blood in urine), abdominal mass, or dull flank pain, fever and weight loss (SAA). Hypertension is a symptom in some cases.
- Diagnosis: Urine sample (Blood, Leukocytes, Nitrates). USG to locate the tumor. CT scan (high-resolution). PET-CT. No biopsy.
- Treatment: Nephrectomy (surgical removal of the kidney) for potentially cure able stages. Ablation for inoperable cases. RT and targeted therapy (VEGFR TK+ mTOR) are palliative.
- Progression & Prognosis: Invasion possible to the renal vein or perinephric fat. May metastasize to lungs, bones, liver, and adrenal glands.
Penile Cancer
- Epidemiology: Rare in Europe, common in central Africa and Brazil.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Caused by HPV 16, 18, 31, 33. Risk factors include poor hygiene, circumcision status, phimosis, lichen sclerosis, smoking, and UVA exposure.
- Presentation: Presence of mass on the penis. Variations in morphology include lump, ulcer, sore, crust, and wart-like lesions.
- Diagnosis: Biopsy of the affected area, USG/MRI of the penis and adjacent structures. Lymph node biopsy is performed if lymph nodes are palpable.
- Treatment: Circumcision if Penile Carcinoma in situ (CIS). Treatments like topical imiquimod, 5-FU, lasers ablation in T1/T2 cases. Radical surgery like partial or total glansectomy is selected for T3/T4 cases. Radiation therapy or inguinal lymph node removal may be part of the treatment.
- Progression & Prognosis: Poor prognosis. Sentinel nodes are inguinal nodes.
Testicular Cancer
- Epidemiology: Most common cancer in young men (20-35).
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) is the only known risk factor, others are Testicular dysgenesis syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome.
- Subtypes: Seminoma (most common type in adults), embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, teratoma, choriocarcinoma.
- Presentation: Often painless enlargement or lump. Diagnosis can be made by USG, serum markers like LDH, AFP and B-HCG, and biopsies are usually not performed as there is a risk of further spreading.
- Treatment: Orchiectomy (surgical removal of testis). RT or chemo with the stage of the tumor.
- Progression & Prognosis: Good prognosis for seminomas. High chemosensitivity for nonseminomas.
Breast Cancer
- Epidemiology: Most common non-skin malignancy in women; second most common cancer death after lung cancer.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Female gender, age, family history, BRCA1/2 & TP53 mutations. Other known factors include Caucasian ethnicity, early menarche, late menopause, exposure to estrogen, alcohol, obesity.
- Subtypes: Luminal A, Luminal B, HER2+, Triple-negative,
- Presentation: Painless breast mass, skin changes (retraction, dimpling), nipple inversion, satellite nodules, inflammation.
- Diagnosis: Mammography, USG, MRI, biopsy, receptor status tests (estrogen/progesterone/HER2), and other tests as required depending on the stage.
- Treatment: Breast-conserving surgery + RT, total mastectomy, chemotherapy, hormonal therapy (tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors).
- Progression & Prognosis: Determined by subtype, tumor size, nodal involvement, estrogen receptor status, and other prognostic factors- Good prognosis with luminal A; poor for triple-negative.
Endometrial Cancer
- Epidemiology: Most common gynecologic malignancy. Primarily affecting postmenopausal women.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Age, obesity, diabetes mellitus. Exposure to estrogen, early menarche, and late menopause. Genetic mutation (PTEN, MSI, BRCA mutations), family history of breast, ovarian cancer, DES.
- Subtypes: Endometrioid (90%+), Non-endometrioid (serous, clear cell, carcinosarcoma).
- Presentation: Abnormal bleeding (Postmenopausal bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding. vaginal discharge)
- Diagnosis: Pelvic exam, biopsy, dilatation and curettage. Additional investigations like USG, CT, MRI, and staging to assess spread.
- Treatment: Total hysterectomy (often with removal of ovaries), and possible chemotherapy or radiotherapy in advanced stages for metastasis and high-risk factors.
- Progression & Prognosis: Good prognosis for endometrioid; poor prognosis for serous, clear cell, or carcinosarcoma due to higher risk of risk of metastasis (spread) via the peritoneum.
Cervical Cancer
- Epidemiology: Fourth most common cancer in women globally, incidence varies by region.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: HPV, smoking, multiple pregnancies, immunodeficiency (AIDS), DES in utero exposure.
- Subtypes: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) accounts for ~ 80–90%. Adenocarcinoma (AC) accounts for ~ 10–15%.
- Presentation: Often asymptomatic in pre-invasive stage. Later presents with bleeding, vaginal discharge, vaginal bleeding, irregular menstrual cycle, pelvic pain, and back pain.
- Diagnosis: PAP smear, HPV testing. After detection, colposcopy, biopsy and tissue analysis is required to know the grade and extent of the disease.
- Treatment: Stage 1A: hysterectomy (removal of uterus). Stage 1B-IIA: Radical hysterectomy with Lymphadenectomy. Stage IIB-IVB: Radiation therapy with chemo.
- Progression & Prognosis: Slow progression; slow process over 10-20 years; HPV → CIN → CIS → invasive carcinoma.
Ovarian Cancer
- Epidemiology: Most lethal gynecologic malignancy.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: Hereditary (BRCA1/2, HNPCC, Lynch syndromes, other syndromes. ) Nulliparity, infertility. Long-term estrogen use.
- Subtypes: Surface epithelial cell tumors (70%): Serous, mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell. Germ cell tumors (15-20%). Sex-cord stromal tumors (2-3%).
- Presentation: Non-specific symptoms, like bloating, abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, vaginal bleeding, or urinary symptoms.
- Diagnosis: First transvaginal USG and abdominal CT to determine extent of disease. Staging and biopsy.
- Treatment: Surgical staging, oophorectomy and possibly hysterectomy + chemo or RT. Types of chemo therapy depend on the stage of the tumor and the type of cancer.
- Progression & Prognosis: Often discovered late. High risk of peritoneal metastasis.
Vaginal Cancer
- Epidemiology: Rare in both women and men. Primarily affects older adults.
- Risk Factors & Etiology: HPV. Early age DES exposure, vaginal adenosis, history of cervical cancer, vaginal irritation. Smoking and other long-term exposure.
- Subtypes: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), adenocarcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, and other subtypes.
- Presentation: Bleeding and discharge (especially after menopause), pain during intercourse, difficulty peeing and other systemic symptoms such as pelvic pain and constipation.
- Diagnosis: Pelvic examination, colposcopy, and biopsy.
- Treatment: Depends on the stage of the tumor; surgical removal of the vaginal tissue in early stages. RT or chemo in advanced stages.
- Progression & Prognosis: Prognosis depends on the stage and the type of cancer.
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Description
Assessment covering genetic risk factors, diagnosis, and characteristics of endometrial carcinoma. It focuses on identifying risk factors associated with uterine sarcomas and understanding the spread of malignant cells. The assessment will cover different types of endometrial cancers and associated symptoms.