Emergency Medicine: Gas Under Diaphragm & Esophagus
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Questions and Answers

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient who presents with severe abdominal pain, tachycardia, hypertension, and rebound tenderness, with gas under the diaphragm seen on X-ray?

Peritonitis

What is the gold standard investigation for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

24-hour pH monitoring

What are the three constrictions in the esophagus, and which is the narrowest?

The three constrictions in the esophagus are at 15cm, 25cm, and 40cm from the upper incisors. The narrowest constriction is at 15cm, corresponding to the pharyngoesophageal junction or C6.

Describe the procedure used to diagnose imperforate anus or anorectal malformations.

<p>An invertogram is used. The patient is turned upside down with a metallic pointer placed at the proposed site of the anal opening. An X-ray is then taken, revealing a gas shadow and the marker. The distance between these two helps distinguish between low and high anorectal malformations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely cause of hematemesis and melena in a chronic alcoholic patient with liver disease?

<p>Esophageal varices</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between early and late dumping syndrome?

<p>Early dumping syndrome occurs within 10-15 minutes of eating and is caused by rapid fluid influx into the small intestine. Late dumping syndrome starts 30-40 minutes after eating and is caused by rebound hypoglycemia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the treatment for gas under the diaphragm due to peritonitis.

<p>Immediate laparotomy (opening the abdomen to explore) and IV fluids.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between Mallory-Weiss tear and esophageal varices?

<p>Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear in the lining of the esophagus usually caused by forceful vomiting and is often self-limiting. Esophageal varices are dilated blood vessels in the esophagus due to portal hypertension often seen in patients with liver disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 40-year-old female presents with dysphagia, weight loss, and esophageal narrowing on barium swallow. What are the two possible diagnoses, and what investigations would be crucial to differentiate between them?

<p>The two possible diagnoses are achalasia cardia and carcinoma esophagus. Upper GI endoscopy and esophageal manometry are crucial investigations to differentiate between them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely metabolic abnormality associated with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

<p>Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical radiological sign seen on a contrast swallow study in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

<p>String sign, double track sign, and mushroom sign.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the possible deficiencies a patient may experience after a total gastrectomy, and which one is most likely to cause neurological symptoms?

<p>Post-gastrectomy deficiencies include vitamin B12 deficiency, vitamin D3 deficiency, and iron deficiency. Megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency is most likely to cause neurological symptoms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a patient who has undergone terminal ileum removal at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency?

<p>The terminal ileum is crucial for the absorption of vitamin B12.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely causative organism for diarrhea in a patient who has been taking broad-spectrum antibiotics for an extended period?

<p>Clostridium difficile.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic triad of symptoms that is highly suggestive of a mesenteric cyst?

<p>TLO triad: a periumbilical lump that moves at right angles to the line of attachment of the umbilicus, a transverse band of resonance associated with the lump, and a characteristic dullness on percussion over the lump.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic barium swallow finding in diffuse esophageal spasm?

<p>Corkscrew appearance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe Sister Mary Joseph's nodule and what it indicates.

<p>Sister Mary Joseph's nodule is a periumbilical nodule that often indicates metastasis in advanced cancers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name two atypical presentations of advanced cancers, other than Sister Mary Joseph's nodule.

<p>Virchow's node (left supraclavicular lymph node), and Irish nodule (left axillary lymphadenopathy).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most commonly performed bariatric surgery procedure, and which one is considered the most acceptable?

<p>The most commonly performed bariatric surgery procedure is laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, while Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is considered the most acceptable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of propranolol in managing esophageal hemorrhage?

<p>Oral propranolol can be used for prophylaxis against esophageal hemorrhage, but IV propranolol is not used for managing esophageal hemorrhage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain what the hepatic venous pressure gradient is and how it is used to assess portal hypertension.

<p>The hepatic venous pressure gradient is a measure of portal hypertension. A gradient of 6-10 mmHg indicates preclinical sinusoidal portal hypertension, while a gradient exceeding 10 mmHg is considered clinically significant. A gradient greater than 12 mmHg is associated with an increased risk of variceal rupture.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice for GERD?

<p>Endoscopy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice for Zenker's diverticulum?

<p>Barium swallow.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the characteristic radiographic finding on an X-ray that indicates a small bowel obstruction.

<p>A stepladder pattern of dilated small bowel loops.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial management strategy for a patient presenting with suspected small bowel obstruction?

<p>Nil per oral, IV fluids, IV antibiotics, pain relief, and nasogastric tube placement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the difference between a collapsed and distended cecum in the context of small bowel obstruction and large bowel obstruction.

<p>A collapsed cecum suggests a small bowel obstruction as the obstruction is upstream of the cecum. On the other hand, a distended cecum indicates a large bowel obstruction as the obstruction is within the colon.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic radiographic finding on an X-ray of a patient with duodenal atresia?

<p>A double bubble sign.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the radiographic finding on an X-ray that is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus.

<p>A 'coffee bean' appearance, which represents the dilated sigmoid colon twisted on itself.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common presentation of Meckel's diverticulum in children?

<p>Bleeding, usually due to ectopic gastric mucosa.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic radiographic finding in jejunal atresia?

<p>A &quot;triple bubble&quot; sign on X-ray.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the difference between a loop ileostomy and an end ileostomy.

<p>A loop ileostomy has two openings, while an end ileostomy has only one opening.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common complication of ileostomy?

<p>Skin excoriation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristic symptoms of a carcinoid tumor?

<p>Abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common site of involvement in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

<p>Jejunum.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the gross pathology of a hamartomatous polyp seen in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

<p>A polyp with an arborizing pattern.</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way is ulcerative colitis different from Crohn's disease in terms of disease presentation?

<p>Ulcerative colitis presents with continuous inflammation along the colon, while Crohn's disease exhibits skip lesions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the 'swan neck deformity' on a barium meal follow-through?

<p>It is characteristic of ileocecal tuberculosis, indicating inflammation and stricture at the ileocecal junction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common symptom of ileostomy patients?

<p>Skin excoriation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the common dietary modifications needed to prevent dumping syndrome after bariatric surgery?

<p>Eating small, frequent meals, avoiding sugar-rich liquids and simple sugars, and avoiding liquids with meals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common complication of bariatric surgery and what other deficiencies are commonly seen?

<p>The most common complication of bariatric surgery is iron deficiency. Other common deficiencies include vitamin B12, calcium, and Vitamin D3.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a trichobezoar and what psychiatric condition is it associated with?

<p>A trichobezoar is a hairball in the stomach. It is associated with trichophagia, a psychiatric condition where the patient eats their own hair.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is achalasia cardia and what radiographic finding is suggestive of this condition?

<p>Achalasia cardia is a motor disorder of the esophagus characterized by impaired relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter. Barium swallow reveals a gradual tapering of the esophagus, referred to as a &quot;bird's beak appearance&quot;, which is suggestive of achalasia cardia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the clinical signs and symptoms suggestive of peritonitis?

<p>Acute abdominal pain, guarding, and gas under the diaphragm are suggestive of peritonitis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a Mallory-Weiss tear and what vessel is typically involved in the bleeding?

<p>A Mallory-Weiss tear is a self-limiting tear in the lower esophagus that extends into the cardia. The left gastric artery is the vessel that commonly bleeds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the staging systems used for bladder, testicular, and oral cancers?

<p>Bladder, testicular, and oral cancers all utilize the TNM staging system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two staging systems are used for gastric cancer and what specific types of gastric cancer do they apply to?

<p>Gastric cancer can be staged using the Borrmann staging and the Japanese classification. The Borrmann classification is used for advanced gastric cancer, while the Japanese classification is used for early gastric cancer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the clinical manifestations of nutcracker esophagus?

<p>Nutcracker esophagus is characterized by increased pressure in the esophagus, leading to chest pain and dysphagia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is McBurney's point, and what is its significance in appendicitis?

<p>McBurney's point is located at the junction of the lateral one-third and medial two-thirds of a line joining the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. In acute appendicitis, this is the site of maximum pain and tenderness.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical signs and symptoms are suggestive of acute cholecystitis and what is the investigation of choice for this condition?

<p>Right hypochondrial pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and guarding in the right hypochondrium are suggestive of acute cholecystitis. Ultrasound is the investigation of choice for this condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appendicular lump and how are they typically managed? What happens if conservative management fails?

<p>An appendicular lump is a localized mass of inflammation that forms after appendicitis. They are often managed conservatively. If conservative management fails, an appendicular abscess can form, requiring drainage. This strategy is known as the Asna Sharin regime.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the clinical features of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, and what is the most common type?

<p>Scaphoid abdomen, respiratory distress, and bowel seen in the thorax on x-ray are suggestive of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. The most common type is a Bochdalek hernia, occurring on the left posterolateral side.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristic clinical findings and the underlying mechanism of Boerhaave syndrome? What is the classic triad associated with this condition?

<p>Boerhaave syndrome is a spontaneous esophageal perforation characterized by sudden onset of chest pain after vomiting, tachycardia, decreased air entry, and a crunching sound on heart auscultation (Hamman's sign). The classic triad includes wretching, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Barrett's esophagus and what is the pathognomonic feature of this condition on biopsy?

<p>Barrett's esophagus is a condition where the normal squamous epithelium lining the esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium, similar to the intestines. Goblet cells are pathognomonic for Barrett's esophagus and are identified on biopsy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical structure is the site of development for Zenker's diverticulum and what are the earliest and most common complications?

<p>Zenker's diverticulum develops at Killian-Dehiscence, a potential space between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. Regurgitation is the earliest symptom, while aspiration pneumonitis is the most common complication.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the diagnostic procedure that confirms Hirschsprung's disease?

<p>Rectal biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name the system used for classifying perianal fistulas.

<p>Parks system</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common surgical approach for rectal prolapse?

<p>Delorme procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended investigation for suspected gallstones?

<p>Ultrasound</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic feature of Mirizzi syndrome?

<p>Adherence between the gallbladder and the common bile duct</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common location for obstruction in a patient with gallstone ileus?

<p>Terminal ileum or the last 60 cm of the ileum</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a pigtail catheter in managing a bile leak after laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

<p>To drain the collection</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice for CBD stones?

<p>MRCP (Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial arrhythmia associated with pneumoperitoneum?

<p>Sinus bradycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum?

<p>Varies needles are specifically designed for pneumoperitoneum creation with a beveled edge and stop valve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely enzyme to be elevated in a patient with suspected pancreatitis?

<p>Lipase</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the surgical procedure performed for periampullary cancers?

<p>Whipple's procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common complication of the Whipple's procedure?

<p>Anastomotic leak</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common location for pancreatic pseudocysts?

<p>Lesser sac</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the embryologic cause of annular pancreas?

<p>Failure of the ventral pancreatic bud to rotate correctly</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a protrusion of the abdominal contents through a weakened area around a stoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Parastomal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of renal stone?

<p>Calcium oxalate</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a cystic swelling in the floor of the mouth that is easily trans-illuminated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Ranula</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name a surgical procedure used to manage a congenital hydrocele.

<p>Herniotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most effective way to prevent surgical wound infections?

<p>Hand hygiene</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common subtype of malignant melanoma?

<p>Superficial spreading melanoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of renal stone is most commonly seen in alkaline urine and is often associated with infection?

<p>Struvite or staghorn stones</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate time to administer prophylactic antibiotics before surgery?

<p>Prophylactic antibiotics are most effective when administered shortly before the surgical procedure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common organ injured in blunt abdominal trauma?

<p>The spleen is a fragile organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and is often injured in blunt abdominal trauma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most commonly injured organ in seat belt syndrome?

<p>Seat belt syndrome typically involves injury to the mesentery of the small bowel due to the pressure of the seat belt.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the investigation of choice for a breast lump?

<p>A core needle biopsy is preferred over fine-needle aspiration for the investigation of breast lumps as it provides a larger tissue sample for diagnosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most commonly injured organ in penetrating abdominal trauma?

<p>The liver is a large, vascular organ that is vulnerable to injury in penetrating abdominal trauma.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of hydrocele?

<p>Primary vaginal hydrocele is the most common type, affecting the tunica vaginalis of the testicle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of skin cancer is also known as rodent ulcer?

<p>Basal cell carcinoma is a common type of skin cancer that is often described as a rodent ulcer due to its appearance and behavior.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best treatment for a ranula?

<p>Excision is the preferred treatment for ranulas as it removes the source of the cyst and reduces the risk of recurrence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the characteristics of a T4b classification for breast cancer.

<p>T4b classification of breast cancer refers to skin involvement, characterized by a prominent peau d’orange appearance of the breast, ulceration, satellite nodules, or orange peel appearance, or ulceration. Retraction and dimpling are not considered skin involvement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying mechanism behind Frey's syndrome, and what anatomical structure is primarily affected?

<p>Frey's syndrome occurs when nerve endings from the superficial lobe of the parotid gland, which is often removed during surgery, grow into the skin. This results in sweating on the cheek during meals, as the sweat glands are stimulated by the parasympathetic nerves.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes chest wall involvement (T4a) in locally advanced breast cancer from simply involving the pectoralis muscle?

<p>Chest wall involvement (T4a) in locally advanced breast cancer extends beyond the pectoralis muscle, indicating invasion of other structures within the chest wall.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the specific difference between T3N1M0 and T4N0N2 in locally advanced breast cancer, particularly in relation to the "N" (nodes) stage?

<p>T3N1M0 indicates that the tumor is larger than T2 (greater than 5cm), and involves 1-3 axillary lymph nodes, but there is no distant metastasis (M0). Conversely, T4N0N2 indicates a tumor size of T4 or greater, with no involvement of axillary lymph nodes, but 2 or more distinct lymph nodes outside the axilla.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the rationale behind covering the surgical area with a digastric or stylohyoid muscle flap in Frey's Syndrome.

<p>The digastric or stylohyoid muscle flap acts as a barrier, preventing the regrowth of nerve endings from the parotid gland into the skin, thereby reducing the risk of gustatory sweating (Frey's Syndrome) after parotid gland surgery.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Gas Under Diaphragm

Indicated by x-ray in peritonitis cases, often requiring laparotomy.

Rebound Tenderness

A sign that indicates peritonitis, caused by inflammation.

Foreign Body in the Esophagus

Shows difficulty swallowing in a child; confirmed via x-ray.

Esophageal Constrictions

Three narrow spots in the esophagus common for obstruction.

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GERD Diagnosis

24-hour pH monitoring is the gold standard for diagnosing GERD.

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Imperforate Anus

Diagnosed using an invertogram, assessing distances for anomalies.

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Esophageal Varices

Enlarged veins in esophagus, likely the cause of hematemesis and melena.

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Dumping Syndrome

Symptoms like dizziness after eating in patients post-gastric surgery.

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Carcinoma Esophagus

Cancer of the esophagus characterized by symptoms like dysphagia and weight loss.

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Achalasia Cardia

A condition where the esophagus fails to relax properly affecting swallowing.

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Endoscopic Biopsy

A procedure to obtain tissue samples for diagnosing cancers like esophageal cancer.

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Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

A narrowing of the pylorus, leading to non-bilious vomiting in infants.

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Mushroom Sign

A radiological sign seen in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis indicating an abnormal pylorus.

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B12 Deficiency

Common after total gastrectomy, leading to megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms.

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Clostridium Difficile

Bacteria causing diarrhea after antibiotic use, leading to pseudomembranous colitis.

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Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

A motility disorder of the esophagus marked by intermittent chest pain and dysphagia.

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Sister Mary Joseph's Nodule

A periumbilical nodule indicating metastasis from abdominal cancers.

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Bariatric Surgery

Surgical procedures to aid weight loss, predominantly sleeve gastrectomy.

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Portal Hypertension

Increased blood pressure in the portal venous system, associated with liver disease.

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TLO Triad

A clinical sign associated with mesenteric cysts featuring periumbilical lump, resonance, and findings.

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Hypochloremic Metabolic Alkalosis

A metabolic disorder found in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to electrolyte imbalances.

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Laparoscopic Sleeve Gastrectomy

The most commonly performed bariatric surgery aimed at reducing stomach size.

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Hirschsprung's Disease

A congenital condition involving absence of ganglion cells in part of the colon, causing constipation.

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Perianal Abscess

A localized collection of pus near the anus, often needing drainage.

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Parks Classification

A system to classify perianal fistulas based on their anatomy.

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Rectal Prolapse

Protrusion of the rectal mucosa through the anus.

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Pilonidal Sinus

A cyst in the natal cleft, often seen in people who sit a lot.

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Thrombosed Hemorrhoids

Swollen hemorrhoids that are painful due to clot formation.

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Cholecystocholedochal Fistula

An abnormal connection between the gallbladder and common bile duct, often forming due to obstructing stones.

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Mirizzi Syndrome

A condition where gallstones obstruct the cystic duct, causing dilation of the common bile duct.

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Regurgitation's Triad

Classic symptoms of gallstone ileus: pneumobilia, bowel obstruction, and radiopaque shadow.

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Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy

A minimally invasive surgery to remove the gallbladder, often leading to bile leaks.

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Pancreatitis

Inflammation of the pancreas, typically presenting with severe abdominal pain and elevated lipase levels.

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Whipple's Procedure

A complex surgery for periampullary cancers, involving removal of pancreas head, duodenum, and stomach part.

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Pancreatic Pseudocyst

A fluid-filled cavity near the pancreas, often following pancreatitis.

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Annular Pancreas

A rare condition where the pancreas encircles the duodenum due to improper rotation during development.

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Parastomal Hernia

An abdominal protrusion through a weakened area around a stoma.

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Inguinal Hernia

A protrusion of tissue through the inguinal canal in the groin area.

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Umbilical Hernia

A hernia at the umbilicus with an inverted appearance.

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Omphalocele

A birth defect where intestinal organs protrude through the umbilicus, covered by a membrane.

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Marjolin's Ulcer

A squamous cell carcinoma resulting from a long-standing venous ulcer or burn.

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Basal Cell Carcinoma

A type of skin cancer with pearly white margins that invades locally.

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ABCDE Rule (Melanoma)

A guideline to identify suspicious moles based on Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, and Evolution.

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Non-Contrast CT for Renal Stones

The preferred imaging method for diagnosing renal stones.

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Hydrocele Treatment

Usually managed with herniotomy for congenital hydrocele.

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Duct Papilloma

A benign tumor of a milk duct, often presenting with bloody discharge.

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BI-RADS System

A system for categorizing breast imaging findings to guide management.

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Breast Lump Investigation

Core needle biopsy is the investigation of choice for breast lumps.

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Prophylactic Antibiotics Timing

Administered 30 minutes to 1 hour before surgery to prevent infections.

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Wound Infection Prevention

Effective hand hygiene is key to preventing surgical wound infections.

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Dumping Syndrome Prevention

To prevent dumping syndrome, eat small meals, avoid sugar-rich liquids, and liquids with meals.

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Bariatric Surgery Complications

Common complications include iron, vitamin B12, calcium, and vitamin D3 deficiencies.

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Trichobezoar

A hairball in the stomach, linked to trichophagia, needing psychiatric referral.

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Peritonitis Signs

Acute abdominal pain and gas under the diaphragm suggest peritonitis.

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Mallory-Weiss Tear

Self-limiting tear in lower esophagus with hematemesis due to stress or vomiting.

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TNM Staging

A cancer staging system using Tumor, Node, and Metastasis categories.

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Nutcracker Esophagus

Condition with increased esophageal pressure causing chest pain and dysphagia.

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McBurney's Point

The site of maximum tenderness in acute appendicitis, on the right side.

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Acute Cholecystitis

Inflammation of the gallbladder causing right hypochondrial pain and vomiting.

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Appendicular Abscess

Formation of abscess post-appendicitis requiring drainage after conservative management fails.

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Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

A defect allowing abdominal organs into the thorax, common type is Bochdalek hernia.

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Boerhaave Syndrome

Spontaneous esophageal perforation with chest pain and Hamman's sign.

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Barrett's Esophagus

Metaplasia of esophageal epithelium, replaced by columnar epithelium.

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Zenker's Diverticulum

A false diverticulum caused by Killian-Dehiscence, leading to regurgitation.

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Locally Advanced Breast Cancer

Includes classifications such as T3N1M0, T4N0N2, and T4N3.

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Inflammatory Breast Cancer

Denoted by T4d; causes swelling and redness in breast tissue.

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Chest Wall Involvement

Involvement of the chest wall does not include the pectoralis muscle (T4a).

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Frey's Syndrome

Gustatory sweating occurs after parotid gland surgery due to nerve growth into the skin.

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Prevention of Frey's Syndrome

Using a digastric or stylohyoid muscle flap during surgery can prevent this syndrome.

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Small Bowel Obstruction

A condition where the small intestine is blocked, causing inability to pass feces.

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X-ray findings in SBO

Dilated small bowel loops arranged in a stepladder pattern on X-ray indicate small bowel obstruction.

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Initial Investigation for SBO

The preferred methods are erect and supine X-ray of the abdomen to detect obstruction.

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Cecum Assessment in Surgery

The cecum is the first structure assessed during surgery for suspected bowel obstruction.

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Ileocecal Tuberculosis

Characterized by low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, and a specific barium meal finding.

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Paralytic Ileus

A condition where bowel muscles temporarily stop working, shown by X-ray with distended bowel.

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Meckel's Diverticulum

A true diverticulum located 2 feet from the ileocecal junction, often presenting with bleeding.

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Sigmoid Volvulus

Twisting of the sigmoid colon causing obstruction, often showing 'coffee bean' on X-ray.

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Duodenal Atresia

Congenital blockage of the duodenum, indicated by bilious vomiting and 'double bubble' sign on X-ray.

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Colonoscopy in Colorectal Cancer

A procedure to visualize the entire colon for tumors when suspicious symptoms are present.

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Persistent Vitellointestinal Duct

A condition in newborns where the vitellointestinal duct doesn't close, leading to discharge from the umbilicus.

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Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

An inherited condition characterized by polyp growth and dark spots around the mouth.

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Ulcerative Colitis

Inflammatory bowel disease presenting with blood and mucus in stool, involving rectal inflammation.

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Ileostomy vs. Colostomy

An ileostomy has two openings while a colostomy is flush with the skin.

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Study Notes

Gas Under Diaphragm

  • A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol consumption presents to the emergency room with severe abdominal pain, tachycardia, hypertension, and rebound tenderness.
  • Rebound tenderness signals peritonitis.
  • Gas under the diaphragm on X-ray indicates peritonitis, suggesting a hollow viscus perforation.
  • Treatment involves intravenous fluids and immediate laparotomy (opening the abdomen to explore).
  • Massive gas under the diaphragm is also known as the "football sign."

Foreign Body in the Esophagus

  • A baby presents with difficulty swallowing.
  • X-ray shows a foreign body lodged in the esophagus.
  • The trachea lies anterior to the esophagus; the foreign body sits behind the trachea, confirming esophageal location.
  • Difficulty swallowing points to a foreign body in the esophagus.
  • The esophagus has three constrictions: 15cm, 25cm, and 40cm from the upper incisors.
  • The narrowest constriction is at 15cm, corresponding to the pharyngoesophageal junction (C6).
  • Other constrictions occur at the arch of the aorta and where the esophagus pierces the diaphragm.

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

  • The gold standard investigation for GERD is 24-hour pH monitoring.
  • Endoscopy is the preferred investigation for GERD.

Imperforate Anus

  • An invertogram diagnoses imperforate anus or anorectal malformations.
  • The patient is inverted, with a metallic pointer placed at the suspected anal opening.
  • An X-ray reveals the gas shadow and marker.
  • A distance less than 2cm between the gas shadow and marker indicates a low anorectal malformation; a distance greater than 2cm suggests a high malformation.

Esophageal Varices

  • A chronic alcoholic patient with liver disease presents with hematemesis and melena.
  • Esophageal varices is the most likely cause.
  • Variceal bleeding causes hematemesis and melena.
  • Mallory-Weiss tear, sometimes seen in alcoholics, usually resolves spontaneously.

Dumping Syndrome

  • A patient after gastric surgery experiences dizziness, headache, and sweating 40 minutes post-meal.
  • Late dumping syndrome is the likely diagnosis.
  • Late dumping results from rebound hypoglycemia, typically starting 30-40 minutes after eating.
  • Early dumping, in contrast, begins within 10-15 minutes due to rapid fluid influx into the small intestine.
  • Food often ameliorates late dumping symptoms.
  • To prevent dumping syndrome:
    • Eat small, frequent meals.
    • Avoid sugar-rich liquids and simple sugars.
    • Avoid liquids with meals.

Bariatric Surgery Complications

  • Iron deficiency is a common complication of bariatric surgery.
  • Other common complications include vitamin B12 deficiency, calcium deficiency, and vitamin D3 deficiency.

Trichobezoar

  • A patient has a trichobezoar, a hairball in the stomach.
  • Trichobezoars form due to trichophagia, a psychiatric condition of hair-eating.
  • Patients with trichobezoars need psychiatric referral.

Achalasia Cardia

  • A 25-year-old female presents with dysphagia.
  • A barium swallow shows a gradual tapering (bird's beak appearance) of the esophagus, consistent with achalasia cardia.

Peritonitis

  • A patient with acute abdominal pain, guarding, and gas under the diaphragm shows signs of peritonitis.
  • Gas under the diaphragm suggests a hollow viscus perforation.
  • Massive gas under the diaphragm is also known as the "football sign."

Mallory-Weiss Tear

  • A young alcoholic male presents with hematemesis, which resolves spontaneously.
  • The diagnosis is Mallory-Weiss tear, a self-limiting tear in the lower esophagus, extending into the cardia.
  • The left gastric artery bleeds in Mallory-Weiss tear.

Cancer Staging

  • Bladder cancer, testicular cancer, and oral cancer use TNM staging.
  • Gastric cancer uses Borrmann staging and Japanese classification (early gastric cancer).

Nutcracker Esophagus

  • Nutcracker esophagus involves heightened esophageal pressure, leading to chest pain and dysphagia.

Appendicitis

  • Appendicitis is a frequently tested topic.
  • Maximum pain in appendicitis is at McBurney's point, located at the junction of the lateral one-third and medial two-thirds of a line from anterior superior iliac spine to umbilicus.
  • McBurney's point is the site of maximum tenderness in appendicitis.
  • The psoas sign appears when hip extension or flexion against resistance elicits pain.
  • The obturator sign appears when hip flexion and internal rotation cause pain.

Cholecystitis

  • A female patient presents with right hypochondrial pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and guarding in the right hypochondrium.
  • Acute cholecystitis, an inflammation of the gallbladder, is the likely diagnosis.
  • The gallbladder lies in the right hypochondrium.
  • Right hypochondrial pain can also stem from pancreatitis (pain radiating to the back, relieved by bending forward).
  • Ultrasound is the investigation of choice for cholecystitis.
  • A post-acoustic shadow on an ultrasound indicates a gallstone.
  • A polyp does not display a post-acoustic shadow.

Appendicular Lump

  • A 25-year-old patient with right iliac fossa pain and vomiting, initially managed conservatively, later develops worsening pain and fever, requiring extraperitoneal drainage under ultrasound.
  • This suggests appendicular abscess formation from the original appendicular lump, managed initially conservatively.
  • The Asna Sharin regime is the strategy used in conservative management of appendicular lumps, failing which extraperitoneal drainage is needed.
  • Six weeks after resolution with conservative management, an interval appendectomy is recommended.

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

  • A newborn child presents with a scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress.
  • X-ray reveals bowel in the thorax, indicative of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, where a diaphragmatic hole allows abdominal organs into the thoracic cavity.
  • Bochdalek hernia (left posterolateral) is the most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
  • Moegk hernia is on the right anteromedial side.
  • Scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress are frequent features.
  • Pulmonary hypoplasia (impaired lung development) is a common cause of death in these patients.

Boerhaave Syndrome

  • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden chest pain after vomiting, tachycardia, decreased left-sided air entry, and a crunching sound (Hamman's sign) on auscultation.
  • Boerhaave syndrome, a spontaneous esophageal perforation, is the likely diagnosis.
  • Boerhaave syndrome is most common in the left posterolateral esophagus and often affects alcoholic individuals.
  • The patient typically presents with the Mackler triad: wretching, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema.
  • Hamman's sign (crunching sound) is audible.
  • A contrast study is used in diagnosis.

Barrett's Esophagus

  • Barrett's esophagus involves the replacement of the squamous esophageal epithelium with columnar epithelium (similar to the intestine).
  • This is known as metaplasia.
  • Specialized intestinal metaplasia is another term for Barrett's esophagus.
  • Biopsy of Barrett's esophagus shows goblet cells, pathognomonic for the condition.

Zenker's Diverticulum

  • Killian-Dehiscence (space between thyropharyngeus & cricopharyngeus muscles) is where Zenker's diverticulum (false diverticulum) develops.
  • Zenker's diverticulum starts in the midline posteriorly but later shifts to the left.
  • The first symptom is usually regurgitation; aspiration pneumonitis is the most common complication.

Carcinoma Esophagus

  • A 40-year-old female presents with progressive dysphagia (solids & liquids), weight loss, and esophageal narrowing on barium swallow.
  • This suggests either achalasia cardia or esophageal carcinoma.
  • Upper GI endoscopy and esophageal manometry differentiate between the two.
  • Endoscopy assesses for cancer; manometry checks motility disorders.

Esophageal Disorders - Investigations

  • Endoscopy is the preferred GERD investigation.
  • Endoscopic biopsy assesses for cancer.
  • CT with oral contrast investigates hiatal hernia.
  • Barium swallow assesses for Zenker's diverticulum.
  • Esophageal manometry investigates achalasia cardia and other motility disorders.

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

  • A 3-week-old male develops idiopathic hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
  • Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents around the third week of life.
  • Males are affected more often than females, particularly firstborn males.
  • The metabolic abnormality in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, due to reduced nitric oxide synthase levels.
  • String sign, double track sign, and mushroom sign are radiological findings on a contrast swallow study.
  • Normal saline with dextrose and KCl is the fluid of choice.
  • Potassium replacement begins when adequate urine output is established.

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (Continued)

  • A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious vomiting.
  • This indicates obstruction before bile enters the duodenum.
  • The mushroom sign on ultrasound confirms hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
  • Ultrasound is the preferred investigation for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
  • Optimal examination is during feeding.

Post-Gastrectomy Anemia

  • A 45-year-old female with total gastrectomy (6-7 years prior) now shows anemia and neurological symptoms.
  • Megaloblastic anemia (vitamin B12 deficiency) is the most likely type.
  • Iron deficiency anemia (most common post-gastrectomy) usually does not present with neurological symptoms.
  • Other post-gastrectomy deficiencies include vitamin B12, vitamin D3, and iron.

Terminal Ileum Removal and B12 Deficiency

  • Terminal ileum removal due to Crohn's disease leads to vitamin B12 deficiency.
  • The terminal ileum is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.

Clostridium Difficile

  • Prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotic use in a patient leads to diarrhea.
  • Clostridium difficile is the likely causative organism.
  • Clostridium difficile can cause pseudomembranous colitis or diarrhea, linked to alterations in gut flora from broad-spectrum antibiotics.
  • Oral vancomycin often treats Clostridium difficile infection.

Mesenteric Cyst

  • A periumbilical lump moving at right angles to the umbilical attachment is suggestive of a mesenteric cyst. This is highly suggestive of a mesenteric cyst.
  • The most common type is a chylous cyst.
  • The TLO triad characterizes mesenteric cysts.
  • The TLO triad includes:
    • Periumbilical lump, movable at right angles to umbilical attachment
    • Transverse band of resonance associated with the lump.

Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

  • A 45-year-old female with dysphagia and intermittent chest pain, exhibiting a "corkscrew" appearance on barium swallow, has diffuse esophageal spasm.
  • Diffuse esophageal spasm can mimic myocardial infarction symptoms.
  • The "corkscrew" appearance on barium swallow characterizes diffuse esophageal spasm.
  • Bird beak is for achalasia cardia.
  • Rat tail is for carcinoma esophagus.

Sister Mary Joseph's Nodule

  • A gastric cancer patient develops a nodule above the umbilicus, known as Sister Mary Joseph's nodule, indicating periumbilical metastasis.
  • Sister Mary Joseph's nodule is an uncommon, advanced cancer presentation.

Atypical Presentations of Advanced Cancers

  • Irish nodule: Left axillary lymphadenopathy
  • Virchow's node (Troisier's sign): Left supraclavicular lymph node, often seen with advanced GI cancers.
  • Troisier's syndrome: Migratory thrombophlebitis, often linked to pancreatic cancer.
  • Blumer's shelf: Metastasis to the pouch of Douglas.
  • Sister Mary Joseph's nodule: Periumbilical metastasis.
  • Krukenberg's tumor: Bilateral ovarian metastasis (often associated with gastric or breast cancer).
  • Lesser's triad: Multiple seborrheic keratosis.
  • Tri-Palms: Hyperkeratotic palms.

Bariatric Surgery Procedures

  • Laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy (most common).
  • Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (most acceptable).
  • Gastric banding (reversible).

Esophageal Hemorrhage

  • Intravenous propranolol is not used to manage esophageal hemorrhage.
  • Oral propranolol can be used prophylactically against esophageal hemorrhage but not intravenously.

Portal Hypertension

  • The hepatic venous pressure gradient measures portal hypertension.
  • A gradient of 6-10 mmHg indicates preclinical sinusoidal portal hypertension.
  • A gradient exceeding 10 mmHg is clinically significant portal hypertension.
  • A gradient greater than 12 mmHg increases the risk of variceal rupture.

Small Bowel Obstruction

  • An elderly female with non-passage of feces and bilious vomiting shows dilated small bowel loops in a stepladder pattern on X-ray, indicative of small bowel obstruction.
  • The "feathery appearance" on supine X-ray is from complete valvulae conniventes extending between walls

Small Bowel Obstruction (Continued)

  • The initial investigation for suspected small bowel obstruction is an erect and supine abdominal X-ray.
  • More than three air-fluid levels on an erect X-ray suggest obstruction.
  • The supine film helps locate the obstruction's site.
  • Initial small bowel obstruction management involves:
    • Nil per oral (NPO).
    • Intravenous (IV) fluids.
    • IV antibiotics.
    • Pain relief.
    • Nasogastric tube placement.

Small Bowel Obstruction (Continued)

  • During small bowel obstruction surgery, the cecum is assessed first.
  • A collapsed cecum suggests small bowel obstruction; a distended cecum signals large bowel obstruction.

Ileocecal Tuberculosis

  • A patient with low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, and a "swan neck deformity" (pulled-up ileocecal junction) on barium meal follow-through likely has ileocecal tuberculosis.

Paralytic Ileus

  • Post-abdominal surgery, distended bowel on X-ray suggests paralytic ileus (temporary cessation of bowel muscle function).
  • Common cause: Hypokalemia.

Meckel's Diverticulum

  • A 2-foot lesion proximal to the ileocecal junction during appendectomy is Meckel's diverticulum (true diverticulum containing all layers).
  • Meckel's diverticulum is present in approximately 2% of the population.
  • It's typically located 2 feet from the ileocecal junction.
  • Common presentation in children: Bleeding (often from ectopic gastric mucosa).
  • Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan is used for diagnosis.
  • Meckel's diverticulum typically resolves spontaneously.
  • In adults, the most common presentation: Intussusception causing obstruction.
  • Radiographic findings: claw sign and target sign (also on ultrasound).

Sigmoid Volvulus

  • "Coffee bean" appearance on imaging suggests sigmoid volvulus, a possible cause of bowel obstruction.
  • "Bent inner tube" sign is another radiographic finding in sigmoid volvulus.
  • Contrast study might reveal "birds beak" sign in sigmoid volvulus.

Duodenal Atresia

  • Bilious vomiting and a double bubble sign on X-ray indicate duodenal atresia (obstruction distal to second part of duodenum).
  • Duodenal atresia requires duodenoduodenostomy.

Jejunal Atresia

  • A "triple bubble" sign on X-ray is characteristic of jejunal atresia.

Ileostomy

  • Two openings in the right iliac fossa indicate a loop ileostomy.
  • One opening suggests an end ileostomy.
  • Ileostomies are typically elevated above the skin surface.
  • Colostomies are flush with the skin.

Ileostomy Complications

  • Skin excoriation is a common ileostomy complication.
  • The most common long-term colostomy complication is parastomal hernia.

Carcinoid Tumor

  • Abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea plus elevated serum serotonin levels suggest a carcinoid tumor.

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

  • Recurrent intussusceptions in a 19-year-old with an arborizing polyp on histopathology suggest Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
  • Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is linked to LKB1/STK11 gene mutations on chromosome 19.
  • Jejunum is the most common site of involvement.
  • Perioral melanosis (dark spots around the mouth) is present.

Ulcerative Colitis

  • Blood and mucus in stool, rectal inflammation, and crypt abscesses on sigmoidoscopy confirm ulcerative colitis.
  • Rectal involvement is prominent in ulcerative colitis.
  • Crohn's disease usually affects the ileum.
  • Ulcerative colitis causes continuous inflammation; Crohn's disease shows skip lesions.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

  • Peritonitis and ileal perforation in inflammatory bowel disease patients require ileostomy for initial management, followed by definitive surgery.

Colorectal Cancer

  • Bleeding per rectum and a suspicious rectal mass in a 70-year-old necessitate colonoscopy for diagnosis, visualizing the whole colon and identifying potential multiple tumors.

Vitellointestinal Duct

  • Greenish-yellow discharge from the umbilicus in a 3-day-old child suggests a persistent vitellointestinal duct.
  • The vitellointestinal duct (connects small bowel to umbilicus) typically closes in utero.
  • A persistent vitellointestinal duct can cause fecal leakage from the umbilicus.
  • Persistent intestinal end can form Meckel's diverticulum.
  • Persistent umbilical end causes greenish-yellow discharge.
  • Urine drainage from the umbilicus suggests a persistent urachus.

Hirschsprung's Disease

  • Chronic constipation, delayed meconium passage, and response to stool softeners in a 5-year-old suggest Hirschsprung's disease (absence of ganglion cells in a colon segment).
  • Diagnosis confirmed with barium enema and anorectal manometry.

Perianal Abscess and Fistula

  • Perianal abscess with drainage indicates a perianal fistula.
  • Improper drainage can cause an abscess to progress to a fistula.
  • Parks system classifies perianal fistulas.
  • Intersphincteric fistula is the most common type.

Perianal Disorders

  • Rectal prolapse: Rectal mucosa protrudes through the anus.
  • Pilonidal sinus ("Jeep driver disease"): Cysts and sinuses in the natal cleft.
  • Thrombosed hemorrhoids: Swollen and painful hemorrhoids.
  • Anal fissure: Tear in anal lining.
  • Chronic anal fissures: Associated with skin tags.
  • Hemorrhoids typically cause painless bleeding.

Perianal Fistula

  • Perianal itching, soaked underwear, and purulent discharge in a male patient indicate a perianal fistula.
  • Multiple openings are common in perianal fistulas.
  • Parks classification system is used for perianal fistulas.

Rectal Prolapse

  • Purse-string suture (Delorme procedure or wiring): Common surgical procedure for rectal prolapse (perianal procedure).
  • Rectopexy: Abdominal procedure for rectal prolapse.

Gallstones

  • Ultrasound is the preferred investigation for gallstones.
  • Post-acoustic shadow on ultrasound indicates gallstones.
  • Porcelain gallbladder (calcified gallbladder wall) increases cancer risk.

Mirizzi syndrome

  • Gallstones abutting the cystic duct and common hepatic duct dilation suggest Mirizzi syndrome (gallbladder-common bile duct adhesion).
  • The gallstone obstructs the common bile duct, causing common hepatic duct dilation.
  • Cholecystocholedochal fistula forms (gallbladder-common bile duct fistula).

Regurgitation's Triad

  • Regurgitation's triad is associated with gallstone ileus (a gallstone obstructing the bowel due to a cholecystoenteric fistula, affecting the terminal ileum or last 60cm).
  • Pneumobilia (air in the biliary tree).
  • Small bowel obstruction symptoms.
  • Radiopaque shadow in the right iliac fossa.

Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy

  • Post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy fever, tachycardia, and a right hypochondrial collection on ultrasound suggest a bile leak.
  • Management often involves a pigtail catheter placement.
  • Investigations for biliary disorders:
    • Ultrasound: For gallstones.
    • MRCP (Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography): For CBD stones.
    • Endoscopic ultrasound: For CBD stones detection and treatment.
    • ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography): For diagnostic and therapeutic CBD stone management.

Bile Leak After Cholecystectomy

  • Stable patients with bile leaks (within 3 days) can be monitored.
  • Symptomatic bile leaks (past 3 days) require re-exploration and pigtail catheter placement.

Common Bile Duct (CBD) Stones

  • Multiple gallstones, CBD diameter >12 mm, elevated serum bilirubin, and elevated ALP necessitate MRCP.

Pneumoperitoneum

  • Pneumoperitoneum is created during laparoscopy.
  • This is associated with:
    • Increased intracranial pressure.
    • Sinus bradycardia (initial arrhythmia, vagal stimulation).
    • Hypotension.

Pneumoperitoneum (Continued)

  • The diaphragm is pushed upwards, decreasing thoracic volume.
  • The Veress needle facilitates pneumoperitoneum.
  • A Veress needle features a stop valve and a beveled edge.

Pancreatitis

  • An alcoholic patient with severe abdominal pain and suspected pancreatitis shows pancreatic collection.
  • The most likely elevated enzyme: Lipase.
  • Amylase is also elevated.
  • Initial investigations: Lipase and amylase analysis.

Whipple's Procedure

  • Whipple's procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is for periampullary cancers.
  • It involves removing the pancreatic head, duodenum, and part of the stomach.
  • "Rooftop" or "Chevron" incision is used.
  • Three anastomoses:
    • Gastrojejunostomy (stomach-jejunum).
    • Choledochojejunostomy (bile duct-jejunum).
    • Pancreaticojejunostomy (pancreas-jejunum).
  • Most common complication: Anastomotic leak (especially pancreaticojejunostomy).

Pancreatic Pseudocyst

  • A 25-year-old alcoholic male with epigastric pain radiating to the back, and a palpable epigastric lump, supported by CT evidence of a peripancreatic collection, suggests a pancreatic pseudocyst (fluid-filled collection near pancreas).
  • Common location: Lesser sac.

Annular Pancreas

  • Pancreas wrapping around the duodenum indicates annular pancreas.
  • Annular pancreas arises from incorrect rotation of the ventral pancreatic bud.
  • This typically causes a circular band of pancreatic tissue around the second part of the duodenum.
  • It can lead to projectile vomiting and the "double bubble" sign on X-ray.

Parastomal Hernia

  • A parastomal hernia is a protrusion of abdominal contents through a weakened area surrounding a stoma.

Inguinal Hernia

  • Inguinal hernia involves protrusion through the inguinal canal.

Umbilical Hernia

  • Umbilical hernia is a protrusion through the abdominal wall at the umbilicus.
  • Umbilical hernias are distinguished from parastomal hernias by the inverted umbilicus.

Omphalocele

  • Newborn herniation of bowel and liver through the umbilicus, covered by a membrane, characterizes omphalocele (congenital defect).
  • Omphalocele is covered by a peritoneum-derived membrane.
  • Gastroschisis (abdominal contents beside the umbilicus) is not covered.

Marjolin's Ulcer

  • Long-standing venous ulcer can become a Marjolin's ulcer (squamous cell carcinoma).
  • Burn scars can also develop Marjolin's ulcers.
  • Marjolin's ulcers have raised, inverted margins.

Skin Cancers

  • Basal cell carcinoma (BCC): Also known as rodent ulcer, pearly white rolled-out margins, local invasion.
  • Malignant melanoma:
    • Most common: Superficial spreading.
    • Best prognosis: Lentigo maligna.
    • Worst prognosis: Nodular.
    • Common in dark-skinned individuals: Acral lentiginous.
  • ABCDE rule:
    • Asymmetry: Uneven shape.
    • Border: Irregular/ragged edges.
    • Color: Variations in color.
    • Diameter: > 6mm.
    • Evolving: Changing size, shape, or color.

Penetrating Abdominal Trauma

  • Penetrating abdominal trauma:
    • The liver is the most commonly injured organ.
    • Leiomyotomy (opening the abdomen) is indicated in penetrating abdominal trauma when:
      • Rebound tenderness is present.
      • Bile leakage is observed.
      • The omentum protrudes, suggesting a peritoneal breach.
    • Wounds superficial to the peritoneum can be sutured and assessed with a CT scan.

Blunt Abdominal Trauma

  • The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma..

Seat Belt Syndrome

  • Mesentery of small bowel is the most commonly injured organ in seat belt syndrome.

Prophylactic Antibiotics before Surgery

  • Ideal prophylactic antibiotic administration time: 30 minutes to 1 hour before surgery.

Wound Infections

  • Hand hygiene is the primary method to prevent surgical wound infections.
  • Shaving increases wound infection risk; clipping is preferred.

Ranula

  • Ranula (mucus extravasation cyst, sublingual salivary gland) presents as a cystic swelling in the floor of the mouth, which is easily trans-illuminated.
  • Ranula treatment: Excision of the sublingual gland and swelling.
  • Marsupialization is another option.
  • Incision and drainage are not recommended due to high recurrence.

Renal Stones

  • Common type: Calcium oxalate (radiopaque, acidic urine, speculated margins, sharp edges).
  • Struvite (triple phosphate) stones: Associated with alkaline and infected urine, Proteus species.
  • Cystine stones: Radiopaque, hardest, difficult to break with ESWL.
  • Uric acid stones: Radiolucent (gout, thalassemias).

Renal Stone Investigation

  • Non-contrast CT scan (NCCT) is the preferred investigation for renal stones, also suitable for salivary gland stones and head trauma.

Hydrocele

  • Congenital hydrocele (sac communicating with peritoneal cavity) treatment: Herniorrhaphy.
  • Primary vaginal hydrocele (most common type).
    • Treatment: Lord's operation or Jaboulay's procedure (inversion of the sac)

Duct Papilloma

  • Bloody discharge from a single breast duct suggests a duct papilloma.
  • Management involves microdochectomy (removal of the affected duct and mass).
  • Greenish nipple discharge arises from multiple ducts (duct ectasia).
  • Treatment for multiple ducts: Hadfield procedure (cone excision) or total duct excision.

Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS)

  • BI-RADS system documents breast radiological findings (mammograms, ultrasounds, MRIs).
  • BI-RADS 4: Suspicious lesions, core needle biopsy.
  • BI-RADS 3: Probably benign, short-term follow-up (6 months).
  • BI-RADS 0: Incomplete study, additional imaging needed.
  • BI-RADS 1: Negative, no further action.
  • BI-RADS 2: Benign findings, no biopsy needed.
  • BI-RADS 5: Highly suspicious of malignancy, core needle biopsy.

Breast Lump Investigation

  • Core needle biopsy, not fine-needle aspiration (FNAC), is the preferred investigation for breast lumps.

Locally Advanced Breast Cancer

  • Locally advanced breast cancer includes:
    • T3N1M0
    • T4N0N2
    • T4N3
  • T4d: Inflammatory breast cancer.
  • T4a: Chest wall involvement (pectoralis muscle involvement is not chest wall).
  • T4b: Skin involvement (peau d'orange, ulceration, satellite nodules, orange-peel appearance, or ulceration. Retraction or dimpling are not considered skin involvement).

Frey's Syndrome

  • Frey's syndrome (gustatory sweating) arises from nerve regeneration into the skin after parotid gland superficial lobe removal.
  • This results in cheek sweating during meals.
  • Injury to the auriculotemporal nerve does not cause Frey's syndrome.
  • Covering the surgical area with a digastric or stylohyoid muscle flap prevents Frey's syndrome.

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This quiz covers essential topics in emergency medicine, focusing on gas under the diaphragm indicating peritonitis and the management of foreign bodies in the esophagus. It includes clinical presentations, diagnostic signs, and treatment approaches critical for medical practitioners. Test your knowledge on these urgent medical conditions.

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