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Questions and Answers

Which entity is responsible for sending the closest responding fire apparatus to the location of an incident?

  • The Fire Alarm Office (correct)
  • The EMS Supervisor
  • The on-duty Fire Alarm Office Lieutenant
  • The Dispatcher
  • In the event of a situation, radio traffic should primarily be directed to which unit until the situation is contained?

  • Battalion Chief
  • 9 EMS 1
  • 9 EMS 2 (correct)
  • Fire Alarm Office
  • Which equipment should available members wear when responding to an incident?

  • Standard firefighting gear
  • Life vests
  • Communications headsets
  • Ballistic helmet and vests (correct)
  • What type of requests require a reason when submitted?

    <p>Non-emergency requests for police other than 10-3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the status of the channel marker in relation to communications?

    <p>It does not affect communications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a member is in a situation classified as a 10-57?

    <p>Initiate contact with the Fire Alarm Office without delay.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes a 10-3 response action initiated by the Fire Alarm Office?

    <p>Activate the channel marker on the channel where the 10-3 was requested.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Emergency Banner button on the radio?

    <p>To notify the Fire Alarm Office that emergency assistance is needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a member do after requesting 'Emergency' assistance?

    <p>Give their company designation and location.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions will occur if no response is received from a company after initiating an 'Emergency' call?

    <p>The dispatcher will repeat the request once before proceeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which actions are taken by the Fire Alarm Office during a 10-57 response request?

    <p>Ask for the nature of the situation and request police ETA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long must the Emergency button be depressed to effectively notify the Fire Alarm Office?

    <p>1.5 seconds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a 10-3 response is announced, what signal is activated on the communication channel?

    <p>Radio Restriction Tone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first arriving division officer at an emergency incident?

    <p>Initiate the basic incident command function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should Fixed Command be utilized during an incident?

    <p>Unless conditions dictate otherwise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario is Mobile Command appropriate?

    <p>When initial investigations reveal no immediate hazards</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome should occur when Mobile Command is chosen?

    <p>The situation should be contained rapidly or command needs to be transferred</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly defines Fixed Command?

    <p>A command structure where the incident commander maintains a fixed command location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an incident does not stabilize quickly during a Mobile Command, what should the company officer consider?

    <p>Passing command to another company not operating in the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of the first arriving officer when establishing command?

    <p>To initiate one of three command options effectively</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a situation in which Mobile Command should be considered?

    <p>Nothing visible at the scene, requiring further investigation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances should command be passed to another officer?

    <p>When immediate action is required to stabilize the situation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference between passing command and transferring command?

    <p>Passing command involves immediate active participation of the initial officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a next arriving officer obtain from the initial arriving company after command has been passed?

    <p>C.A.N. Report</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many times can command be passed during an incident?

    <p>Only once</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the dispatcher do when command is passed to the next arriving company?

    <p>Repeat the command pass message</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is necessary for the first arriving officer to retain even after command has been passed?

    <p>Responsibility for all incident command duties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario may command not be passed to another officer?

    <p>When the situation requires the officer to remain in mobile command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken by the first arriving company if they are passing command?

    <p>Notify the next company that command is being passed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information must be included in the transfer of command brief?

    <p>Incident priorities and strategic goals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action taken by the officer assuming command after the transfer of command?

    <p>Transmit a ‘Status Report’ via radio</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of command must a Columbus Fire Battalion Chief assume during working incidents within city limits?

    <p>Incident Command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a Columbus officer do if they choose to maintain command when a suburban officer is present?

    <p>Establish and maintain a Fixed Command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be transmitted in a status report after command is transferred?

    <p>The current fireground strategy and the name of the new Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If Command is Mobile, what should a Columbus Officer do regarding command transfer to a Suburban Battalion Officer?

    <p>Consider transferring command to the Suburban Battalion Officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT part of the transfer of command process?

    <p>Recalling the previous incident history</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action follows the transfer of command regarding the former incident commander?

    <p>They will be reassigned to a new role</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of organizing incidents into Divisions and Groups?

    <p>To maintain a safe and effective span-of-control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the role of a Division in incident management?

    <p>To operate within a specific geographical area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do Divisions and Groups interact in incident management?

    <p>They operate at the same command level and do not report to each other</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when a Group is assigned a task within a Division?

    <p>The Division is no longer responsible for that task</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one significant management principle affected by the organization of Divisions and Groups?

    <p>Provide accountability of division or group personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the three components of the 3T's that Division or Group Supervisors need to provide?

    <p>Team, Task, Time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might dictate the need for creating a Branch in incident management?

    <p>When the number of Divisions or Groups exceeds the span of control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an example of a Group in incident management?

    <p>Division 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of conducting a 360 size-up during a structure fire?

    <p>To determine the location and volume of fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT included in the information gathered during a 360 size-up?

    <p>Local building codes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a 360 size-up cannot be completed?

    <p>Announce it over the assigned talk group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What follows immediately after the completion of the 360 size-up?

    <p>Transmitting the Incident Action Plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of a fire scene is assessed during a 360 size-up?

    <p>Location of entry/egress points</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which order should rescue efforts be prioritized according to the size-up process?

    <p>The most severely threatened, then the largest number, followed by the remainder of the area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the focus of the initial attack efforts during a rescue operation?

    <p>Supporting rescue efforts and ensuring victim protection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended method for removing victims when possible?

    <p>Utilizing normal means of interior access like doors and hallways.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why must the Incident Commander continuously control the search companies during primary search assignments?

    <p>To guarantee that every area is thoroughly searched until an All Clear is declared.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander do with victims after their removal from danger?

    <p>Consolidate them in one location for effective triage and treatment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consideration for the Incident Commander at any incident?

    <p>Ensuring the safety of all individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which benchmark is associated with incident stabilization?

    <p>Situation Contained</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does property conservation aim to achieve during an incident?

    <p>Minimizing property damage while achieving goals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might necessitate overlapping activities during an incident?

    <p>To achieve interior tenability before fire control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sequence of priorities is correct for incident management?

    <p>Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of conducting a Primary Search?

    <p>To ensure the safety and removal of occupants from affected areas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation must the Incident Commander report that there will not be an 'All Clear'?

    <p>In fully involved buildings where occupant survival is improbable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is critical for completing a Secondary Search successfully?

    <p>Thoroughness rather than speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander do once the Primary Search is completed?

    <p>Transmit an 'All Clear' report to the fire alarm office.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a Primary Search be initiated according to the procedure outlined?

    <p>During the initial stages of fire when areas can still be entered.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the Primary Search be structured during smoke showing scenarios?

    <p>Fire control efforts must be extended simultaneously with rescue operations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the difference between Primary and Secondary Searches?

    <p>Secondary Search is conducted without urgency after the primary has been completed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is emphasized as critical during the execution of a Primary Search?

    <p>Rapid completion of the search in affected areas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the incident commander evaluate when determining a fire control strategy?

    <p>The potential to save lives or property</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition should activities that present a significant risk to members be limited?

    <p>When there is a potential to save endangered lives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is no risk to the safety of members considered acceptable?

    <p>When there is no possibility to save lives or property</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key principle regarding activities aimed at protecting property?

    <p>They pose inherent risks to the safety of members</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In situations where the risk to fire department members is excessive, what action should be taken?

    <p>Limit activities to defensive operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered by the Incident Commander when determining the appropriate fire control strategy?

    <p>Weather conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Offensive Strategy during a fire incident?

    <p>To initiate an interior fire attack</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a step taken in a Defensive Strategy?

    <p>Establish collapse zones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is a Defensive Strategy deemed appropriate during fire suppression operations?

    <p>When there is no ability to save lives or property</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which step is NOT part of the Offensive Strategy's normal procedures?

    <p>Provide big, well-placed streams</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when dealing with passing fire situations?

    <p>Entering without applying water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical responsibility of the Incident Commander?

    <p>Establishing clear communication among teams</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an offensive fire attack, what must be prioritized before entry?

    <p>Cooling fire gases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be included in the Incident Action Plan (IAP) developed by the Incident Commander?

    <p>Search plan options</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What approach should be taken if a transitional attack is deemed appropriate?

    <p>Follow transitional fire attack methods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first priority in defensive operations?

    <p>Life safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario is a shift from offensive to defensive operations likely to occur?

    <p>When fire personnel are in immediate danger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done with interior lines when transitioning to a defensive attack?

    <p>They must be withdrawn and repositioned</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is an emergency evacuation process different from changing to a defensive strategy?

    <p>Emergency evacuation involves immediate personnel withdrawal, while defensive strategy does not require immediate withdrawal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the I/C communicate when initiating a defensive operation?

    <p>This will be a defensive operation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure type most likely indicates the use of a defensive operation from the onset?

    <p>A vacant building with advanced fire showing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be conducted to ensure personnel safety during defensive operations?

    <p>A personnel accountability report (PAR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Once exposure coverage is established in defensive operations, what should be the next focus?

    <p>Knocking down the main body of fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a transition from Offensive to Defensive operations?

    <p>An offensive attack is not making progress.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a priority in defensive operations?

    <p>Protecting exposures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does a situation qualify as 'Defensive from the onset'?

    <p>When advanced fire is showing with no lives at risk.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken during the announcement of a defensive attack?

    <p>All personnel should withdraw and maintain a safe perimeter.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'Situation Contained' indicate?

    <p>The fire is being controlled but not extinguished.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In defensive operations, when should extinguishing the main body of fire be prioritized?

    <p>Once exposure coverage is established.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be conducted to ensure personnel safety when changing to a defensive attack?

    <p>A Personnel Accountability Report (PAR).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is NOT a characteristic of structures eligible for defensive operations from the onset?

    <p>High-value structures with potential victims.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action that must occur once the fire is out?

    <p>Shut down the fire streams</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander prioritize after basic fire control is achieved?

    <p>Initiate loss prevention activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is early recognition of halted fire progress essential?

    <p>It minimizes water damage to the property.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be evaluated to determine the necessary resources for loss prevention?

    <p>Damaged property conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common issue might arise when transitioning to property conservation tasks?

    <p>Fatigue of personnel from previous efforts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do salvage and overhaul functions play in relation to investigations?

    <p>They should be integrated with investigative efforts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should additional resources be called for during a fire incident?

    <p>When initial alarm companies are overloaded with firefighting tasks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be the mindset of personnel during property conservation operations?

    <p>To act methodically to prevent loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first priority when considering hose line placement at an incident?

    <p>Life safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one responsibility of each engine company during an incident?

    <p>Assure an adequate supply of water for their pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors directly affect the effectiveness of hose lines?

    <p>Size, placement, speed, mobility, and supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following functions is classified as a support activity during fire operations?

    <p>Forcible entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should hose lines be advanced inside fire buildings?

    <p>To control access to channels where people and fire may travel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when forcing entry into a building during a fire incident?

    <p>Entry methods should not affect the fire flow path.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is forced entry deemed appropriate during medical runs?

    <p>If it is believed that someone is in immediate need of emergency medical care.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What trade-off must be considered when forcing entry into a building quickly?

    <p>The speed of entry versus the amount of damage incurred.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does forcible entry relate to fire ventilation?

    <p>Forcing entry allows for increased air supply to the fire.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern when forcing entry at a door during firefighting?

    <p>Control ventilation and ensure crew safety after entry.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be documented when a forcible entry is made?

    <p>The circumstances and decision to force entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition may emergency entry be refused?

    <p>If no reasonable person concludes an emergency exists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action must be taken if a CFD company forces entry and no responsible party is on scene?

    <p>Notify the local police department via the FAO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should forced entry documentation be recorded?

    <p>In the NFIRS report</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required before making a forcible entry if a laws enforcement agency is involved?

    <p>Requesting legal authority from Division personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation requires the use of a Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)?

    <p>Structure fires that are beyond control of a handheld extinguisher</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option represents an atmosphere considered Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)?

    <p>Gas leaks at residential homes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which circumstance is a supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA) permitted instead of an SCBA?

    <p>When supplied-air is warranted and feasible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario does NOT require the use of an SCBA?

    <p>Conducting an investigation in a low-risk environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of an air-purifying respirator (APR) in hazardous conditions?

    <p>To filter out specific contaminants when conditions permit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required to ensure personnel can appropriately use a respiratory protection device?

    <p>Annual quantitative fit testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT permitted when wearing a facepiece?

    <p>Having long hair that passes through the sealing surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can personnel wearing SCBA disconnect any portion of the device?

    <p>Never, in IDLH or potentially IDLH environments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should members do if they need to exit the hazard zone while using respiratory protection?

    <p>Exit with another member accompanying them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often must members be evaluated on their SCBA operations knowledge and proficiency?

    <p>Annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if members using SCBAs notice signs of fatigue?

    <p>Notify a company officer for monitoring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a quantitatively fit-tested facepiece provide?

    <p>A proper seal against contaminants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor could compromise the integrity of an SCBA?

    <p>Having facial hair that disrupts the sealing surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must personnel wear during all phases of suppression, salvage, and overhaul when operating inside a fire-exposed structure?

    <p>Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can an air-purifying respirator (APR) be used instead of an SCBA during fire cause determination?

    <p>If appropriate chemical cartridges are used</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured before removing SCBAs in below grade and confined spaces?

    <p>Atmosphere is proven to be safe through ventilation monitoring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In hazardous material incidents, when can personnel remove their SCBAs?

    <p>When the Incident Commander declares it safe</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be monitored and sampled before decontaminating the atmosphere in confined spaces?

    <p>Air quality tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate action for ensuring adequate battery power for the SCBA alarm systems?

    <p>Check both the Vibra-alert and the heads-up display.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure should be performed to verify the integrity of the SCBA components?

    <p>Test the PASS device for operational functionality.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked to confirm the proper facepiece fit on the SCBA?

    <p>Verify the facepiece-to-face seal.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element of the SCBA maintenance involves assessing the functionality of airflow features?

    <p>Testing the purge valve and checking exhalation valve function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a low battery indicator on the voice amplifier be addressed?

    <p>Test it for proper functionality due to low battery indication.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked in the hydrostatic testing of a compressed air cylinder?

    <p>The cylinder should be within five years of the previous test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions should be taken if an SCBA requires maintenance beyond the ISU Level?

    <p>Take it out of service and tag it for maintenance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the Mask Repair Section?

    <p>Perform maintenance and repairs not listed in earlier sections.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done with SCBA components before they can be reused after inspection?

    <p>They should be cleaned thoroughly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a compressed air cylinder never be carried?

    <p>By the hand wheel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be used for cleaning the facepiece of an SCBA after each use?

    <p>Scott Multi-Wash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial step before sending an SCBA to the Mask Repair Section for maintenance?

    <p>Ensuring all cleaning steps have been followed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with an SCBA used by a member exposed to toxic chemicals?

    <p>Special decontamination steps are required</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate method to store SCBA on fire apparatus?

    <p>In a secured and approved bracket</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following should never be used to clean SCBA straps and harness assemblies?

    <p>Chlorine bleach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the second stage regulator be cleaned after exposure to contaminants?

    <p>Using an approved disinfectant like Scott Multi-Wash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of storage is required for SCBA used by personnel in a single person company?

    <p>Secure storage in an approved case or bag</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be ensured regarding SCBA components before storing them?

    <p>They must be air dried thoroughly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum level of protection required when using an air-purifying respirator during EMS operations?

    <p>P-100 air-purifying respirator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstance must an air-purifying respirator be used with eye protection?

    <p>When a half-face respirator is worn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must personnel do before using an air-purifying respirator?

    <p>Complete an annual quantitative fit test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if odor or taste is detected while using an air-purifying respirator?

    <p>Immediately return to fresh air and check the fit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the use of an air-purifying respirator strictly prohibited?

    <p>While performing overhaul</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one condition that must be met for using an APR with a chemical cartridge?

    <p>Continuous air monitoring is implemented</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of protection can be assigned to personnel as determined by the Incident Commander and Hazmat Officer?

    <p>Chemical-level protection canister</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation makes the use of an air-purifying respirator inappropriate?

    <p>Conducting active overhaul activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done after each use of an air-purifying respirator according to the proper maintenance guidelines?

    <p>Clean the facepiece and check its condition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for air-purifying respirators?

    <p>Filtering smoke from combustibles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which item is specifically required for members entering the water during a rescue operation?

    <p>A fully encapsulated cold water exposure suit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of helmet is acceptable for use by shore-based personnel in water rescue operations?

    <p>Water rescue helmet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what distance from the water's edge must personnel wear appropriate water rescue PPE?

    <p>Within 15 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of Personal Flotation Device (PFD) must be approved for use during water rescue operations?

    <p>Type III/V USCG Approved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which piece of equipment is unnecessary for personnel working from a boat during a water rescue operation?

    <p>Rescue flares</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum time a member can work in water when the temperature is 76°F?

    <p>60 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the water temperature is 50°F, what is the maximum allowed work time for a member?

    <p>40 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what water temperature does the allowed work time drop to 20 minutes?

    <p>Below 40°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following temperatures would allow a member to work for 40 minutes in the water?

    <p>42°F</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of a water temperature of 75°F on work time limits for members?

    <p>Members can work for 60 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What actions must personnel take regarding their PPE after each use?

    <p>Inspect it and document findings on the PI-29 form.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about City issued turnout gear is true?

    <p>It must be cleaned and inspected annually before use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the Laundry Technician available to receive PPE in need of repair?

    <p>Monday through Friday from 0700-1500 hours.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen to gear that has been deemed unserviceable?

    <p>It should be collected and disposed of by the Support Services Bureau.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct procedure for cleaning the outer shell of the helmet?

    <p>Wash with mild soap and water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended method for cleaning structural fire gloves that are heavily soiled or contaminated?

    <p>Send to Division Laundry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of the ballistic vest should never be machine washed?

    <p>Ballistic panels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cleaning procedure for helmet liners and sweatbands after exposure to contamination?

    <p>Machine or hand wash with mild detergent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with structural fire boots worn in the hazard zone after use?

    <p>Wash them down on the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a protective hood be maintained after exposure to products of combustion?

    <p>Clean after each use and keep spare hoods available</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the procedure for sending gear to the laundry facility?

    <p>Attach suspenders and separate the outer shell from the thermal liner.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What responsibility do company officers have regarding the cleaning and inspection of PPE?

    <p>They are responsible for ensuring compliance with the annual cleaning and inspection process.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the turnaround time for gear laundering mentioned in the guidelines?

    <p>48 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should Loaner Gear be handled after use?

    <p>Loaner gear needs to be laundered and tagged in the same way as assigned gear.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition warrants immediate laundering of structural firefighting PPE?

    <p>PPE that has been exposed to contamination or hazardous materials.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if Loaner gear is requested after hours and the Facilities Coordinator is unavailable?

    <p>Reach out to SO-4 for assistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who should be contacted first when requesting Loaner turnout gear during business hours?

    <p>Laundry technician</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what circumstance might the FAO be called to authorize off-duty personnel?

    <p>When both FC and SO-4 are unavailable after hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the individual issuing the loaner gear during the process?

    <p>To follow the established SSB procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a request for Loaner gear is made during weekends or holidays, whom do you contact after hours?

    <p>Facilities Coordinator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of allocating air as an emergency reserve during firefighting operations?

    <p>To ensure firefighters have sufficient air to exit safely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should firefighters begin their exit from a structure based on their air consumption monitoring?

    <p>When the yellow LED on the HUD begins to flash at 50%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an emergency situation where immediate action could prevent loss of life, what may firefighters be allowed to do?

    <p>Remain in the hazard zone past the 75% red LED activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could lead to a significant risk for firefighters in an IDLH atmosphere?

    <p>Failure to monitor air consumption and the environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is strictly prohibited once the Vibra-alert is activated for firefighters in an IDLH environment?

    <p>Remaining in the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a necessary action when a deviation from policy occurs in high-risk environments?

    <p>Report it to the Incident Commander.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following risks is NOT associated with prolonged SCBA use?

    <p>Reduced thermal stress.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In extremely high-risk environments, when is deviation from policy permitted?

    <p>Only after a comprehensive risk/benefit analysis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a firefighter do upon depleting their air supply inside a structure?

    <p>Seek a clean air source first.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is most likely to pose a death risk to firefighters regarding air quality?

    <p>Exposure to superheated air or contaminated gases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which of the following scenarios should the PASS unit be activated?

    <p>While investigating a location that may pose a risk of structural collapse.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation would NOT require the activation of the PASS 'Alarm'?

    <p>A member experiences an air leak but is still able to navigate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which circumstance should a member activate the PASS 'Alarm'?

    <p>If the member feels lost or trapped during an operation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of activating the PASS unit before entering a potential hazard area?

    <p>To alert team members to a potential life-threatening situation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate when using the PASS unit during an incident?

    <p>Activating the PASS unit for routine checks in a secure area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which operations require an on-scene post-incident safety review according to the guidelines?

    <p>Structure fires, rescue operations, and HazMat operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Safety Officer address regarding safety during a post-incident review?

    <p>Safety related SOPs for compliance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During an on-scene review, which rule is meant to promote safety among team members?

    <p>The buddy system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary focus during the review of rescue operations?

    <p>Reviewing team communication strategies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which element is NOT explicitly mentioned as part of the safety discussion during a review?

    <p>Assessment of leadership effectiveness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of conducting a post-incident safety review?

    <p>To review operational procedures for future training</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following guidelines must the Incident Commander follow during the post-incident safety review?

    <p>Allow companies involved, regardless of their level of engagement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the Incident Commander handle companies that respond to other incidents during the review?

    <p>They should excuse companies that are required to respond to another working incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when determining which companies to include in the post-incident safety review?

    <p>Excluding companies that have minor involvement in the operation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander ensure about the companies involved in the operation during the review?

    <p>Companies should receive feedback on their specific actions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of BZS?

    <p>To ensure structures are safe for occupancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which details must be included when reporting structural problems?

    <p>Address, number of stories, and building owner’s contact</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the categories BZS uses to classify reported information?

    <p>Emergent and Non-Emergent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could indicate a structure is occupied in a report to BZS?

    <p>Occupant's contact information is provided</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT necessary to report to BZS regarding a structure?

    <p>Security system status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario would require the Incident Commander to request BZS immediately?

    <p>Possibility of the structure collapsing onto a sidewalk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the on-duty Safety Officer (SO-2) following an Emergent Hazard identification?

    <p>To post the building and secure the area if necessary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of a non-imminent hazard being found, what is the next step after notifying the FAO?

    <p>A Battalion Chief should be dispatched to the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors can categorize damage as a non-imminent hazard?

    <p>Damage from an external impact like a vehicle collision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur for the Fire Prevention Bureau to assign an inspector after a non-imminent hazard is reported?

    <p>A minimum of a Battalion Chief dispatched to the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What types of damage are considered exclusive to the non-imminent hazard section?

    <p>Weakened structures due to neglect over time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation is the Fire Alarm Office responsible for completing upon request from the Incident Commander?

    <p>Structural Damage Notification Form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What variation of action might be taken by the Safety Officer when posting a building?

    <p>Requesting law enforcement backup to secure the area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the responding company encounters hostile crowds at the scene?

    <p>Leave the area and request police response to secure it.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a hydrant cannot be shut off due to a broken stem, what is the next step to take?

    <p>Request assistance from the Water Department.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a company makes multiple responses to the same hydrant location, what protocol should be followed?

    <p>Request the police to secure the scene prior to arrival.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the proper terminology to use when requesting police assistance for a deteriorating situation?

    <p>10-57 emergency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should companies take if they are dispatched to a scene but feel the situation is dangerous?

    <p>Utilize SOP 02-01-07 for guidance on emergency calls.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action required when companies respond multiple times to the same hydrant?

    <p>Implement the Police enforcement/water shop notification procedure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should police assistance be requested at a problem hydrant flowing incident?

    <p>When multiple runs are encountered at the same location or area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of officers will the Police Division dispatch to problem hydrant incidents?

    <p>S.W.A.T. or SRB officers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What immediate action must be taken for hydrant incidents on CMHA properties?

    <p>Notify the CMHA office immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should fire companies communicate with S.W.A.T. officers during a hydrant incident?

    <p>Using the 9-Fire/Police talkgroup or other communication methods.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly defines a dwelling as per the American Red Cross?

    <p>Any structure intended to house one or more persons, regardless of construction type.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following scenarios is NOT considered a dwelling as per the provided definition?

    <p>A utility shed designed for storage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which example best illustrates a non-traditional dwelling as defined by the American Red Cross?

    <p>An RV parked at a designated camping site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of housing is emphasized in the definition of a dwelling by the American Red Cross?

    <p>The intended use for housing one or more persons.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following types of structures would be explicitly included in the definition of a dwelling?

    <p>A shipping container modified for residential purposes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition should the American Red Cross be contacted regarding a dwelling unit?

    <p>When the unit is damaged to the extent it is uninhabitable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is contacting the American Red Cross NOT necessary?

    <p>When a resident decides to stay with family temporarily</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the American Red Cross be contacted regarding loss of resources?

    <p>When there is a loss of durable medical goods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What emotional indicator suggests the need to contact the American Red Cross?

    <p>A resident exhibiting severe emotional distress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following would prompt the Columbus Division of Fire to contact the American Red Cross?

    <p>A resident experiences an injury requiring transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition is notification to the American Red Cross not needed?

    <p>When the structure is uninhabited</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation would require contacting the Red Cross for assistance?

    <p>A request for assistance from a resident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred contact number for reporting an emergency to the American Red Cross?

    <p>614-253-8888</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which case would the American Red Cross be notified despite low damage?

    <p>When residents feel unsafe regardless of damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When may the Red Cross not be contacted regarding a fire incident?

    <p>When there are children living in the home</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of CPH and ODH regarding safety?

    <p>To ensure customer and employee safety and health</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is typically the first to become aware of incidents that require notification to proper authorities?

    <p>The Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Division of Fire?

    <p>Providing (long-term) health care services</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key aspect of the responsibility shared by CPH and ODH?

    <p>Prioritizing safety and health protocols</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In an incident scenario, what is the primary duty of the Division of Fire?

    <p>To immediately notify proper authorities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action for a food service establishment if fighting a fire contaminates food or equipment?

    <p>Discontinue operations until food safety can be assured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes a non-reportable fire in a food service?

    <p>A small confined fire extinguished using a simple device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a food service is located outside the City of Columbus and requires health department assistance?

    <p>Directly contact the Department of Health (ODH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step to take in recovering from a fire incident in a food service establishment?

    <p>Implement food safety measures and consult health authorities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an incident commander believes health authorities should be notified, what is required next?

    <p>Coordinate with the Fire Alarm Office and also advise the occupant to contact health authorities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a food establishment obtain before reopening after being ordered to cease operations?

    <p>Authorization from the regulatory authority</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who should a company officer on the scene contact if they have questions or concerns?

    <p>A Battalion Chief and/or Prevention 18</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of food contamination, what is the first action required by members?

    <p>Report concerns to the local health department</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of information will health departments require for effective communication?

    <p>A point of contact for the occupancy and establishment details</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an example of food contamination that should be reported?

    <p>Routine cleaning procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Basic Module in incident reporting?

    <p>To gather common information for all incidents attended by a department.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which module must be completed if a fire incident occurs in a structure?

    <p>Structure Fire Module (NFIRS–3)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should entries in the Basic Module be completed versus the additional modules?

    <p>Based on the type of incident and corresponding casualties.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical factor in determining the information required in each module?

    <p>The nature of casualties and property losses involved.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if times for vehicles have not populated after they have cleared the run?

    <p>Manually enter the times for each vehicle involved.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following modules is NOT classified as optional?

    <p>Fire Service Casualty Module (NFIRS–5)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of incidents does the Fire Module (NFIRS–2) specifically address?

    <p>Incidents involving non-contained fires.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a necessary action to take if you were not assigned to an incident?

    <p>Do not complete the incident report.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fire incidents require the completion of the Structure Fire Module?

    <p>Only structure fires as defined by assembly for occupancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What constitutes a fire casualty according to the Civilian Fire Casualty Module?

    <p>Injuries sustained only during fire control activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which scenario is a separate Fire Service Casualty report required?

    <p>Casualties occurring during training exercises</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Structure Fire Module when completed?

    <p>To provide a standardized assessment of structure fires</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the obligations concerning firefighter injuries?

    <p>All injuries must be reported within 48 hours, regardless of severity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which items are mandatory to complete in the Structure Fire Module for building fires?

    <p>Structure Type is mandatory, while other sections are optional</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required in the event of a non-incident casualty regarding EMS reporting?

    <p>An EMS incident report must be created using the same incident ID</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the fundamental distinction in reporting health exposures for fire service personnel?

    <p>Exposures can be reported even if no symptoms are evident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of incidents does the Civilian Fire Casualty Module specifically apply to?

    <p>Fires of types 100–199, including all reported casualties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspects may be included in the Structure Fire Module for non-building structures?

    <p>Sections beyond Structure Type may be completed if desired</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of juvenile-set fires?

    <p>Fires where the person involved in the ignition is under the age of 18.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the juvenile fire setter section in the Arson Module?

    <p>To identify information for intervention programs related to juvenile fire setting.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can the Arson Module be utilized?

    <p>Whenever the Cause of Ignition is coded as Intentional or Cause Under Investigation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do arson information management systems play in relation to the Arson Module?

    <p>They collect and compile information on arson incidents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the data elements identified by the Arson Module?

    <p>They are part of the National Fire Database and the BATF Arson Repository.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Hazardous Materials Module?

    <p>To profile hazardous materials incidents for analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is a release of hazardous materials considered reportable?

    <p>When specialized HazMat resources were used</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of information is collected in the HazMat Module?

    <p>Actions taken during the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of the Apparatus or Resources Module?

    <p>To manage and track apparatus and resources used on incidents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key benefit of the data collected through the HazMat Module?

    <p>Development of regulations for hazardous materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which module helps fire service and law enforcement in arson prevention initiatives?

    <p>Arson Module</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario should more than one HazMat form be completed?

    <p>If multiple HazMats are involved in a release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'release' include in the context of hazardous materials?

    <p>Accidental spills and deliberate releases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is primarily responsible for the completion of the Incident Report?

    <p>The Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can the responsibility for the Incident Report be assigned to another individual?

    <p>When the Incident Commander holds a rank of Battalion Chief or higher</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dictates the hierarchy for incident report completion if no Incident Commander is identified?

    <p>The arrival order of the on-scene companies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation does the hierarchy for completing an incident report change?

    <p>When the incident has been canceled by the FAO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for the Incident Report to be completed when a 'Situation Contained' is announced?

    <p>An identified Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Casualty Report in fire reporting software?

    <p>To compile data for legislation efforts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for modifying the Casualty Report according to the standard operating procedure?

    <p>The supervisor or superseding officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what software platform is the Injury Report submitted following a workplace injury?

    <p>IReport Software Platform</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the distinction between a Casualty Report and an Injury Report?

    <p>The Casualty Report is utilized for broader documentation, whereas the Injury Report is specific to individual worker injuries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the data collected in the Casualty Report?

    <p>It helps in fighting for legislation at the state and federal levels.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What criteria differentiates a severe injury from a minor injury in incident reporting?

    <p>Severe injuries result in loss of time and may be life-threatening.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the NFIRS process in HazMat incidents is accurate?

    <p>HazMat 4 is responsible for completing all NFIRS for working HazMat incidents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the classification of 'death' signify in terms of injuries?

    <p>It refers to an imminent threat of death or confirmed death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which injury type poses a potential risk of permanent disability?

    <p>Severe injuries that could be life-threatening if uncontrolled.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In incident management, which type of injury would be categorized as 'report only'?

    <p>Minor injuries that require no medical treatment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be used to indicate 'none' in a numeric field such as dollar loss in fire reporting?

    <p>The number zero (0)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required time frame for the completion of incident reports to be made available to the public?

    <p>3 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following must a written narrative section include in an incident report?

    <p>A description of the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be present on each fire report to ensure its legality?

    <p>Two signatures from authorized members</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the term 'unknown' be used in an incident report?

    <p>Only after reasonable attempts to collect information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary objective of providing a clear procedure for obtaining technical support?

    <p>To enhance the efficiency of the support process for end users.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the plan aim to reduce the number of phone calls per support issue?

    <p>By utilizing the resources available to end users effectively.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by updating the POWERPOINT on the Division homepage?

    <p>A proactive approach to accommodate software changes and upgrades.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components does NOT belong to the technical support plan?

    <p>Increase the number of available software training sessions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should users primarily rely on for troubleshooting Firehouse software?

    <p>Archived center learns and designated support links.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the first step if a user encounters an error with the Firehouse software application?

    <p>Take note of specific error messages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario should the end user contact the Records Management Team directly?

    <p>If unable to ENROLL in Firehouse software.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if a persistent problem with Firehouse software cannot be resolved after initial troubleshooting?

    <p>Contact RMS Support to reach Firehouse Technical Support.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a vital responsibility of company officers when the Firehouse software or CAD system is down?

    <p>Recording runs manually and completing reports as soon as possible.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should users provide to their Battalion trainer regarding any software issues encountered?

    <p>Details of any recent changes to their system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done to add a new exposure report after completing an incident?

    <p>Click on the Exposure number and select 'NEW EXPOSURE'.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature allows users to view reports by a specific date and vehicle?

    <p>JOURNAL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the default exposure number assigned to a newly created exposure report?

    <p>001</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What actions should be taken after creating a new exposure report?

    <p>Make necessary changes and sign the report.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the 'NEW' button in the reporting process?

    <p>To start a new exposure report after an incident.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines an exposure fire?

    <p>A fire that results directly from another fire in a different location.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should exposures within a building, such as in condominiums, be treated?

    <p>Only those separated by fire-rated compartments should be treated separately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the exposure number in fire reporting?

    <p>To capture specific details about each separate property type involved.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When reporting an exposure, what coding is used for the original fire report?

    <p>000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a situation involving multiple exposures, how should they be numbered?

    <p>A separate sequential exposure number is assigned to each.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be recorded for each exposure in relation to the Incident Date?

    <p>It must be the same as that of the basic incident.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should similar items, like a fleet of cars, be treated in a fire report?

    <p>They should be documented as a single exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the member making the original report regarding exposure reports?

    <p>They are responsible for completing the exposure report for each exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must the Columbus Division of Fire do upon providing non-exclusive mutual aid to another fire department?

    <p>Complete a NFIRS report using the proper codes for incident type and actions taken.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the Columbus Division of Fire performs a station move-up, what incident type code should be entered?

    <p>Code 571 - Cover, standby or move up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information is required for the Basic Incident Report when aiding non-exclusively?

    <p>Only the two-digit actions taken code and incident type.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which scenario is it necessary to complete a NFIRS report as part of a station move-up?

    <p>When an incident number has been assigned by the FAO.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what circumstance is completing a NFIRS report optional?

    <p>For internal training exercises and simulations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which box must be completed in a NFIRS report for both exclusive and non-exclusive mutual aid incidents?

    <p>Mutual Aid or Automatic Response Given box</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the 'Actions Taken' code in a NFIRS report for mutual aid incidents?

    <p>To outline the specific contributions of the Columbus Division of Fire.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incident type code that must be entered for actions taken during mutual aid incidents without casualties?

    <p>Code 571 - Cover, standby or move up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is meant by automatic aid in the context of fire service response?

    <p>Departments automatically dispatched based on agreements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario exemplifies other aid provided by a fire department?

    <p>A fire department responding to a location without fire services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the designation for a situation where no aid is either given or received?

    <p>No aid situation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following most closely represents mutual aid in fire service?

    <p>Formal agreements leading to shared resources between jurisdictions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In automatic aid scenarios, which is primarily true?

    <p>Aid is based on previously established agreements between jurisdictions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a primary rescue unit from a supporting rescue unit?

    <p>The primary rescue unit performs the majority of the rescue tasks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When reports are to be completed after an incident, what is the maximum time frame required for making the report available to the public?

    <p>3 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done regarding equipment that is utilized in an incident?

    <p>It must be documented in the rescue report if possible.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should companies other than Extrication Companies and/or Rescue do when completing NFIRS reports?

    <p>They can save the report using the “ignore all” option if they are not responsible.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the incident reporting process is accurate?

    <p>Members must complete and sign the report before the end of their shift.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of holding the black button on top of the camera continuously?

    <p>To superimpose a video image onto the thermal image</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What will happen if the red on/off button is not held until the viewfinder screen blacks out?

    <p>The camera will drain the battery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should the camera be stored when not in use?

    <p>In the gray box with handle forward and pointing up</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential damage could occur from overusing the refresh option on the battery charger?

    <p>It could damage the batteries and shorten their lifespan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with the extra battery after charging is complete?

    <p>Remove from charger and place it in the storage box</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if water enters the battery compartment of the Thermal Imaging Camera?

    <p>It may lead to failure of the device.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can the battery charge status be interpreted from the viewfinder of the Thermal Imaging Camera?

    <p>A red light means about five minutes of battery life remaining.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended method for powering on the Thermal Imaging Camera?

    <p>Hold the button for one second.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution should be taken when using the Thermal Imaging Camera in bright sunlight?

    <p>Avoid pointing the camera directly at the sun.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important not to make adjustments to the Thermal Imaging Camera?

    <p>It can lead to improper functioning and void the warranty.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the lower right-hand corner of the Thermal Imaging Camera viewfinder display?

    <p>The accutemp digital temperature readout.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a potential consequence of improper handling of the Thermal Imaging Camera?

    <p>Damage due to impact or rough treatment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant feature of the ISI Vision 3 TIC regarding its operation?

    <p>It operates with a one-button control for ease of use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be checked for condition and closure in the battery compartment of the camera?

    <p>The integrity of the compartment's 'O' ring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can happen if the camera is exposed to 800 degrees for more than four minutes?

    <p>There may be permanent image degradation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct method to clean the camera after use?

    <p>Wipe with a damp soft cloth and mild detergent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the camera is subjected to high amounts of water?

    <p>Remove it from service and report for inspection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the camera's capabilities?

    <p>It reflects surface temperature rather than internal temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes fogging in a viewfinder?

    <p>Physical reaction to temperature differences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can fogging on a viewfinder be resolved without the use of anti-fogging material?

    <p>When the temperatures equalize</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if concerns arise about equipment operation?

    <p>Reach out to SO-2 for assistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended action for fogging issues involving viewfinders?

    <p>Ignoring the fogging as it is temporary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason anti-fog material is applied to a viewfinder?

    <p>To prevent fogging from occurring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major limitation of Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs)?

    <p>They cannot see through solid objects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure must be followed when occupying a Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC)?

    <p>The operator must wear a neck strap and may not set the camera down.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done when a crew with a TIC is dispatched on a non-emergency business?

    <p>One crew member must stay with the apparatus at all times.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of maintenance and control of the TIC, who is accountable?

    <p>The officer of the ladder company and the in charge person of the rescue company.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is emphasized about the care and use of Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs)?

    <p>Proper care is necessary to ensure their availability when needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of the Incident Priorities outlined in SOP 01-03-19?

    <p>Life Safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT a guideline regarding the use of Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs) in hazardous environments?

    <p>TICs can be used in areas known to be unsafe.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should Thermal Imaging Cameras be utilized during a Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) operation?

    <p>They should be available for experienced operators as needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the dependency on Thermal Imaging Cameras by fire service personnel?

    <p>Training on traditional practices is still essential despite TIC use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the limitation placed on the use of Thermal Imaging Cameras in HAZMAT situations?

    <p>They may require decontamination after use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario should an Incident Commander consider calling for additional Thermal Imaging Cameras?

    <p>If there is a specific concern that has arisen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the key safety practices that TICs do NOT replace during fire operations?

    <p>Utilization of the buddy system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the ISI Vision 3 Thermal Imaging Camera's limitations?

    <p>It is not suitable for use in ignitable atmospheres.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the P-400 multi-gas monitor alarms for oxygen deficiency?

    <p>Wear Supplied Air Respirators and determine the cause of deficiency.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Before using the P-400 multi-gas monitor, it should be turned on in which of the following environments?

    <p>A clean environment with normal oxygen content.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for operating the P-400 multi-gas monitor?

    <p>A password is required to change the monitor's calibration settings.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the absence of an alarm from the P-400 multi-gas monitor in a post-fire environment imply?

    <p>Carcinogens and toxins may still be present.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked daily for the P-400 multi-gas monitor to ensure its effectiveness?

    <p>The battery charge, ensuring it is above 4.8 volts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what oxygen alarm point should members wear Supplied Air Respirators?

    <p>19.5%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the P-400 multi-gas monitor be deployed according to its usage guidelines?

    <p>In all gas leaks, carbon monoxide alarms, and confined space incidents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when working in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere according to the guidelines?

    <p>Potential for an explosion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the alarm point for carbon monoxide (CO) detection?

    <p>35 ppm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what percentage is the LEL alarm typically set?

    <p>10% of the LEL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following gases is indicated by readings on the HCN sensor?

    <p>Hydrogen Cyanide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must personnel don upon activation of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) alarm?

    <p>SCBA and structural firefighting protective clothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) is produced from the combustion of which materials?

    <p>Plastics and synthetic materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a reading above 21% on an oxygen detector?

    <p>Indication of abnormal conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered an immediate dangerous to life and health (IDLH) situation?

    <p>Alarm from the LEL sensor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of chemical can cause false readings on a carbon monoxide sensor?

    <p>Hydrogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should the calibration of monitoring equipment be performed?

    <p>As needed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of protection is required when a carbon monoxide alarm activates?

    <p>Supplied air respirators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color and format is the Personal Accountability Tag (PAT) issued to Captains?

    <p>3 red with white print</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are Personal Accountability Tags (PAT) attached when not in use?

    <p>Underneath the rear of the helmet brim</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of upside down PATs on a Passport?

    <p>To indicate that the person might not actually be in the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many passports are assigned to engines, ladders, rescues, and medics?

    <p>Two passports</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should crew leaders do following any change in personnel assigned to the crew?

    <p>Visually check the Passports for accuracy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which color PATs are issued to Safety Officers?

    <p>4 green with white print</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What size are the passports used for personnel accountability?

    <p>3” X 4”</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For what purpose are blank yellow tags provided to companies?

    <p>To write names of non-uniformed and auxiliary riders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Small Status Board?

    <p>To maintain accountability on small incidents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should the Large Status Board be placed during operations?

    <p>On each battalion chief vehicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for accountability on all incidents?

    <p>The Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must all crews do while operating in a hazard zone?

    <p>Work in teams of at least two</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with Passports before entering a hazard zone?

    <p>They must remain on the apparatus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the first arriving vehicle to each side of the incident?

    <p>To become the initial accountability location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to Passports during Level II Accountability?

    <p>One Passport stays on the vehicle and one is placed on the Status Board</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a high-rise incident, where is the Forward Accountability located?

    <p>At least one floor below the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the first company to arrive at the lobby take regarding accountability?

    <p>Place their small status board in the lobby</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Passports during an incident?

    <p>To reflect all personnel operating at the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken when the situation is contained?

    <p>Terminate the Passport System.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who ultimately decides when to terminate Accountability at an incident?

    <p>The Incident Commander.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured by crew leaders after an incident before departing?

    <p>Passports are returned and accurate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with operating companies not involved in the rescue effort?

    <p>Move them to the appropriate 'CHANGE' talkgroup.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required to maintain Passport Accountability during an incident?

    <p>A report of Situation Contained.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the second engine assigned to the Fire Attack Group bring to the forward accountability point?

    <p>Their small status board</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who must account for all crew members during a Personnel Accountability Report?

    <p>The Crew Leader</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation must the Incident Commander initiate a personnel accountability report?

    <p>Any report of a missing or trapped firefighter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does PAR stand for in incident management?

    <p>Personnel Accountability Report</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required from crew leaders during a Personnel Accountability Report?

    <p>Account for all personnel with name tags on the passport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be assumed about a crew member who is reported absent during an incident?

    <p>They are lost or trapped in the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should the Incident Commander initiate a Personnel Accountability Report?

    <p>At least every thirty minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who do crew leaders report 'PAR' to if divisions or groups are established?

    <p>Their Division or Group Supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum number of firefighters required to safely enter an IDLH atmosphere?

    <p>Four firefighters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary responsibilities of standby members outside the hazard zone?

    <p>To ensure constant communication and awareness of the team inside</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario can personnel deviate from the two-in/two-out policy?

    <p>If initial attack personnel encounter a known life hazard</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) Group during an incident?

    <p>To perform rescues or mitigate life-threatening situations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a standby member do during an incident?

    <p>Maintain communication with the crew in the hazard zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who has the authority to announce if standby members are utilized during an operation?

    <p>The Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many companies should staff the RIT Group as soon as possible if the incident is not stabilized quickly?

    <p>Two companies at minimum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What functions can standby members perform other than maintaining communication during an incident?

    <p>Act as an apparatus operator or Incident Commander if necessary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required if a deviation from the Two-In/Two-Out policy occurs?

    <p>It shall be reported to incoming companies immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many companies should constitute a Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) at a minimum?

    <p>At least two companies are required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When must the RIT Group remain active after its establishment?

    <p>Until the situation is reported as contained.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the Incident Commander take if the RIT Group is assigned other duties?

    <p>Ensure additional companies are available to establish a two company RIT Group.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical standby location for the RIT Group?

    <p>Close to the Command Post, as determined by the Incident Commander.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If more than one firefighter requires replenishment of air, which method can be used?

    <p>Use the regulator from the low-pressure side of the system for an emergency air supply.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which piece of equipment is NOT explicitly mentioned as required in the staging area for residential structures?

    <p>Stokes basket</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the RIT Group Supervisor during a mission?

    <p>To provide oversight and ensure safety until relieved by another officer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many Thermal Imaging Cameras are required in the staging area for commercial structures?

    <p>Two</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation might more than one RIT Group be deemed appropriate?

    <p>On multiple alarms and complex incidents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should personnel NOT do when an Emergency Evacuation is initiated?

    <p>Reposition lines or retrieve equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions could justify the activation of an Urgent message?

    <p>Drastic change in fire conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long should the Air Horns be activated during an emergency alert?

    <p>10 seconds followed by 5 seconds of silence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a Primary Accountability Report (PAR) intended to address during emergencies?

    <p>Accountability of personnel present in the Hazard Zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best represents a situation requiring immediate evacuation due to safety concerns?

    <p>Increased collapse potential due to structural instability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what conditions must a member be sent to rehab?

    <p>They have used 75% or more of one SCBA cylinder, indicated by the Vibra-alert or red LED.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum rest period for members in rehab?

    <p>No less than ten minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vital signs must be documented by medical personnel when evaluating members in rehab?

    <p>BP, pulse, PAO2, temperature, and EKG if indicated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur before a member can leave rehab?

    <p>They must receive clearance from the rehab supervisor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation must be provided if a member in rehab receives medical treatment?

    <p>An EMS incident report must be documented.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances should a Rehab Group be initiated?

    <p>At all 2nd Alarm incidents and Working HazMat incidents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required hydration protocol upon entering the rehab area?

    <p>Each member must consume at least 8 oz of water first</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which location is considered ideal for setting up a rehab area during an incident?

    <p>A space that is away from the incident stresses and conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended food option for rehabilitation during an incident longer than four hours?

    <p>Broths and soups which are quickly digested</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which individual is responsible for supervising the Rehab Group?

    <p>The Second EMS Supervisor assigned to the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of drinks can be provided after the initial 8 oz of water in rehab?

    <p>Commercially prepared rehab drinks mixed with water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following criteria describes the setting of a Rehab Group during hazardous situations?

    <p>It should be a warm or dry area in cold or wet conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided in the dietary provisions for firefighters during rehab?

    <p>Fatty and/or salty foods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary objective of the staging procedure at an incident scene?

    <p>To provide a standard system for placement of responding apparatus and personnel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the function of Level II Staging?

    <p>It requires a formal staging area for large, complex-type incidents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does effective utilization of the staging procedure impact incident management?

    <p>It provides the Incident Commander with time to evaluate conditions before companies are assigned.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from placing apparatus in an uncommitted location during an incident?

    <p>It enables more effective communication by reducing initial radio traffic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the results of having Level I Staging in place during a multiple company response?

    <p>It keeps the responding units in a designated location for quick access.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first engine upon arrival at a fire scene?

    <p>Position itself to effectively use its hose line.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should the second engine position itself upon arrival?

    <p>At a hydrant to assist with water supply.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the first ladder typically position itself at a fire scene?

    <p>In a location free of obstructions for aerial use.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first medic do if victim care is needed upon arrival?

    <p>Immediately assist the victims and stop other operations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the positioning guideline for battalion chiefs upon arriving at the scene?

    <p>As close to the incident as possible to supervise.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of staging other companies at the fire scene?

    <p>To avoid impeding any other companies or traffic unless necessary for safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first rescue unit do upon arrival at a fire scene?

    <p>Park as close to the structure as possible without causing interference.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a second medic is not available, who is responsible for victim care?

    <p>The first medic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the second medic at a working fire scene?

    <p>To standby for patient care and bring necessary equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In complex incidents, what assignment should the second Battalion Chief be considered for?

    <p>Division or Group Supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a responsibility of the Safety Officer at an incident?

    <p>Monitor overall scene safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What protocol should be followed when a multiple alarm is called at an incident?

    <p>Level 2 Staging becomes an automatic procedure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What channel should be utilized if an EMS Group is established by the EMS Supervisor?

    <p>BN# EMS talkgroup</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first arriving company during a fire response?

    <p>Establish command and direct incoming companies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can the initial Incident Commander consider downgrading the response mode?

    <p>If the situation is under control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required of companies upon arrival at the incident scene under Level I Staging?

    <p>They need to bring their Passport to the accountability location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the absence of any visible fire conditions at a large building, which action should the Incident Commander take?

    <p>Utilize the first arriving engine and ladder personnel to search</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which company is designated to report the placement to Incident Command after staging at a hydrant?

    <p>The second engine company</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a fire response, what plan must the initial Incident Commander develop and implement?

    <p>An Investigation Plan or Fire Attack and Search Plan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander announce over the radio upon establishing the Command Post?

    <p>The location of the Command Post</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances should companies not involved in the initial investigation position themselves?

    <p>In a location that provides the best position to deploy if assigned</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first engine upon arrival at a scene with smoke or fire visible?

    <p>Initiate the fire attack</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the second engine company do upon arrival if they have not received orders from the Incident Commander?

    <p>Lay a supply line to the first engine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the fire is located above the third floor, which action should the first engine company take?

    <p>Take the stairs to the floor below the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the third arriving engine company do upon arrival?

    <p>Make up part of the Rapid Intervention Team</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the first ladder company upon arrival at an incident?

    <p>Facilitate rescue and ventilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What key responsibility does the Battalion Chief hold upon arrival at an incident scene?

    <p>Assume command of the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the medic vehicle and crew position themselves at an incident?

    <p>Near the command post, ready for injuries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the officer of a Rapid Intervention Team do upon assembling at the command post?

    <p>Stretch and charge an attack line if necessary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the second ladder company upon arrival at an incident scene?

    <p>Take a position for fire control and rescue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far should the fourth engine stage from the incident upon arrival?

    <p>200 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the rescue company be responsible for at the scene of an incident?

    <p>Assisting with utilities and tasks assigned by the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the ladder companies prioritize during their arrival?

    <p>Position for potential roof access and fire control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the Fire Alarm Office automatically dispatch a working fire assignment?

    <p>For all working incidents unless directed otherwise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fire alarm assignment includes a Battalion Chief as part of its response team?

    <p>Fire Alarm “B” (FAB)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining factor for being categorized under Fire Alarm “B” (FAB) assignments?

    <p>High life hazard occupancies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can alarm assignments be downgraded or canceled after dispatch?

    <p>When additional information from the Fire Alarm Office indicates so</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a Modified Alarm Response?

    <p>A response determined by the Fire Alarm Office with ES-2’s approval</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following occupancies would NOT typically fall under Fire Alarm “A” (FA)?

    <p>Hospitals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental factor should a staging area be located away from?

    <p>The Command Post</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation can a Mutual Aid command officer serve as the Staging Area Manager?

    <p>At the discretion of the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the Staging Area Manager during a Level II Staging?

    <p>To manage all activities in the staging area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs if a designated staging area is established but no Staging Area Manager is assigned?

    <p>The first-due engine will be assigned as the Staging Area Manager</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of incident automatically initiates Level II Staging procedures?

    <p>Multiple alarm incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the diagonal, head-out parking method in staging areas?

    <p>To enhance organization and vehicle response efficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the Staging Area Manager inform the Incident Commander about resource depletion?

    <p>When the staging area has less than two engines and one ladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a major medical emergency requires a separate staging area?

    <p>Designate the separate staging area and inform the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of an EMS supervisor during incidents under Level II Staging?

    <p>To assist the Staging Area Manager in organizing EMS personnel and vehicles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the Staging Area Manager signal their position to incoming companies?

    <p>By keeping emergency lights on their apparatus operational</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Staging Area Manager do when an additional unit is required?

    <p>Communicate with the Fire Alarm Office for coordination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is suggested if the Staging Area Manager discovers staged resources have been completely utilized?

    <p>Inform the Incident Commander to assess the need for more units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a responsibility of the Staging Area Manager?

    <p>To maintain a list of companies and inventory specialized equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the Staging Area Manager upon arrival at the staging area?

    <p>Notify the Incident Commander of their arrival and location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the Staging Area Manager communicate on the 'B# Staging' talkgroup?

    <p>When companies report in person to the staging area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario does the first arriving officer in charge of a ladder company lose command of the staging area?

    <p>When an engine company officer arrives onsite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key duty of the Staging Area Manager regarding available companies?

    <p>To periodically report their status to the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must companies do while responding to the designated staging area?

    <p>Remain by their apparatus with crew intact, lights off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which talkgroup is primarily used for communications between the Staging Area Manager and the Incident Commander?

    <p>B# IC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should apparatus be arranged within the staging area according to the Staging Area Manager's responsibilities?

    <p>Grouped by type of apparatus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Staging Area Manager's coordination with the police?

    <p>To block off streets and intersections for safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern for the incident commander when fire personnel report people trapped inside a residential building?

    <p>Rescue of the trapped occupants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which phase of fire response does the incident commander focus on protecting surrounding areas from the fire?

    <p>Exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should supply lines for residential fires be laid and charged, according to the operational guidelines?

    <p>When interior crews are expected to use more than 25% of the vehicle's water tank capacity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is to be performed last in the order of priorities for fire response?

    <p>Overhaul</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done regarding ground ladders when responding to a fire in a multi-story building?

    <p>Ladders must be placed in service when working on the roof or above ground level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary objective of a transitional fire attack when arriving at a structure fire?

    <p>To apply water through openings to rapidly extinguish the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the transitional fire attack, where should the water stream be directed?

    <p>Through the bottom half of the opening to deflect off the ceiling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done immediately after achieving knockdown during a transitional fire attack?

    <p>Initiate an interior advance to directly attack the seat of the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important not to rotate or whip the nozzle during the transitional fire attack?

    <p>It can impede the flow of hot gases and change the flow path</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when deploying multiple lines during a transitional fire attack?

    <p>To coordinate a direct attack alongside the transitional attack</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical action to take before entering a structure with a suspected basement fire?

    <p>Ensure a charged hoseline is ready.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a Thermal Imaging Camera be utilized in relation to a basement fire?

    <p>To assist in identifying the location of the fire without relying on it for structural integrity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event heavy smoke or fire conditions exist upon arrival at a basement fire, which tactic should be immediately applied?

    <p>Initiate water application before any interior movement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if no fire is visible and there is no exterior basement access available?

    <p>Begin an interior attack from the closest access to the basement stairs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the Transitional Fire Attack strategy?

    <p>It involves sustaining a transitional line while preparing for a full assault.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option correctly describes the safety precautions when using basement exterior access?

    <p>Start the attack from the accessible opening without delay.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common mistake should firefighters avoid when dealing with a basement fire?

    <p>Operating directly above the fire area without adequate water application.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In conditions where ventilation may be detrimental during a basement fire, what should be ensured first?

    <p>Water application on the fire must be announced.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first engine operator do if a fire department connection is out of service?

    <p>Establish an alternate water supply to the building.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which piece of equipment should the fourth engine crew bring to form the Rapid Intervention Team?

    <p>High Rise Hose Pack.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the third engine at an incident?

    <p>Establish Lobby Control and accountability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the duty of the second ladder and rescue team at a fire incident?

    <p>Become the Upper Search and Evacuation group.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions should the EMS Supervisor take upon arrival at an incident?

    <p>Report to the Incident Commander and establish the Medical Branch.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first ladder do as part of the Fire Attack Group?

    <p>Position where it can be best utilized.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the first medic arrives at the scene and no victims are present, what should they do?

    <p>Assist the Lobby Control Group.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What equipment must the second battalion chief bring to the Command Post?

    <p>A Large Status Board.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups should the Incident Commander emphasize staffing in a high-rise fire incident?

    <p>Lobby Control Group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In establishing a command structure, what is a critical consideration for the Incident Commander?

    <p>Building a structure that matches the complexity of the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When establishing communication in a high-rise fire, which method is prioritized first?

    <p>Radios using TAC channels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components is NOT a recommended group to establish based on incident complexity in a high-rise fire?

    <p>Logistics Group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander ensure regarding internal communications during a high-rise fire incident?

    <p>Communications should be efficient and prioritized by effectiveness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the Fire Attack Group Supervisor during an incident?

    <p>Communicate ladder company search progress to Incident Command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    From where should the Fire Attack Group initiate the fire attack?

    <p>From the floor below the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which piece of equipment is specifically required by the engine companies for high-rise operations?

    <p>Inline pressure gauge w/ elbow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if the flow from an adjustable Pressure Reducing Valve (PRV) is determined to be inadequate?

    <p>Inform the Fire Attack Group Supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the key objectives of the Fire Attack Group?

    <p>Rescue occupants near the seat of the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the attack line be connected in relation to the fire floor?

    <p>At least one floor below the fire floor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is NOT performed by the ladder company?

    <p>Flaking out hose lines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In addition to the high-rise pack, which tool is critical for forcible entry tasks performed by the ladder company?

    <p>Hydraulic forcible entry tool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of connecting the attack line at least one floor below the fire floor?

    <p>To minimize heat exposure and maintain adequate water supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tools is essential for forcible entry as per the contents outlined?

    <p>Hydraulic forcible entry tool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the Fire Attack Group Supervisor take if a non-adjustable PRV is present?

    <p>Notify Incident Command about its presence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for the ladder company to bring reconnaissance information?

    <p>To help in assessing the fire situation for strategy formulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen if the flow from the PRV is found to be inadequate?

    <p>Increase the PRV setting if it is adjustable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is designated as the Lobby Control Group Supervisor during an incident?

    <p>Officer in charge of the third engine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial function does Systems Control serve in relation to Lobby Control?

    <p>Monitor built-in fire protection systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a function of Lobby Control?

    <p>Direct fire pump operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily maintained by Lobby Control to facilitate operations in the building?

    <p>Activity logs for incoming equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which key responsibility does Systems Control NOT hold?

    <p>Operating the fire department's command center</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action that Lobby Control is expected to perform upon establishing operations?

    <p>Obtain elevator keys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following forms can be used by Lobby Control to maintain activity logs?

    <p>ICS 214</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of systems does Systems Control evaluate during an incident?

    <p>Both B and C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus when forming the Upper Search and Evacuation (USE) Group?

    <p>Reporting to the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should crews assigned to the USE Group primarily ensure they have when reporting to the location?

    <p>Thermal imaging cameras and forcible entry tools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct order of priorities for the Primary search and evacuation?

    <p>Attack Stairwell, The Floor Above the Fire, Elevators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What communication method should be employed for occupant evacuation control?

    <p>In-house public address system or intercom</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if self-initiated evacuations occur during an incident?

    <p>They must be controlled as much as possible.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should findings related to fire conditions above the fire floor be handled?

    <p>Reported to the USE Group Supervisor promptly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical action regarding stairway doors and ventilation openings during an incident?

    <p>They should be monitored and controlled.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an attack stairwell has a roof access door, what should be done about it?

    <p>It must be coordinated with the Fire Attack Group Supervisor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the Resource Group Supervisor in the staging area?

    <p>To determine the appropriate equipment levels in the resource area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately reflects the location requirements for the Resource Group?

    <p>The Resource Group should be located at least two floors below the fire floor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which equipment should be included in the considerations for the Resource Group?

    <p>RIT packs, SCBA cylinders, and lights among others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of log is the Resource Group Supervisor required to maintain?

    <p>Unit activity log (example: ICS 214)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who does the Resource Group Supervisor report to during the incident?

    <p>The Operations Section Chief, if established, or the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the necessary allocation of personnel for effective equipment transportation in the Stairwell Support Group?

    <p>One firefighter for every two floors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) is NOT required for personnel in the Stairwell Support Group when not in a hazardous area?

    <p>Turnout gear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What continuous monitoring is required for personnel operating without an SCBA?

    <p>Carbon monoxide monitoring</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the Resource Group Supervisor play in relation to the Stairwell Support Group?

    <p>Determining the equipment needed for transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should personnel assigned to the Stairwell Support Group do with their turnout gear upon entering the building?

    <p>Place it in an area near where they are working</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary initial focus for ventilation procedures during a fire incident?

    <p>Coordinating the shut-down and operational control of the HVAC system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered critical for effective ventilation above an attack stairwell?

    <p>Public transport accessibility near the building</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of uncoordinated ventilation during a fire response?

    <p>Creation of an undesirable flow path</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following should be coordinated with Incident Command when necessary?

    <p>Breaking window glass on upper floors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the impact of breaking window glass on upper floors during a fire incident?

    <p>It can be extremely injurious to bystanders and personnel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the Rehab Group be activated during high-rise incidents?

    <p>When personnel are engaged for more than two SCBA cylinders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is typically assigned as the Rehab Group Supervisor?

    <p>The second EMS Supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred location for the Rehab Group during high-rise operations?

    <p>At least 2 floors below the fire floor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for the Rehab Group to be close to the Resource Group?

    <p>To facilitate communication between units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Rehab Group during an incident?

    <p>To ensure that crews remain hydrated and rested</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the Medical Group at a high-rise incident?

    <p>To triage, treat, and transport victims</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should victims be taken after being removed from upper floors during an incident?

    <p>To a Casualty Collection Point (CCP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area should medics establish for treating victims at the Casualty Collection Point?

    <p>A dedicated triage and treatment area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the Medical Group Supervisor during an incident?

    <p>To oversee the patient transport logistics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where could the separate triage and treatment area at ground level be set up?

    <p>In the lobby, street level, or an adjacent building</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation is it most likely to elect not to give up an individual from the engine company?

    <p>When the requested personnel is unavailable but a substitute is qualified</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consideration when selecting crew members to accompany the medic?

    <p>Minimizing the number of personnel while maintaining efficacy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility assigned to the engine company officer at a scene?

    <p>Ensuring that all equipment is operational and ready</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should be prioritized when an ALS engine arrives first on the scene?

    <p>Begin treatment and subsequently cancel other incoming units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what conditions should a paramedic generally not be pulled from the engine?

    <p>When the EMT-Bs are sufficient for transporting patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should paramedics do if an EMS Supervisor is present on the scene?

    <p>Paramedics assist the EMS Supervisor in all aspects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the engine arrives at the scene first, how many crew members usually assist the paramedics?

    <p>At least three crew members should assist.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the engine officer upon arrival at a scene?

    <p>To monitor the radio and respond to the medic's requests.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the medic crew decides that transport to a medical facility is unnecessary, what action should they take?

    <p>Inform the engine officer and assist with alternative transportation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors should paramedics consider when determining the qualifications of additional personnel needed during transport?

    <p>The specific needs of the patient and the scenario.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the driver of the engine do while the crew engages at the scene?

    <p>Remain with the vehicle and monitor the radio.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the role of the engine company officer during an ALS response?

    <p>The officer is responsible for scene management and directing crew actions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of any decision or treatment made by the medic crew?

    <p>To ensure the best outcome for the patient.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action will be taken if the expected arrival time of the Medic is delayed?

    <p>An engine or rescue will automatically be dispatched as a First Responder.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which decision is NOT typically made by the Medic crew during a response?

    <p>Admit the patient to a hospital without evaluation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary goals in the decision-making process of the Medic crew?

    <p>To do what is best for the patient and the citizens of Columbus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which scenario would the Fire Alarm Office dispatch a First Responder Engine or Rescue?

    <p>If the Medic is delayed in their response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can Medic crews utilize to make informed decisions while on calls?

    <p>Written and verbal directives, protocols, and bulletins.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes moving water from static water?

    <p>Moving water has a flow rate greater than 1 knot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In water rescue operations, what does a 'go' rescue involve?

    <p>Entering the water or ice directly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes Delta-P hazards?

    <p>They are related to differing water levels at intersecting bodies of water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about boat crews in moving water operations is true?

    <p>The crew may exceed two only if it is critical to the operation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a flood water situation?

    <p>Water in areas that do not typically hold water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of static water?

    <p>It can include ponds, lakes, and flooded areas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a connector boat be considered for offshore dive operations?

    <p>If time allows and for best practice during certain conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Delta P hazards?

    <p>They are primarily concerned with geographical features.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a DART/Dive operation is initiated?

    <p>Coordinate all work in the area with the DART/Dive supervisor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an appropriate action for shore-based personnel operating within 15 feet of the water?

    <p>Wear a PFD, helmet, safety glasses, gloves, and be equipped with a throw bag.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In ice rescue operations, what important equipment needs to be attached to the ice suit?

    <p>A tag line attached to the Sternal attachment point.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended procedure if victims are visible during a moving water incident?

    <p>Conduct a rescue operation based on the Reach, Throw, Row, and Go method.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a rescuer do to ensure safety when conducting wading rescues?

    <p>Identify and avoid hazards like drain culverts and open manholes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During cold weather responses, which piece of clothing is permissible for rescue personnel?

    <p>A Coast Guard approved float coat.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstance is it inappropriate to attach a rope to anyone during water rescue operations?

    <p>When using a non-locking carabiner.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What guideline must be followed regarding the interview of witnesses in a water rescue scenario?

    <p>Witnesses should be held on scene and interviewed separately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific technique can only be performed by trained rescue technicians during water rescue operations?

    <p>Implementation of GO rescue techniques.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of flood evacuations, what should be considered between evacuation and shelter in place?

    <p>Whether the location is perilous versus uncomfortable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum distance that Incident Command should be set up from a suspected explosive device?

    <p>300 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which personnel are authorized to enter the hazard zone around a suspected explosive device?

    <p>Only Bomb Squad personnel or those requested by the supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific action should be avoided regarding the suspected explosive device?

    <p>Touching, moving, or disturbing the device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for providing the media with information at the scene of a suspected explosive device?

    <p>The Battalion Chief in charge of the scene or the PIO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What additional information should be communicated to the Bomb Squad upon their arrival?

    <p>The exact location of the suspected device and floor layout</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the CO levels inside a premises exceed 35 PPM above the outside reading?

    <p>Immediate evacuation of the premises is recommended.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT recommended when dealing with high CO levels in an area?

    <p>Use gas-powered fans for ventilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advised course of action when CO levels fall below 15 PPM?

    <p>Let occupants re-enter at their discretion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about CO alarms is incorrect when responding to a high CO situation?

    <p>It is acceptable to suggest the detector might be malfunctioning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When instructing occupants in a CO incident, which of the following should always be communicated?

    <p>Never allow reentry until the CO source is eliminated and levels are safe.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is required if the CO readings taken inside a structure are above safe levels during an investigation?

    <p>Leave the structure and return with SCBA gear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition should warrant notifying the Gas Company during an investigation?

    <p>Gas appliance suspected of leaking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the difference between the outside CO reading and the inside CO reading is greater than 15 PPM but less than 35 PPM?

    <p>Advise occupants it may be dangerous and attempt to find the source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If CO readings are taken and the first reading is at least 10 feet away from the structure, what is the next step?

    <p>Proceed to take a CO reading just inside the structure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended action when checking for the source of CO?

    <p>Advise the resident to leave the premise immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct way to handle a situation if all rooms are suspected to have the same CO readings from ductwork?

    <p>Assume the furnace is the source and inform the resident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done immediately after checking for CO using the hot water tank settings?

    <p>Return to the original settings of the hot water tank</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a symptomatic victim is found during the incident, what is the immediate course of action?

    <p>Send an emergency medical response team immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate action if the CO level is found to be above normal?

    <p>Contact the gas company for an inspection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which document must be completed for all carbon monoxide (CO) incidents?

    <p>FORM FP-356</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances should Fire Division Personnel attempt to repair gas appliances?

    <p>Under NO circumstances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with the pink copy of FORM FP-356 after incident completion?

    <p>Left for the building occupant/owner.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When responding to a CO incident, what attachment should accompany the white copy of FORM FP-356?

    <p>Yellow attachment to yellow NFIRS-1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum distance apparatus must be positioned from the fire?

    <p>50 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered the primary responsibility of the pump operator at a fire scene?

    <p>Setting up the apparatus and supplying water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During overhaul operations, what equipment must all personnel wear?

    <p>Full PPE including SCBA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT part of the responsibilities of the first arriving unit?

    <p>Arrange for medical transport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What positioning is preferred for the pump panel of the apparatus in relation to the fire?

    <p>Away from the fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which condition should an elevator not be used?

    <p>Smoke or water is visible in the shaftway.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is imperative before utilizing an elevator in a fire situation?

    <p>Ensure you are dressed in full PPE as per SOP 1-004.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should service elevators be avoided during initial fire response?

    <p>Fires can start from trash in the service elevator lobby.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should you notify lobby control about before using an elevator?

    <p>Your company's designation and the selected elevator.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the permissible number of members in an elevator during an emergency situation?

    <p>6 members or fewer to prevent potential overloading.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the wrecker driver at a vehicle accident?

    <p>Clean up debris including absorbent materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When an incident involves a spill of more than 25 gallons, what is the first action required?

    <p>Notify local authorities immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method should NOT be used to handle small spills under 25 gallons?

    <p>Flushing with water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a spill enters a storm sewer, what is the required action?

    <p>Notify the Ohio EPA and Franklin County EMA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following absorbents is NOT recommended for mitigating small vehicle fluid spills?

    <p>Absorbent pads specifically for household spills</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial required distance for the Battalion Chief to set up Incident Command from the suspected leak?

    <p>200 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many firefighters are required for the initial investigation of a gas leak?

    <p>At least two firefighters in full protective gear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When shutting off gas to a defective appliance, which shut off valve should be used?

    <p>The in-line shut off valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the Incident Commander be aware of during an investigation of a gas leak?

    <p>Potential ignition sources in the area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum requirement for the staging of all remaining companies at the scene?

    <p>At least 200 feet upwind from the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the EMS field supervisor upon arrival at an incident?

    <p>Manage all aspects of patient care</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is NOT included in the engine company's responsibilities at the scene?

    <p>Extinguishing all fires without exception</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must the rescue team secure to ensure safety during operations?

    <p>The rescue area, including vehicle stabilization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation might the fire apparatus need to block the accident lane?

    <p>To create a safety lane for personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The highest-ranking rescue technician is responsible for which of the following during an incident?

    <p>Overseeing the extrication operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary requirement for an incident to be classified as a high risk incident?

    <p>Requirement for multiple rescue tools to operate simultaneously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assignment is appropriate for a vehicle accident that may involve entrapment?

    <p>1 Engine, 1 Extrication company, 1 Medic, 1 EMS Officer, 1 Rescue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the first arriving officer establish command?

    <p>Immediately upon arrival with a brief radio report</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What dictates the need to upgrade an incident to high risk due to equipment requirements?

    <p>Need for stabilization equipment except step chocks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the first arriving officer take after declaring a situation contained?

    <p>Inform remaining resources to cancel their response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which circumstance requires the dispatch of EMS-10 during an incident?

    <p>Whenever three or more medic vehicles are assigned</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines whether extrication tools must be used in a rescue operation?

    <p>Any high risk incidents requiring multiple hydraulic rescue tools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of the incident command system in vehicle accidents?

    <p>To ensure unity of command and resource management</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first responsibility of the first arriving unit at an incident?

    <p>Establish command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the positioning of apparatus when responding to a fire?

    <p>Minimum of 50 feet from the fire, upwind and uphill if applicable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial safety measure when working with a vehicle fire that involves the electrical system?

    <p>Disconnect the negative terminal of the battery first</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which size of the initial attack line is recommended for effective fire suppression?

    <p>1 1/2 inch or larger</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done prior to attacking a fire involving a truck or commercial vehicle?

    <p>Identify any hazardous contents involved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During overhaul operations, what is the required equipment for all personnel combating the fire?

    <p>Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When an arson is suspected, who should be requested to respond?

    <p>A Battalion Chief</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done after stopping any fuel leaks at a fire scene?

    <p>Follow the Standard Operating Procedure for Small spills</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary purposes of the policy regarding vacant premises?

    <p>To minimize the possibility of serious injury or death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of premise is specifically defined as unable to identify an owner?

    <p>Abandoned Premise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most important factor to consider when determining the initial attack strategy in a vacant premise?

    <p>Structural stability of the vacant premise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What approach should personnel adopt before initiating an interior attack in a vacant premise?

    <p>A cautious and deliberate 'NO RUSH' approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What contributes to the rapid spread of fire in vacant premises?

    <p>Missing doors, windows, and partitions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the Incident Commander manage personnel in the hazard zone during incidents in vacant premises?

    <p>Minimize the number of personnel based on the hazard profile</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the flexibility granted to the Incident Commander during operations?

    <p>They can adjust SOP based on unique incident circumstances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done immediately upon identifying a working fire in a vacant premise?

    <p>Notify the FAO and the incident commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precautions should be taken when conducting operations in a premise marked with one diagonal hash?

    <p>Entry into the structure should occur with minimal personnel presence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symbol indicates that structural or interior hazards exist and caution should be exercised during firefighting operations?

    <p>C – Caution Required</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should unmarked vacant premises be approached?

    <p>With the same caution as premises that have been marked for hazards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of operational approach should be emphasized for vacant premises with known hazards?

    <p>Defensive firefighting tactics with an emphasis on protecting exposures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant hazard associated with vacant premises that firefighters need to consider?

    <p>Potential collapse or structural instability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum size requirement for identification placards used for marked unsafe vacant premises?

    <p>24&quot; x 24&quot;</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When identifying hazards on a vacant building marker, where is the 'H/F – Holes in Floor' symbol placed?

    <p>Lower quadrant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered for a structure marked with the 'B' symbol indicating normal conditions?

    <p>Routine operational procedures without special precautions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the critical aspect of evaluating a vacant premise before staging operations?

    <p>The condition of the structure and size-up of hazards.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What risk is primarily associated with the life safety of firefighters in vacant premises?

    <p>Low victim potential.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the first response when approaching a fire in an underground vault?

    <p>Establish a safe perimeter and consult the utility company.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions is NOT recommended in the event of a fire in a vault room?

    <p>Request water flow immediately from the utility company.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a recognized confined space incident in a vault, which scenario is crucial before personnel enter?

    <p>Obtain clearance from the utility company.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advised technique for water flow into an underground vault once permission has been granted?

    <p>Utilizing a 3” open butt line secured properly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be presumed about oil in equipment that previously contained PCBs?

    <p>It should be treated as contaminated until verified clean.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred method to handle an electrical emergency?

    <p>Shut off electricity by qualified utility personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about electrical wires during an emergency is accurate?

    <p>All electrical wires should be considered energized and dangerous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the absence of utility personnel during a life hazard, what should be done?

    <p>Conduct a thorough risk assessment before attempting any actions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of reclosers in electrical distribution equipment?

    <p>They automatically reclose after a set time following a fault</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the minimum distance maintained from overhead wires with ladders?

    <p>10 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When must water be used to fight electrical fires?

    <p>As a last resort with precautions in place</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of extinguisher is preferred for small electrical fires prior to utility company arrival?

    <p>CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical consideration when combating an electrical emergency?

    <p>Understanding the risks of energized environments and equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the safest course of action if an apparatus comes into contact with live wires?

    <p>Remain in the apparatus unless absolutely necessary to jump out.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which personnel are authorized to cut service wires?

    <p>Only trained personnel using approved equipment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if solar panels are present when shutting down power to a building?

    <p>Ensure that the panels are assumed to remain energized.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should extinguishment efforts be avoided at a pole transformer fire?

    <p>Until the utility company confirms that the power is off.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate action when dealing with a downed wire on a vehicle with a viable victim present?

    <p>Keep the victim in the vehicle until power is cut off.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus during a scene with downed wires?

    <p>To ensure no personnel or apparatus are placed under the wires.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far should the hazard zone be identified or evacuated from a pole transformer fire?

    <p>One pole distance from the affected pole.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of a substation fire, where should responders set up?

    <p>Uphill and upwind from the fire site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which PPE is specifically recommended for responders dealing with electrical incidents?

    <p>Lineman's gloves and turnout gear.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required before extinguishing a fire in a substation?

    <p>Approval from the utility company to enter the facility.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done if immediate lifesaving intervention is necessary and a telescoping hot stick is not available?

    <p>Utilize a length of rope to displace the wire from the victim.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kind of equipment should be avoided for use in high voltage environments like substations?

    <p>Water hoses for fire suppression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the Key Secure unit on fire apparatus?

    <p>To hold keys in a locked state until needed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When using the electronic key, what must be done immediately after removing it from the Key Secure?

    <p>Enter the division's key security code</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which item is not categorized under other entry items used in the Rapid Key Entry System?

    <p>Backup batteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is ultimately responsible for the security of the keys in the Key Secure Unit?

    <p>The Officer in charge of the apparatus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if an apparatus with a Key Secure is being changed over to a reserve unit?

    <p>Transfer the keys to the new reserve unit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a key secure unit is locked out after five invalid PIN attempts?

    <p>Press the arrow key for ten seconds to reset the unit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the protocol for utilizing the Rapid Key Entry System for functions other than emergency operations?

    <p>It is strictly prohibited for non-emergency duties.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for documenting the use of the key box in the fire or EMS report?

    <p>The member completing the report.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen to the keys after they are used from a key box?

    <p>They must be returned to the key box and secured immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indication is shown on buildings that have a key box for the Rapid Key Entry System?

    <p>A red sticker on the entry door.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must an Officer do if they find a missing Key?

    <p>Immediately inform ES-2 and complete necessary documentation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What responsibilities do members have regarding the key box during its use?

    <p>The Officer must ensure it is secured at all times.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done after using a key switch for gate access?

    <p>Revert it back to normal operation mode before leaving.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the key secure unit displays a flashing light after a lock-out, what does it indicate?

    <p>Temporary unavailability of the unit for entries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action must ES Companies take regarding Knox boxes for non-emergency purposes?

    <p>They must not gain access for non-emergency means.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first arriving apparatus do first upon arrival at an elevator entrapment incident?

    <p>Give initial size-up and establish command.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances can the incident response be upgraded to a 'Rescue Response'?

    <p>Based on additional information received from the Fire Alarm Office or arriving companies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered when deciding whether to wait for the elevator technician if there are no medical needs?

    <p>The location type of building where the entrapment occurred.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the highest-ranking officer at the scene of an incident?

    <p>Act as the incident commander.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should be taken if the elevator technician has not been notified?

    <p>Request notification through the property manager or direct communication avenues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered when identifying the type of elevator involved in an incident?

    <p>Specifics of the elevator design, such as hydraulic or traction systems.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information is essential to confirm at the scene regarding the trapped individuals?

    <p>Their location and number in the elevator.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which resource should be utilized to gather information about the elevator during an incident?

    <p>The State of Ohio Elevator Database.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the preference when sending a member to the elevator control room after confirming an entrapment?

    <p>A member with elevator knowledge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Before any manual extrication occurs, which procedure must be completed first?

    <p>Perform lockout/tagout procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If no keyhole is present at the hoist-way door, what should be done?

    <p>Drill a new keyhole using a template</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if an elevator is more than 2 feet off the landing?

    <p>Secure the elevator mechanically</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific condition must be met for the 'hard reset' of an elevator to be conducted?

    <p>The incident commander must approve the action</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a shaft-way rescue, what must be done concerning power to adjoining elevators?

    <p>Lockout all power to the adjoining elevators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tools should be collected by the ladder company when responding to an entrapment incident?

    <p>Irons, pike poles, and other appropriate equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured regarding the elevator doors before initiating any rescue operations?

    <p>The elevator doors should be closed and secured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the elevator technician be consulted during the rescue operation?

    <p>Whenever the incident commander deems necessary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must trained rescue technicians be cautious of when performing a shaft-way rescue?

    <p>Backup power sources within the units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered if the procedures to recall the elevator to the floor fail?

    <p>Shut down elevator power temporarily</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is critical when manually extricating occupants if traditional methods fail?

    <p>Utilizing hydraulic bleeder valves, if applicable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is establishing communication with the occupants vital during an entrapment situation?

    <p>It keeps the occupants calm and informed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the lockout/tagout procedures are successfully completed, what is the subsequent step?

    <p>Proceed with manual extrication of occupants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum requirement for gas monitoring upon entry into the tunnel?

    <p>3 multi-gas meters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the response if elevated atmospheric readings are detected?

    <p>Upgrade the incident to a masked incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum duration for personnel to remain inside the tunnel under the 40/60 rule?

    <p>1 hour 42 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs after all personnel have exited the tunnel following an incident?

    <p>They are required to decon and report to Rehab for evaluation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which situation will a tunnel incident be classified as a masked incident?

    <p>When flooding occurs and water reaches knee level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What protocol must be followed in the event of a mayday call?

    <p>Standby crew and additional Tunnel Team members must be activated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When will communications in a masked incident be unavailable?

    <p>During all masked incidents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required action for any member that has entered the tunnel during a masked incident?

    <p>Must wait at least 6 hours before re-entry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation must be completed for entry into the tunnel?

    <p>Confined Space Rescue Permit form ES-223</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action to take upon concluding an incident in the tunnel?

    <p>Secure the scene and turn it over to the responsible party</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action that should be taken by the first arriving company at an incident below ground?

    <p>Initiate Level III accountability of all fire companies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be requested by RS-10 or RS-1 before any tunnel entry?

    <p>Air monitoring and anemometer records.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a rescue operation, what must the standby rescue team be in terms of readiness?

    <p>90% ready.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines the classification of an incident as Masked or No Mask?

    <p>Communications with the construction crew.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first Battalion Chief do upon arrival at an underground incident?

    <p>Assume command and direct all operational efforts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be prioritized in the case of a working incident involving a collapse?

    <p>Establish a no-fly zone above the site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a Decon corridor is needed, what should be established first?

    <p>Decon flow charts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first arriving Tunnel Rescue Technician at an incident?

    <p>Perform the initial size-up of the situation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a No Mask incident, how should the initial rescue team prepare before entry?

    <p>Collect personal escape bottles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation must be assured by RS-10 or RS-1?

    <p>All forms are distributed and filled out appropriately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical aspect of preparing SCBAs before entering the tunnel?

    <p>They must be full at 3,000 psi.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a Masked Incident?

    <p>Any incident involving flooding or toxic environments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which team is responsible for checking the BIO PAK 240R on a weekly basis?

    <p>The Tunnel Rescue Team members.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Tunnel Rescue Certification is accurate?

    <p>Tunnel Rescue Certification must be renewed annually with a recertification course.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of a working Tunnel Rescue Incident being aired over all station PA’s?

    <p>It indicates a serious emergency necessitating awareness across units.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If additional assistance is needed during a tunnel incident, what action should the incident commander consider?

    <p>Requesting a second RSU.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which document should all members review to ensure safety in confined spaces?

    <p>Confined Space Entry Form.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is required if maintenance is needed on the BIO PAK 240Rs?

    <p>Email a certified benchman and CC RS-1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a No Mask Incident from a Masked Incident?

    <p>No Mask Incidents allow for proper ventilation but do not create an IDLH environment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done to ensure that hazardous energy has not accumulated before entering the hazard zone?

    <p>Perform a 'Safe Condition Check' and verify with communication equipment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action is NOT required when the proper authority is unavailable at the scene?

    <p>Leave locks on devices to prevent accidental activation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Fire Department during the incident containment phase?

    <p>Maintain complete control of the incident until it is contained.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When exchanging control of an incident, what is a critical aspect that must be communicated?

    <p>Coordination of personnel and resources following the proper authority.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done immediately before entering a hazard zone?

    <p>Verify that all victims and rescuers are out of the hazard zone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Safe Condition Check?

    <p>To verify that hazardous energy is controlled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure should be performed FIRST when managing hazardous energy sources?

    <p>Consult with company/contractor to determine all energy sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured if a lockout/tagout device is used?

    <p>It must comply with manufacturer’s recommendations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the shutdown procedure, who should remain at the energy source?

    <p>A member with a radio to maintain lockout procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered when removing an energy source during a hazardous situation?

    <p>Detrimental effects of removing the energy source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of maintaining lockout procedures with multiple energy sources?

    <p>To prevent accidental re-energization of any source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an alternative energy source that should be considered during lockout procedures?

    <p>Solar panels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required before lockout/tagout procedures are performed?

    <p>A detailed understanding of all potential hazards</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation should be completed if a responsible party is present during a fire watch situation?

    <p>Emergency Impairment Fire Watch Order</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario should concerns regarding the appropriateness of a fire watch be escalated?

    <p>When there are questions about building demographics or hazards</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with the Emergency Impairment Fire Watch Order if no responsible party is on site?

    <p>Post it in a conspicuous location like the front door</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done after returning to quarters following the implementation of Fire Watch Storm?

    <p>Fill out the FP-320 Fire Watch Storm form and submit it</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How frequently should the FAO send the current list of properties on fire watch?

    <p>At 0800 and 2000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What scenario necessitates the implementation of Fire Watch Storm under Ohio Fire Code?

    <p>If the fire alarm system is compromised due to extreme weather or power outage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the FAO in relation to additional alarms at properties listed for fire watch?

    <p>To enter the property information on the Fire Watch Storm record template</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who must consult on the demobilization of Fire Watch Storm?

    <p>P18, FPB COC, and ES Command Staff</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done before attempting to reset the fire alarm system?

    <p>Investigate the activated initiating device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should be avoided if a building is actively being evacuated?

    <p>Silencing the notification devices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper procedure if a fire suppression/detection system is non-operational?

    <p>Contact the alarm service provider and Prevention 18</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done once the area is cleared and thoroughly investigated?

    <p>Attempt a reset at the main FACU</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If unable to reset the Fire Alarm Control Unit (FACU), what is the recommended course of action?

    <p>Contact Prevention 18 for assistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured before silencing the alarm notification devices in the building?

    <p>There are no ongoing evacuations or hazards present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which device should be investigated prior to resetting the fire alarm system?

    <p>Initiating device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct action if a building is locked and no representative is on site?

    <p>Utilize the building's Knox Box key if available</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary responsibilities of the Bomb Squad in response to hazardous devices?

    <p>To investigate, render safe, and/or dispose of hazardous devices.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Bomb Squad?

    <p>Conduct regular fire drills for public safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the Bomb Squad ensure safe transportation of explosives?

    <p>By providing legal, safe transportation and disposal methods.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario would the Bomb Squad be required to coordinate with CBRNE partners?

    <p>In response to events involving explosive materials and potential chemical threats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of training programs does the Bomb Squad participate in?

    <p>Explosive-related training programs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a responsibility of the Bomb Squad regarding evidence?

    <p>To collect and preserve evidence from bombing crime scenes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of maintaining a library of technical publications within the Bomb Squad?

    <p>To enhance knowledge of federal explosives laws and regulations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the reporting responsibilities of the Bomb Squad related to explosive incidents?

    <p>To compile and report technical data on devices to BATS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who holds the ultimate responsibility for the disposition of a suspicious or hazardous device at the scene?

    <p>The senior Bomb Squad Technician</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a requirement for an individual to be eligible for the Bomb Squad training program?

    <p>At least three years of full-time experience in a public safety department</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which group has a say in recommending trainees for the Hazardous Devices School?

    <p>The Selection Review Panel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action may happen if a bomb technician fails to meet minimum training standards?

    <p>Suspension from operational status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often must bomb technicians attend the HDS Recertification Course?

    <p>Every three years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is included in the continuing education requirements for bomb squad technicians?

    <p>Forty hours of explosive-related training each year</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What will happen to bomb technicians who cannot complete their training due to unusual circumstances?

    <p>They can make up missed hours at a later time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement for maintaining active duty status as a bomb technician?

    <p>Completion of advanced investigative courses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organization must each bomb technician maintain membership in?

    <p>International Association of Bomb Technicians and Investigators (IABTI)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of training is required monthly for bomb technicians?

    <p>Sixteen hours of practical exercises/disruptors training</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What household regulation must bombs technicians comply with?

    <p>Maintain physical and operational readiness requirements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Bomb Squad Commander during an incident?

    <p>To assume control of the Bomb Squad operations at the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which equipment must each technician demonstrate proficiency with annually?

    <p>Portable X-Ray machine, bomb suits, and robots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which certification must applicants meet for FBI Bomb Data Center?

    <p>Eligibility for FBI 'Secret' Level clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who must approve all requests for a Bomb Squad response outside Franklin County?

    <p>The Fire Chief</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum number of certified bomb technicians that can respond to a bomb situation if a third technician requires overtime?

    <p>Two technicians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following personnel is always designated as the Incident Commander at a bomb response scene?

    <p>The highest-ranking Division member at the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information must the Fire Alarm Office (FAO) obtain when processing a request for the Bomb Squad?

    <p>The type of device, location, and circumstances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen if both the Fire Chief and Executive Officer are unavailable for approval of a Bomb Squad response?

    <p>The request reverts back to ES-2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the standard number of Certified Bomb Technicians assigned to a bomb response outside the City of Columbus?

    <p>Three Certified Bomb Technicians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for notifying the Public Information Officer (PIO) immediately after a bomb incident?

    <p>The Fire Alarm Office</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a person say to the news media until the PIO is notified?

    <p>At this time, we cannot release any information pertaining to the Bomb Squad response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who should handle scheduling for all public lectures or presentations by Bomb Squad members?

    <p>The Bomb Squad Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinction is made regarding Bomb Squad Trainees in bomb response assignments outside the City?

    <p>They should respond whenever possible.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the BioWatch program?

    <p>To detect the intentional release of aerosolized biological agents.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a BioWatch Actionable Result (BAR) signify?

    <p>A detected biological agent's DNA requiring further verification.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of a BAR notification, who is primarily responsible for responding if the BAR is from a CFD fire station?

    <p>ES-2 along with HazMat1 and the Special Operations Deputy Chief.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many detectors does BioWatch utilize in the central Ohio area?

    <p>10 detectors, 7 of which are located at CFD fire stations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of clothing does the Ohio EPA Sampling team wear when responding to a BAR detection?

    <p>Level C protective clothing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about the location of BioWatch detectors?

    <p>Their locations are confidential and classified as FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs immediately after a BAR notification is received?

    <p>The public health officer contacts ES-2 for further instructions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the BioWatch Steering Committee during a BAR event?

    <p>To verify test results and coordinate responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of Threat Level Staging when responding to an incident?

    <p>To eliminate the potential for a secondary device deployment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event that a BAR is confirmed, which individuals must receive prophylaxis?

    <p>Firefighters and their immediate family members from the affected station</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical action for companies under Threat Level Staging?

    <p>Maintain a staging distance of at least 100 yards from each other</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the BioWatch advisory committee's role during an incident?

    <p>To determine local response actions in conjunction with health authorities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Threat Level Staging from traditional staging methods?

    <p>Threat Level Staging requires companies to maintain distance from the incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should Threat Level Staging primarily be utilized?

    <p>In scenarios involving known threats or confirmed terrorist activities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of traditional staging as practiced by Columbus Fire?

    <p>All companies stage in one designated area for streamlined response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern when implementing Threat Level Staging compared to traditional staging?

    <p>Avoiding potential secondary threats to responding personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of pre-placement medical evaluations for Division members?

    <p>To establish the candidate's medical fitness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be transmitted to the emergency room prior to transporting a Division member from the HazMat Team?

    <p>Probable chemical or agent involved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key aspect of the follow-up occupational exposure evaluations within 72 hours?

    <p>To determine the firefighter’s exposure status and symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should periodic medical evaluations be conducted for accepted members of the HazMat and Bomb Squad?

    <p>Annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is emphasized in the quality assurance process by HazMat and Bomb Squad supervisors?

    <p>Reviewing previous exposures to evaluate the surveillance program</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered beneficial, but not essential, when transporting a Division member post-exposure?

    <p>Transmitting current complaints and vital signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must Division members do if they experience a significant exposure during an incident?

    <p>Be transported to a specified medical provider after on-site treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a purpose for conducting follow-up discussions after an occupational exposure evaluation?

    <p>Assign a new team leader for ongoing operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of personnel trained at the First Responder Operations Level during a HazMat incident?

    <p>To contain the release from a safe distance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When responding to a HazMat incident, what should be avoided while assessing the situation?

    <p>Driving through vapor clouds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the evaluation of a HazMat scene, which item is NOT essential for gathering information?

    <p>The time of day</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if there are long-term flammable vapors present during a HazMat incident?

    <p>Consider evacuating the area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a rescue is necessary while chemicals are present?

    <p>Wear full structural firefighting protective clothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial step after determining the presence of chemicals at a HazMat scene?

    <p>Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should personnel manage contaminated and decontaminated individuals after a rescue?

    <p>Keep them separated until evaluated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one action that should NOT be taken when setting up a staging area near a HazMat incident?

    <p>Locating it too close to the hazard area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of shelter-in-place during hazardous material incidents?

    <p>To protect individuals when evacuation poses a greater risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a defensive action that can be taken during the mitigation of a spill?

    <p>Damming to control fluid overflow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'Hot Zone' designate at a hazardous materials incident?

    <p>An area where only entry and back-up crews may enter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial action that HazMat techs should take upon arriving at a hazardous materials incident?

    <p>Obtain briefing from the incident commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done at the conclusion of a successful mitigation of a hazard?

    <p>Contact a clean-up contractor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area is designated as the 'Cold Zone' in hazardous materials operations?

    <p>The staging area without the need for protective clothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the incident commander play during a hazardous materials incident?

    <p>Assume control of the incident and ensure communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the tasks performed by the HazMat officer upon arrival?

    <p>Size-up the HazMat site for operational safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should follow immediately after the completion of the mitigation actions?

    <p>Conduct a debriefing for all personnel involved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario would shelter-in-place be justified?

    <p>Inaccessible evacuation routes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a mandatory annual requirement for all personnel assigned to the HazMat team at Station 4?

    <p>36 hours of refresher training</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which standard must paramedics assigned to Station 4 aim to meet through specific training courses?

    <p>NFPA 473</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the responsibilities of the Hazardous Materials Branch Officer during an incident?

    <p>Coordinating the HazMat branch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which NFPA standard should HazMat technician officers not assigned to Station 4 attend training for?

    <p>NFPA 472, Chapter 7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for members wishing to become HazMat technicians at Station 4?

    <p>Provide a letter to the captain requesting training</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which individual is responsible for following the lead tender/timer checklist?

    <p>Lead tender/timer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must members of the HazMat team complete to maintain their status according to standard requirements?

    <p>Annual refresher courses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum duration a firefighter can work out of class while acting as the Hazardous Materials Branch Officer?

    <p>4 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the decon coordinator during a HazMat incident?

    <p>Coordinating the decon group and supervising the decontamination process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which task is NOT a responsibility of the research officer during a HazMat incident?

    <p>Assisting in the decontamination of entry teams</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the backup team in a HazMat response scenario?

    <p>To execute the rescue of downed entry team members</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the role of the HazMat EMS officer?

    <p>Treating personnel exposed to hazardous materials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the HazMat safety officer?

    <p>Ensuring personnel safety within the hazardous materials branch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which team is responsible for ensuring that air monitors are calibrated at least monthly?

    <p>Station 4 personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the officer in charge of HazMat 4 at an incident?

    <p>To report to the incident commander and manage communications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur if the time on-scene for personnel exceeds two hours?

    <p>Billing for on-duty personnel must be initiated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a HazMat incident, which individual is tasked with submitting an itemized bill to the business office?

    <p>The HazMat branch officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Air Monitoring Log assigned to each air monitor?

    <p>To log the calibration dates and purposes of air monitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the EMS Supervisor at a command post during an incident involving HazMat?

    <p>Determining the needed EMS resources and relaying patient information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key limitation on the operations of all EMS units during an incident?

    <p>They can only function in the 'Cold Zone'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes the role of one medic retained for victim care?

    <p>To prioritize victim care while ensuring patient safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason the HazMat team requires EMS standing by?

    <p>To provide immediate medical support for team members</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which area must medics and their vehicles be protected while working at a HazMat incident?

    <p>The Cold Zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done first when a dose alarm is activated on a single unit?

    <p>Contact HazMat 4 for instructions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate action when multiple units activate dose alarms?

    <p>Back off from the area until the dose rate drops below 1 mR/hr.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the incident commander do if no legitimate reasons for radiation presence are found?

    <p>Request a HazMat response for further evaluation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often is calibration checked for each unit?

    <p>Once every 18 months.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step to take if a unit is found to be defective?

    <p>Notify the logistics center for evaluation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum radiation rate that activates the 'RATE' alarm on the UDR-13BR unit?

    <p>10 mR/hr</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should personnel do if a unit is found running in the 'ON' position?

    <p>Press the 'ON/OFF' button until 'SLP' appears.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often does the UDR-13BR unit wake up to provide a current reading in sleep mode?

    <p>Every 5 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario does not require activating the UDR-13BR from sleep mode?

    <p>Routine battery check</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the total dosage of radiation that triggers the 'DOSE' alarm?

    <p>1 rem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under normal conditions, which alarm will sound first before the 'DOSE' alarm?

    <p>'RATE' alarm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should crews do immediately when a 'RATE' alarm sounds?

    <p>Cease all non-essential activities and evacuate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What issue may cause the UDR-13BR alarm to activate incorrectly?

    <p>Personnel with radioactive medications or tests.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Biological Detection System (BDS) installed at the postal facility?

    <p>To detect the presence of harmful contaminants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which emergency response agency takes initial command when a BDS alarm is triggered?

    <p>Columbus Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the procedure when a Biological Detection System (BDS) alarm is activated?

    <p>Postal procedures require partial evacuation and securing the area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What types of resources are dispatched in response to a BDS alarm?

    <p>Equipment and personnel from various emergency services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is pre-planning with various agencies essential in responding to a BDS alarm?

    <p>To prevent confusion and ensure a coordinated response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the alarm office announce upon receiving a BDS alarm?

    <p>There is a biological detection alarm at the site.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a biological detection incident, which area of the facility serves as the decontamination site?

    <p>An on-site decontamination area located at the rear of the facility.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of communication is employed by the postal personnel to notify other agencies after a BDS alarm?

    <p>Direct phone calls to specified emergency contacts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary objective of establishing the 'VMF division' upon arrival of the engine?

    <p>To maintain radio communication with command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Upon arriving at the scene, what is the first action for the ladder unit?

    <p>Establish a command post at the main entrance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the Columbus Division of Fire officially cease incident command?

    <p>When the United States Postal Inspectors take control of the building</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What crucial action must be performed by HazMat 4 upon arrival?

    <p>Determine HazMat branch positions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which communication channel should be utilized for establishing unified command with USPS PEMS and CPD?

    <p>Channel 9 City 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does the medic perform upon arrival at an incident scene?

    <p>Report to incident commander for coordination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of verifying that Group 3 employees are properly decontaminated?

    <p>It complies with health department regulations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the Division PIO upon arrival?

    <p>Coordinate media relations with CPD’s PIO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical verification step must be taken by the Battalion Chief after establishing command?

    <p>Ascertain any additional resources required</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must the medic be prepared to establish when arriving at the incident?

    <p>Triage or treatment areas if needed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum time personnel may be required to remain on the mutual aid scene?

    <p>24 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action must the HazMat officer complete before departing the scene?

    <p>Collect billing information from the Incident Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition would the HazMat Support Unit be staffed by on-duty crew?

    <p>When a second incident is likely or response duration exceeds a limit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done by HazMat personnel within one hour of the response request?

    <p>Contact off-duty HazMat technicians for assistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) should HazMat 4 follow during mutual aid response?

    <p>SOP# 03-03-02</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum expected response duration for an immediate emergency response by HazMat 4?

    <p>Less than 12 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for contacting the Incident Commander or dispatch center regarding the HazMat mutual aid request?

    <p>Fire Alarm Office (FAO)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of ES-2 in the response process for HazMat mutual aid requests?

    <p>To provide recommendations on the appropriate response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a delayed response option for mutual aid, which personnel are preferred for staffing HZ4 and Medic 4?

    <p>Station 4 assigned personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action does the HazMat officer take after determining the response options for a mutual aid request?

    <p>Determine the MARCS radio communications channel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which resource remains behind during an immediate emergency response while HZ4 is dispatched?

    <p>HazMat Support Unit 4 (HSU4)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must the Fire Alarm Office inform the Incident Commander or dispatch center after receiving a mutual aid request?

    <p>That HZ4 will contact them directly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition will a HazMat officer call in off-duty personnel for a delayed response?

    <p>When on-duty personnel are unavailable</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary duty of personnel at the First Responder Operations Level?

    <p>To contain a release from a distance and protect exposures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should responders do during the isolation of a hazardous materials scene?

    <p>Establish a secure perimeter and deny entry to unprotected individuals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a radiological event, how far should the safe staging area be from the hazard?

    <p>1/4 mile away</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical limitation when rescuers are in the 'Hot Zone'?

    <p>They should limit time to the use of one SCBA air bottle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action that should be taken when responding to a hazardous material incident?

    <p>Determine the potential risk to life, property, or the environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if a rescuer identifies visible vapor or dust clouds?

    <p>Avoid entering the vapor/dust cloud for rescue purposes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When conducting emergency decontamination procedures, what must responders wear?

    <p>Full structural firefighting protective clothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of a HazMat Technician in response to an incident?

    <p>To stop the release of hazardous materials in an offensive manner</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum distance for securing a hot zone around a suspected radioactive device?

    <p>330 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the established perimeter for the hot zone when using radiation detectors like the Canberra UDR-13?

    <p>1000 mR/hr</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what circumstances might evacuation be considered as the best protective action?

    <p>Presence of flammable vapors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum dose allowable for entry team members according to the guidelines?

    <p>5000 mrem</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What equipment should be used to identify contamination during a hot zone survey?

    <p>LUDLUM MODEL 3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a radiological event involves more than five victims?

    <p>Declare a medical emergency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary focus of the rescue company upon arrival at the incident site?

    <p>To assist the hazardous materials branch officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is essential information to communicate to hospitals when notifying them of expected radiological victims?

    <p>Type of hazard and estimated time of arrival</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates the level of the command post established for a radiological incident?

    <p>Less than 10 mR/hr</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a contamination survey, what method is suggested for monitoring the dose rate of entry team members?

    <p>Checking dosimeters every 15 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of emergency requires the activation of the Radiation Incident Notification Group?

    <p>Suspected terrorism incident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defensive action can be implemented to control a hazardous spill, according to the guidelines?

    <p>Damming or diking to retain liquids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step to perform when using the Isotope Identi-Finder during a radiological incident?

    <p>Identify isotope and report findings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To mitigate the impact of a radiological incident, what action should be prioritized?

    <p>Keeping the product out of sewage systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What insignia represents the rank of Sergeant within the Division of Police?

    <p>Chevrons on shirt collars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which rank within the Division of Police is directly comparable to a Battalion Chief in the Division of Fire?

    <p>Commander</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the insignia worn by Lieutenants in the Division of Police?

    <p>Single silver bars on shoulder boards</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What features are displayed on the coats of Police Commanders regarding their insignia?

    <p>Three gold silk braids on both sleeves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What identifies supervisory personnel from the Division of Police at a joint operation scene?

    <p>Gold chin straps on hats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What insignia is worn by a Police Deputy Chief on the epaulets of their uniform shirt?

    <p>Two silver stars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many supervisory ranks exist within the Division of Police?

    <p>Five</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates that a Lieutenant within the Division of Police might also display on their uniforms?

    <p>Half-inch wide gold silk braid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color helmet do Fire Captains wear?

    <p>Red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What colors are used for the badges worn by supervisory personnel in the Division of Police?

    <p>Gold and silver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the rank insignia for a Battalion Chief within the Division of Fire?

    <p>Two crossed bugles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following ranks has a badge that depicts five crossed bugles?

    <p>Fire Chief</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What insignia is worn by a Fire Lieutenant on their uniform shirt?

    <p>Single standing bugle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of braid is displayed on the coat of the Chief of Police?

    <p>Gold Dure Lace</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the shoulder board insignia for an Assistant Chief within the Division of Fire?

    <p>Four crossed bugles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What color shirt do Deputy Chiefs in the Division of Fire typically wear?

    <p>Navy Blue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many supervisory ranks are there within the Division of Fire?

    <p>Six</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of designs are present on the visor of the Chief of Police's hat?

    <p>Gold gilt spray design</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of police personnel when assisting at a fire or medical emergency scene?

    <p>To provide support services like crowd control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which communication method is used for police and fire personnel to coordinate during a joint operation?

    <p>Police-Fire talkgroup of the 800MHz radio system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen if fire personnel require specific support from police during a medical emergency?

    <p>The fire alarm office contacts the police communications center</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a scene involving both a crime and a medical emergency, what aspect initially takes precedence?

    <p>The medical emergency managed by fire personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is necessary for a police supervisor to do when interacting with the ranking fire official at a scene?

    <p>Seek out and communicate the fire's support needs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What key factor can impact the effectiveness of police and fire personnel at a joint crime and medical emergency scene?

    <p>Lack of cooperation between the two divisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a crucial action fire personnel must undertake immediately at an emergency scene?

    <p>Implement measures to contain the situation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could potentially happen if communication between police and fire personnel is insufficient during an emergency?

    <p>Injuries may occur and criminals could escape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of Division of Fire personnel upon arriving at a crime scene?

    <p>To ensure EMS personnel can carry out their duties without contaminating the scene.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can fire personnel move weapons found at a crime scene?

    <p>If it is necessary for the safety of individuals present.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should fire personnel do if they have to move a weapon at a crime scene without a police officer present?

    <p>Carefully document the weapon's location before moving it.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What priority should be given to medical emergencies arising from a traffic accident?

    <p>It should take precedence over evidentiary considerations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When Division of Fire personnel exit a crime scene, what materials are they allowed to clean up?

    <p>Hazardous materials that do not interfere with evidence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the first police officer on the scene during a medical emergency?

    <p>Administer lifesaving care to injured persons if capable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should be avoided when handling a firearm at a crime scene?

    <p>Picking the firearm up by the trigger guard.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required from fire personnel when they move a weapon or item at a crime scene?

    <p>To give their name and assignment to police authorities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines if a scene is classified as a medical emergency?

    <p>The potential for saving a victim's life.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key guideline that fire personnel must follow when entering or exiting the crime scene?

    <p>They should select a single point of entry if it does not delay patient care.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Once the medical emergency is stabilized, who assumes operational control of the scene?

    <p>The Division of Police.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the responsibilities of police personnel at the scene of a traffic accident?

    <p>Determine the severity of the accident and request emergency services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must the highest ranking police official ensure regarding EMS personnel at a crime scene?

    <p>Their adherence to crime scene protocols.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should fire personnel mark their actions when evidence is preserved at a crime scene?

    <p>By clearly noting the locations of evidence before touching them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first action a police officer should take upon securing a crime scene?

    <p>Identify and isolate witnesses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should police personnel do if Fire Division personnel request the movement of an object at the crime scene?

    <p>Report the request to the investigating detective</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of improperly handling firearms at a crime scene?

    <p>Evidence may be deemed inadmissible in court.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is required from the highest ranking police official when arriving at a crime scene?

    <p>Act as a liaison with EMS personnel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If fire personnel must move a firearm, what is a vital action they should take?

    <p>Preserve the integrity of the evidence by minimizing contact.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation should a police officer consider canceling Division of Fire personnel?

    <p>In the case of a decapitated or decomposing body.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a scenario where police arrive after fire personnel, what should the fire team do?

    <p>Select a single point of entry and inform police.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the joint responsibility of the highest ranking representatives of the police and fire divisions at a scene?

    <p>To ensure smooth communication and cooperation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary objective of the Fire Incident Commander at a traffic accident scene?

    <p>To oversee the operational control of medical emergencies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the sequence of operations altered if Division of Fire personnel are present at the crime scene?

    <p>The first police officer may not be involved in treating the injured.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What documentation process must police personnel initiate at a crime scene?

    <p>Establish a crime scene log.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should moving objects in a crime scene be a last resort?

    <p>To prevent contamination of evidence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what circumstance can fire personnel clear the area and return to service?

    <p>If no medical emergency exists.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should police do if they determine that Division of Fire personnel are needed after securing the scene?

    <p>Advise using the main police talkgroup.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of fire personnel at the scene of a traffic accident involving injuries?

    <p>To neutralize any hazardous materials if requested</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should fire personnel avoid doing at an accident scene if there is a strong possibility of a fatality?

    <p>Cleaning hazardous materials collected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which information is fire personnel required to provide to police upon arrival at an accident scene?

    <p>The position of the vehicles involved in the accident</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must fire personnel do if they collect hazardous materials from the scene after a fatal accident?

    <p>Inform police about the materials collected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstance may fire personnel provide lighting at an accident scene?

    <p>Only when it is safe and no hazardous situation exists</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority concern for police when fire personnel advise about a victim’s condition at an accident scene?

    <p>The risk of death to the victim</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of significant information must fire personnel document during a traffic accident response?

    <p>Any substantial alterations made to the accident scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should fire personnel take if hazardous materials are present at an accident site?

    <p>Take immediate action to neutralize them if permitted by law</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if a suspected explosive device is found at a scene?

    <p>Notify the Division of Fire and evacuate the area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances can the responsibility of the scene be transferred back to police personnel after an explosive situation?

    <p>After the explosive device is rendered safe by fire personnel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should police personnel do with electronic devices at the scene of a bomb threat?

    <p>Prohibit use within the perimeter to prevent detonation risks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a bomb threat is received and no explosive device is found, what is the next step for police personnel?

    <p>Complete an incident report and forward it to the Bomb Squad Commander.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a bomb threat where nothing is actually found, who is responsible for deciding to evacuate a facility?

    <p>The facility manager, supervisor, or owner.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When establishing a safety perimeter at a bomb threat scene, which guideline should be followed?

    <p>Use the Homeland Security Bomb Threat Stand-off card as a reference.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should police personnel inform the communications center about during a bomb threat scenario?

    <p>Any hazardous materials present at the scene.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended approach when searching for a suspicious package during a bomb threat?

    <p>Search only the areas that are normally accessible to the public.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a bomb threat occurs during a school event, what is the priority for police personnel?

    <p>To assist in moving occupants to an area of safety.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should personnel respond if a bomb threat indicates a possible terrorist connection?

    <p>Notify the Terrorist Early Warning (TEW) Unit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should police do if they receive an alert about an explosive device in a motor vehicle?

    <p>Dispatch a patrol sergeant and notify the fire alarm office.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if an explosion occurs resulting in injuries?

    <p>Obtain medical assistance and provide first aid until help arrives.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with explosive materials once the bomb squad arrives?

    <p>Leave them in the custody of the bomb squad.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial to do immediately after any explosive situation is stabilized?

    <p>Complete an incident report and evaluate damages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agency assumes operational control at a recovery scene during a drowning incident?

    <p>Division of Police</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done if a suspected explosive device is found in a vehicle?

    <p>Assume operational control until the device is secured</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation will the Division of Fire assume operational control?

    <p>Upon discovering a high-risk explosive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of fire personnel at drowning scenes?

    <p>Respond to a location visible to the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assisting police in a forced entry situation, what is NOT a task that fire personnel can do?

    <p>Force entry into the structure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation would initiate a SWAT response involving fire personnel?

    <p>A hostage situation requiring medical attention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of an incident involving both arson and a homicide, which agency is primarily responsible for the investigation?

    <p>Division of Police</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done immediately upon receiving a report of potential suicide by jumping?

    <p>Notify the police communications center</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about securing a crime scene is true?

    <p>Criminal investigations are the responsibility of Division of Police only</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs if a crime other than arson is involved in the investigation?

    <p>Division of Police will collaborate with Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required from police personnel during forced entry situations?

    <p>Report all valuables to the Property Control Unit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of fire personnel upon identifying a suspected explosive device?

    <p>Ensure the area is secure and safe for civilians</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of an explosion necessitating a medical emergency response, which agency maintains operational control?

    <p>Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should fire personnel take upon notification of a drowning incident from a source other than the Division of Police?

    <p>Notify the fire alarm office immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which entity takes operational control in the event of a 'Point Event' natural disaster?

    <p>Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mission of the Division of Police during a natural disaster response?

    <p>To establish emergency response routes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which condition could the Mayor assume the role of Incident Commander?

    <p>If it constitutes a 'Wide Area Emergency'.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the absence of the Mayor as Incident Commander, which entity regains operational control?

    <p>Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an example of a natural disaster?

    <p>Terrorist activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What secondary mission does the Division of Police have during a disaster response?

    <p>Traffic control.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of disaster results from intentional or accidental acts against public safety?

    <p>Man-made disasters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agency may provide recommendations regarding the Mayor assuming the role of Incident Commander?

    <p>Franklin County Emergency Management Agency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which division is responsible for managing disaster scenes that include train derailments and gas leaks?

    <p>Division of Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When civil disobedience occurs, which division assumes control of the disaster scene?

    <p>Division of Police</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of a hazardous material incident, what is the primary mission of the Division of Police?

    <p>Conduct evacuations and isolate the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following duties is a secondary mission of the Division of Police at a man-made disaster scene?

    <p>Traffic control and evacuations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What vital information must police personnel convey immediately when supporting Fire personnel during a disaster?

    <p>Identification of hazardous chemicals involved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of incidents does the Division of Fire NOT manage?

    <p>Civil disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should personnel prefix their transmissions on the Police-Fire talkgroup?

    <p>CPD (your call number) to CFD (unit number or location)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when Police personnel are dispatched to a disaster scene where Fire has been called to 'stand by'?

    <p>Police supervisor must summon or cancel Fire personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following would NOT require immediate alerting of the Fire dispatcher by Police personnel?

    <p>The presence of a protest group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is responsible for ensuring direct communication between Police and Fire personnel at a joint operational scene?

    <p>Assigned personnel from both divisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the officer broadcasting instructions to the waiting Fire units over the Police-Fire talkgroup?

    <p>To provide directions for entering the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When responding with police, what should fire personnel NOT do on the assigned police talkgroup?

    <p>Use standard 10 codes for communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper way for fire units to identify themselves on radio communications?

    <p>COLUMBUS FIRE #{unit number} for identification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should fire personnel report their status when engaging with police incidents?

    <p>Clearly mark their status as 'normal' on the fire talkgroup</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary communication method for SWAT team instructions to fire personnel?

    <p>Face to face communication primarily</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if fire personnel are marked responding to a 'POLICE STANDBY' on NTAC-1 Talk.group?

    <p>Only report in person to the command post if directed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a Fire Alarm Officer do when they receive a 'POLICE STANDBY' call?

    <p>Obtain the necessary police talkgroup for remarks on the MDC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it advantageous for fire personnel to become familiar with police 10-codes?

    <p>To facilitate better coordination during regular runs with police</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary action required before transmitting on the police talkgroup?

    <p>Ensure radio traffic is minimal and listen for clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When dispatched to a police standby situation on NTAC-1, what should EMS do regarding location reporting?

    <p>Report to the command post without giving location over air</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protocol is followed when communicating with the police dispatcher?

    <p>Initiate all transmissions with 'COLUMBUS FIRE EMS #' to identify the unit clearly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if there is a need for traffic management assistance on the freeway?

    <p>Use the TRAFFIC 1 talkgroup to reach ODOT First Response Team</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should fire units communicate during a police standby on the SWAT Talkgroup?

    <p>Do not mark responding and report in person to command</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should fire units do when responding to an incident involving police that requires emergency communication?

    <p>Limit communication on the police talkgroup for priority runs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advantage of familiarizing with police 10-codes for fire units?

    <p>It allows for clearer understanding of police operations during joint responses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the main purposes of using talkgroup 8-P/F, 8-EMS, or assigned fire talkgroups?

    <p>To efficiently mark unit status and respond to emergency calls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a Contact Team during an Active Violence Incident?

    <p>To locate, distract, and stop the person(s) responsible for the situation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?

    <p>A location where injured victims are treated before being moved to safe zones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the Cold Zone from the Warm Zone in incident management?

    <p>The Cold Zone is a secured area where danger is not anticipated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which definition accurately describes an Active Violence Incident (AVI)?

    <p>A situation where armed persons are actively using deadly force on others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of implementing a unified command structure during an incident?

    <p>To coordinate resources and communication among multiple responding agencies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of 'cover' in the context of an Active Violence Incident?

    <p>A desk that provides a barrier from gunfire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the role of the Extrication Group during an incident?

    <p>To establish the Casualty Collection Point and coordinate transportation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an expected characteristic of an Active aggressor/situation?

    <p>The individual actively attempts to harm people in populated areas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of the RTF when treating patients?

    <p>Provide treatment until resources are depleted or all victims are treated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an essential guideline RTF members must follow while operating in the warm zone?

    <p>They should maintain high alertness and move quickly and deliberately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many patients can each EMS member of the RTF treat based on their equipment configuration?

    <p>8 patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What choice regarding patient treatment should RTF follow for Code 1 patients?

    <p>Leave them in place for later removal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario should a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) be located in the warm zone?

    <p>Based on the number of casualties and consultation with the Extrication Group Supervisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of interventions does the TECC guidelines prioritize for patient care?

    <p>Basic hemorrhage control using tourniquets and pressure dressings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Extrication Group in incident response?

    <p>Performing initial triage and supervising RTF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What procedure should the RTF follow if they run out of equipment?

    <p>Start removing injured persons to a formed Casualty Collection Point or a safe location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following equipment is approved for basic hemorrhage control under TECC guidelines?

    <p>Tourniquets and pressure dressings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary focus of the Rescue Task Force during an incident?

    <p>Providing Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC) to victims in the warm zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the Rescue Task Force (RTF) in an Active Violence Incident?

    <p>To provide direct medical care and support to victims in the Warm Zone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC) focuses on providing care under immediate threat?

    <p>Direct Threat Care / Care under Fire</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the responsibility of the Extrication Group Supervisor in relation to the Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?

    <p>To supervise and coordinate movements from the CCP to Triage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which zone is it safe for fire personnel to operate without ballistic protective equipment?

    <p>Cold Zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What criteria must be met for the establishment of the Casualty Collection Point (CCP) in an incident?

    <p>Determined by the Extrication Group Supervisor and RTF conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best defines the Warm Zone in an Active Violence Incident?

    <p>An area where there is a potential threat and specific precautions are required.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the composition of the RTF team as per the established protocol?

    <p>Two fire department personnel and at least two LE officers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Extrication Group Supervisor during an incident?

    <p>To provide direct medical treatment to victims.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur before deploying a Rescue Task Force (RTF) into the Warm Zone?

    <p>A comprehensive assessment of potential threats must be conducted.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which scenario is a Unified Command established for the first arriving company?

    <p>When a significant incident with multiple agencies is present.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the Hot Zone in incident management?

    <p>It includes areas where direct threats are located or can move to.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Medical Branch in an Active Violence Incident?

    <p>To establish Triage, Treatment, and Transport protocols.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is indirect threat care provided in the TECC framework?

    <p>When medical personnel engage without immediate peril in the Warm Zone.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum percentage of scheduled continuing education a member must complete to retain Rescue Technician status?

    <p>75%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What marking is issued to Rescue Technicians to ensure they are identifiable at large incidents?

    <p>Blue Reflective Markings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered part of a Rescue Technician's Turnout Gear while on duty?

    <p>Blue Rescue Helmet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a member submit to voluntarily terminate their Rescue Technician status?

    <p>RT-154 Form</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to personnel records after a member successfully completes the Rescue Training Program?

    <p>They are updated to reflect Rescue Technician Status.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily distinguishes an extrication incident from a rescue incident?

    <p>Rescue incidents involve natural elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the response to a structural collapse incident?

    <p>The Incident Commander must notify the FAO of a Working Rescue Incident.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What resource is essential for performing shoring and victim removal in a collapse zone?

    <p>Rescue Technicians only</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a Rescue company cannot reach the scene of an incident?

    <p>Another rescue company must be sent.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of a working Structural Collapse Incident, what is one of the responsibilities of the FAO?

    <p>Send an Engine Company to collect materials.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During an extrication incident, what is a critical aspect of resource allocation?

    <p>A Columbus Rescue must be included if others are unavailable.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs immediately after the initial assessment of a Working Rescue Incident?

    <p>An additional Columbus Rescue is dispatched to coordinate efforts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT included in the material specifications for a Lumber Load?

    <p>Fifty 2” X 6” by 20 foot SPF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action must personnel take if they must remove any portion of an SCBA to enter a confined space?

    <p>Use Supplied Air Breathing Apparatus (SABA) instead of SCBA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of communication equipment is explicitly mentioned as required for personnel entering a confined space?

    <p>Intrinsically safe electronic communication equipment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should happen immediately after egress from a confined space rescue?

    <p>Victim care and all treatment information must be transferred to EMS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recommended action regarding tools and equipment used in a rescue after a fatality?

    <p>Leave everything in place until cleared by investigators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for entry personnel regarding lighting when entering a confined space?

    <p>Intrinsically safe lighting equipment must be used</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be considered by the Rescue Team Leader during entry operations?

    <p>Conditions and personnel involved must be monitored closely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Before entry is initiated into a confined space, who must agree that conditions are safe?

    <p>All members of the Rescue Teams, Incident Commander, and Safety Officer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with personnel showing signs of stress after exiting a confined space?

    <p>Immediately evaluate them medically by EMS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic that defines a confined space?

    <p>A space large enough for personnel to physically enter with limited entry and egress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should NOT be performed by the initial engine, ladder, and medic companies at a confined space incident?

    <p>Entering the confined space to conduct a rescue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step to take when responding to a confined space incident?

    <p>Isolate the area and secure the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When conducting a non-entry retrieval, which method is NOT appropriate?

    <p>Moving into the confined space to assist the victim directly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered when determining if an atmosphere within a confined space is hazardous?

    <p>Using multi-gas monitors for readings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum percentage of Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) of a substance that defines a flammable atmosphere?

    <p>10%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which personnel are allowed in the Warm Zone during a confined space entry operation?

    <p>Rescue Team Members and Attendants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with the Confined Space Rescue Permit if more than one hour elapses?

    <p>It must be re-approved after review and updates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum recommended PPE for personnel entering a confined space?

    <p>Helmet, gloves, proper footwear, goggles, and appropriate clothing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What equipment should all entry and backup personnel utilize unless normal atmospheric conditions are confirmed?

    <p>Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Safety Officer during confined space entry operations?

    <p>To ensure the Confined Space Rescue Permit is followed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be assessed to determine if entry can be made into a confined space?

    <p>The atmospheric hazards present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should atmospheric monitoring readings be recorded during entry operations?

    <p>Every 5 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be done to secure any product that is in or flowing into a confined space?

    <p>Implement Lock-Out / Tag-Out procedures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which system should be ready and in place for retrieval before anyone enters a confined space?

    <p>A retrieval system with a back-up system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical factor to consider regarding ventilation in confined space entry?

    <p>Flammable gases may complicate ventilation efforts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be established to ensure the structural stability of a confined space prior to entry?

    <p>Structural integrity assessments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important for personnel conducting atmospheric monitoring to have thorough knowledge on the subject?

    <p>To use the monitoring equipment effectively</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Emergency Assistance

    • Use the term "Emergency" to request assistance when in immediate danger of personal safety from potentially violent situations.
    • For urgent or Mayday communications on the fireground, refer to SOP 01-02-04.
    • Emergency assistance requests are categorized as 10-57 for a deteriorating situation that may cause personal harm, or 10-3 for an imminent danger situation.
    • To request emergency assistance, transmit the message "Emergency" or push the Emergency button on the radio or MDC.
    • When using the Emergency Banner button on the radio, press and hold it for at least 1.5 seconds.
    • The Fire Alarm Office (FAO) will request you to "check your display" and ask you to respond with the appropriate code (10-57 or 10-3).
    • If no response is received, the FAO will repeat the request once and then initiate a 10-3 response to your location.
    • Following an "Emergency" request, provide your company designation and location.
    • The FAO will initiate the appropriate response based on the situation.

    10-57 Response

    • The FAO will ask the company for the nature of the situation and notify the Police Dispatcher about the 10-57 request, requesting an ETA for police response.
    • The Dispatcher will notify the on-duty Fire Alarm Office Lieutenant.
    • The Dispatcher will check on the Unit's status every 2 minutes until the incident is deemed "under control".
    • Depending on the situation and the police ETA, the Fire Alarm Office Lieutenant may send fire apparatus to the scene.
    • Members should wear ballistic helmets and vests if available.

    10-3 Response

    • The FAO will immediately notify the Police Dispatcher of the 10-3 request, requesting an ETA for police response.
    • The "Radio Restriction Tone" will be activated by the FAO, prompting listeners to stop talking and only assigned companies to remain on the channel.
    • The Dispatcher will notify the on-duty Fire Alarm Office Lieutenant.
    • All other radio traffic should be directed to 9 EMS 2 until the situation is contained, unless otherwise notified by FAO.
    • The FAO will send the closest two fire apparatus (Engines, Ladders or Rescue), a transport vehicle, EMS Supervisor, Battalion Chief, and SO2 to the location.
    • Responding apparatus will stage away from the scene and will be guided by the first-in officer's decisions.
    • Members should wear ballistic helmets and vests, if available.

    Other Requests

    • Non-emergency requests for police (complaints, reports, traffic, etc.) other than 10-3 will require a reason for the request.

    Incident Command

    • The first division officer or member on the scene of an emergency is responsible for establishing incident command and assuming command responsibilities.
    • There are three command options: Fixed Command, Mobile Command, and Pass Command.

    Fixed Command

    • Fixed command is where the incident commander stays in a fixed location, usually outside a structure.
    • It is the preferred command structure unless conditions dictate otherwise.
    • Fixed Command is desirable and should be exercised unless conditions dictate otherwise.

    Mobile Command

    • Mobile command is when the division officer or member assuming command accompanies their crew to investigate the situation.
    • Mobile Command should be used in situations that are likely to be contained quickly with few resources committed.
    • Mobile command should be concluded rapidly, with one of the following outcomes:
      • The situation is stabilized during the initial investigation.
      • The initial investigation shows no need for additional companies.
      • The situation is contained.
      • Command is transferred.
    • If the situation is not quickly stabilized, the company officer should either:
      • Pass command to another company not operating in the hazard zone.
      • Assign command of their company to a member or another officer and establish a Fixed Command.

    Passing Command

    • Passing command may be considered in situations requiring immediate action by the first arriving officer to stabilize the situation, and where the company officer feels it is necessary to utilize a mobile command operation and accompany their crew.
    • Passing command should be considered for situations where the initial officer's actions will likely improve the outcomes of the incident priorities of life safety or incident stabilization.
    • When an engine and ladder arrive at the same time, the initial incident commander may pass command to the next arriving officer or member.
    • Passing command is different from transferring command. It is used only when the situation requires the immediate active participation of the first member or officer on the scene.
    • The first arriving officer or member retains responsibility for all incident command duties until the next arriving officer or member formally assumes command.
    • The next arriving officer will receive a C.A.N. Report (conditions, actions taken, needs) from the initial company, establish fixed command, and give a progress report.
    • Command can be passed only once.

    Transfer of Command

    • During a transfer of command, the officer being relieved briefs the officer assuming command.
    • The brief should include: Incident priorities and strategic goals, assigned and unassigned tactical objectives, and achieved tactical objectives.
    • After the transfer, the new Incident Commander should transmit a status report with the fireground strategy, incident action plan, and the Incident Commander's name and rank over the primary fireground talkgroup or the "ALL-CALL" (ATG) talkgroup.

    Mutual Aid Incidents

    • Columbus fire officers below the rank of battalion chief have the option to take or maintain command of mutual aid incidents within city limits.
    • A Columbus Fire Battalion Chief shall take command of all working incidents within the city limits.
    • If command is mobile, the Columbus officer should transfer command to the Suburban Battalion Officer.
    • If a Columbus Fire Officer chooses to not transfer command to a Suburban Battalion Officer, they must establish and maintain a Fixed Command.
    • When a Columbus officer chooses to take command of a mutual aid incident, they should establish a Fixed Command.
    • If command is mobile with a Suburban Fire Officer, a Columbus officer should consider establishing a Fixed Command Post.

    Span of Control

    • Incident Commanders monitor the number of resources assigned to each supervisor to ensure a safe and effective span of control.

    Divisions and Groups

    • Divisions are responsible for operations within a specific geographical area at an incident.
    • Groups are responsible for a specific functional assignment at an incident.
    • Both Divisions and Groups are commanded by Supervisors.
    • Divisions and Groups operate at the same command level, with no direct hierarchy between the two.
    • A Group's functional responsibility can extend beyond its assigned Division boundaries (e.g., a Ventilation Group may work in Division 2).
    • Once a specific assignment is given to a Group within a Division area, the Division is no longer responsible for that task.

    Impact of Divisions and Groups

    • Divisions and Groups help to manage the span of control at an incident.
    • They also provide coordination within a designated area or specific function.
    • They ensure accountability for personnel within their respective areas of responsibility.

    Responsibilities of Division and Group Supervisors

    • Implement the assigned portion of the overall incident action plan.
    • Inform higher levels of command about the status of resources, evaluate resource needs, and make adjustments as necessary.

    Required Information for Division and Group Supervisors

    • Radio designation (e.g., Charley Division, Division 2, Rescue Group).
    • 3T's:
      • Team (e.g., E15, L23, R4)
      • Task(s) (e.g., Fire Attack, Ventilation, Search/Rescue)
      • Talkgroup(s) utilized (e.g., Bn4 I/C for communication with the Command Post, Bn4 TAC 3 for communication with assigned teams).

    Determining When Divisions and Groups Are Necessary

    • It is not required to have a Division or Group Supervisor for every functional or geographical assignment.
    • If an activity can be effectively handled by a single unit, then Divisions and Groups are not necessary.

    Structure Fire Size-Up

    • Following arrival at a structure fire, the officer in charge conducts a 360-degree size-up from the vehicle
    • The 360 size-up evaluates the following:
      • Location of trapped victims
      • Location and volume of the fire
      • Smoke conditions
      • Location of entry and egress points
      • Ventilation openings and flow path identification
      • Presence and involvement of a basement
      • Other potential hazards
    • After completing the 360 size-up, the Incident Commander transmits the Incident Action Plan (SOP # 01-03-07)
    • If unable to complete a 360 size-up, the Incident Commander will announce it over the assigned talk group

    Basic Rescue Size-Up Factors

    • Victim Information: Consider the number, location, and condition of victims during a rescue operation.
    • Incident Impact: Assess how the fire or incident affects the victims' safety and well-being.
    • Control Force Capabilities: Evaluate the ability of rescue teams to access the building, remove or protect victims, and control the fire or incident.

    Rescue Effort Priorities

    • Immediate Threat: Prioritize rescue efforts towards victims facing the most severe immediate danger.
    • Large Groups: Rescue efforts should then focus on removing the largest groups of victims.
    • Remaining Areas: Once initial priorities are addressed, search and rescue efforts extend to the remaining areas affected by the incident.
    • Exposed Areas: Rescue efforts should also include protecting areas exposed to the fire or incident.

    Primary Search Assignments

    • Specific Companies: Assign specific companies to cover designated areas within large or complex structures during primary searches.
    • Ongoing Control: Maintain control over the assigned companies until the entire search area is complete and an "All Clear" is obtained.
    • Continued Search: When a primary search company removes a victim, assign another company to continue the search of the vacated areas.

    Initial Attack and Rescue Support

    • Rescue Focus: Ensure all initial attack efforts support rescue operations.
    • Hose Line Placement: Position hose lines to control access, confine the fire, and protect escape routes.
    • Rescue Mode: Recognize that the operation is in "Rescue Mode" and prioritize victim safety over property preservation.
    • Structure Loss: Operations may require sacrificing the structure to achieve an "All Clear" for victim removal.

    Victim Removal Strategies

    • Primary Access: Utilize normal interior access points, such as stairs, halls, and doorways, for victim rescue whenever possible.
    • Secondary Rescue: Employ secondary rescue methods, including platforms, ladders, fire escapes, and helicopters, in order of their effectiveness.

    Victim Treatment and Transport

    • Centralized Care: Establish a single location for treating victims after removal to facilitate triage, treatment, and transport.
    • Medical Coordination: Coordinate medical resources, including medics and treatment companies, under the Emergency Medical Group.

    Life Safety

    • Life safety of firefighters, emergency responders, occupants and bystanders is the highest priority at an incident.
    • No property is worth the risk of a life being lost.

    Incident Stabilization

    • The Incident Commander must develop a command structure to stabilize the incident based on its complexity.
    • The size of the incident does not determine command structure complexity.

    Property Conservation

    • Property conservation means achieving incident goals and objectives with minimal property damage.
    • Proper consideration for property conservation must be implemented in a timely manner.

    Priorities

    • Priorities must be considered in the order listed: Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, and Property Conservation.
    • They may not be accomplished in order. For example, stabilizing the incident may be necessary to affect life safety.

    Benchmarks

    • The benchmarks reflect the objectives of each priority:
      • Life Safety/Rescue: "All Clear" after a primary search.
      • Incident Stabilization: "Situation Contained".
      • Property Conservation: Salvage and Overhaul.

    Overlapping Activities

    • Incident Commanders may need to overlap activities to achieve each benchmark in its priority order.
    • Examples:
      • Achieving interior tenability through fire control efforts before conducting a primary search.
      • Initiating salvage operations while extending fire control efforts.

    Search Operations

    • Two types of search operations exist: Primary and Secondary.
    • Primary Search: Quick initial search to ensure all occupants are safe or removed from affected areas.
    • Secondary Search: Thorough search conducted after initial fire control and ventilation, focusing on areas where fire occurred.
    • Primary Search
      • All involved occupancies should be searched during a primary search.
      • Incident Commander should prioritize the completion of the Primary Search.
      • Time is critical, so the Primary Search should be conducted quickly, particularly during the initial stages of a fire.
    • Secondary Search
      • Different companies should ideally conduct the Secondary Search than those involved in the Primary Search.
      • Thoroughness, rather than speed, is the crucial factor in the Secondary Search.

    Reporting

    • Primary All Clear: The standard radio reporting term used to signal the completion of the Primary Search.
    • Incident Commander is responsible for:
      • Assigning Primary Search tasks.
      • Ensuring interior companies complete the search.
      • Transmitting the ‘All Clear’ report to the fire alarm office.
    • Fire alarm office records the time when the ‘All Clear’ is reported.

    Obtaining An All Clear

    • Fire stage significantly impacts the rescue approach:
      • Minimal Fire Hazard: Incident Commander should immediately initiate an interior search and report ‘All Clear’.
      • Smoke or Working Fire: Fire control efforts must be coordinated with rescue operations to gain access and complete the Primary Search.
      • Fully Involved Fire: Primary Search becomes impossible, and initial reporting should state that an ‘All Clear’ cannot be achieved for the structure.
      • Fully Involved Structures/Sections: Secondary Search, including the exterior, should be initiated as quickly as fire control is achieved.
      • Victims in Fully Involved Structures: Incident Commander and operating companies should not rely on spectators’ reports for information about victims. They should utilize reports as guidance and prioritize completing the Primary Search.
    • Secondary Search
      • Should also be conducted for non-fire incidents like HazMat, plane crashes, bus accidents, or auto accidents with ejections.

    Fire Control Risk Assessment

    • The Incident Commander (IC) must conduct a risk assessment before committing to a fire control strategy.
    • The acceptable level of risk is directly related to the potential to save lives or property.
    • If there is no potential to save lives, the risk to firefighters should be proportional to the value of property.
    • During emergency operations, a risk analysis should be based on the following principles:
      • Activities with significant risk to firefighter safety should only occur when there's a chance to save lives.
      • Protecting property inherently risks firefighter safety, so actions must be taken to minimize those risks.
      • No risk to firefighter safety is acceptable when there's no chance to save lives or property.
      • When the risk to firefighters is excessive, limit operations to defensive efforts only.

    Fire Control Strategies

    • The IC must determine the best fire control strategy based on factors like:

      • Fire extent and location
      • Building structural conditions
      • Entry capability
      • Fire dynamics
      • Ventilation and fire flow path impact
      • Potential victims' survival profile
      • Available resources
    • The IC should consider two primary strategies:

      • Offensive Strategy: Attacking from the interior or moving from an exterior attack to an interior one to extinguish the fire.
      • Defensive Strategy: Exterior attack aiming to first limit fire spread and then bring the fire under control.

    Offensive Strategy

    • Normal steps in an offensive attack include:
      • Establishing the command post
      • Initiating a primary search
      • Conducting a fast, aggressive offensive attack
      • Providing support activities
      • Backing up the first line or protecting egress with a second line
      • Quickly evaluating effectiveness and reacting

    Defensive Strategy

    • Normal steps in a basic defensive attack include:

      • Establishing the command post
      • Evaluating fire spread and potential property write-off
      • Establishing collapse zones
      • Identifying key tactical positions
      • Prioritizing fire streams
      • Providing effective, well-placed streams
      • Determining additional resource needs
      • Surrounding and drowning the fire
    • When there's no potential to save lives or property, defensive fire suppression is the appropriate strategy because exposure to avoidable risk is not justified.

    Offensive Fire Attack

    • Offensive fire attack remains the primary method but prioritizing ventilation control and fire gas cooling is crucial
    • Prior to offensive attack, a 360-degree survey determines the optimal first water application:
      • Transitional Attack: First water applied from the exterior before entry
      • Direct Interior Attack: First water applied from an interior position
    • Transitional attacks should follow specific procedures
    • Avoid passing fire (interior or exterior) without applying water

    Command Responsibilities

    • The Incident Commander must structure operations to apply water to the fire quickly
    • Effective fire control demands direct water application to the fire
    • The Incident Commander must develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP) that includes:
      • Fire attack plan
      • Search plan
      • Coordinated tactics
    • Clear communication between Incident Command and companies assigned to ventilation, fire attack, search, and other tactical functions within the structure is critical

    Defensive Operations

    • Defensive operations occur when the offensive attack strategy is abandoned.
    • This decision is made due to personnel safety concerns or inadequate resources.
    • The structure involved is considered lost and written off.

    Defensive Operations Categories

    • Two categories of defensive operations exist:
      • Defensive from the onset:
        • Structures with advanced fire showing and no potential for savable victims.
        • Structures with a low probability of extinguishment in a salvageable condition.
        • Low-value or high-risk structures with advanced fire conditions and a low life hazard (e.g., vacant or lightweight buildings).
      • Offensive operations transitioning to defensive operations:
        • An offensive fire attack not making progress on the fire.
        • Lack of on-scene resources necessitates a strategic shift to defensive operations.

    Defensive Operation Procedures (From Onset)

    • The Incident Commander (I/C) will report "This will be a defensive operation".
    • The I/C directs incoming companies' tasks and positioning.

    Defensive Operation Procedures (Offensive to Defensive)

    • The change to a defensive attack is announced on the Fireground All-Call Talkgroup (ATG) and repeated by the Fire Attack Officer (FAO) on ATG.
    • All personnel must withdraw from the structure and maintain a safe perimeter.
    • Officers are responsible for ensuring the safety of all personnel.
    • A Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) is conducted according to SOP 02-01-01.
    • Interior fire lines are withdrawn and repositioned.
    • Lines should be backed away to positions protecting exposures.
    • The first priority in defensive operations is life safety.
    • The second priority is exposure protection.
    • Extinguishing the main body of fire may assist in protecting exposures but does not replace it as the second priority.
    • Once exposure coverage is established, attention can be directed to extinguishing the main body of fire.

    ### Emergency Evacuation

    • The change from offensive to defensive strategy is not to be confused with Emergency Evacuation (SOP 02-01-04).
    • Emergency Evacuation involves the immediate evacuation of all fire personnel from the hazard zone accompanied by air horn blasts.

    Situation Contained

    • Situation Contained is the standard radio reporting term for indicating a fire is under control.
    • The Incident Commander is responsible for transmitting this report to the fire alarm office.
    • "Situation Contained" signifies that the forward progress of the fire has been stopped, and remaining fire can be extinguished with on-scene resources.
    • However, it does not mean the fire is completely out.

    Defensive Operations

    • Defensive operations are chosen when offensive operations are unsafe or insufficient to contain the fire.
    • Defensive operations can be either defensive from the onset or offensive operations transitioned to defensive operations.
    • Defensive operations from onset are deployed when:
      • Structures have advanced fire showing with no chance of saving victims.
      • Structures have a low probability of being extinguished.
      • Low value and/or high risk structures with advanced fire conditions and low life hazard (e.g., vacant or lightweight buildings).
    • Offensive operations transitioned to defensive operations are deployed when:
      • Offensive fire attack is not making progress.
      • On-scene resources are insufficient.
    • Defensive operations from onset require the incident commander to make an initial radio report and state "This will be a defensive operation."
    • Offensive operations transitioning to defensive operations require an announcement over the fireground all-call talkgroup and repetition by the fire attack officer.

    Offensive to Defensive Transition

    • All personnel must withdraw from the structure and maintain a safe perimeter.
    • Officers are responsible for accounting for all personnel and conducting a PAR.
    • Interior lines are withdrawn and repositioned to protect exposures.
    • Priority 1: Life safety
    • Priority 2: Exposure protection. Exposures should be identified and protected.
    • Priority 3: Knock down the main fire.

    Situation Contained

    • When the fire is under control, the incident commander reports "Situation Contained".
    • "Situation Contained" means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished with the on-scene resources.
    • "Situation Contained" does not mean the fire is completely out.

    Property Conservation

    • Objective: Minimize property loss during fire operations.
    • Early Recognition: Identifying when fire progression has stopped allows for immediate salvage operations, minimizing further damage.
    • Incident Commander's Role:
      • Assess the extent of fire damage.
      • Determine the salvage value of various areas.
      • Allocate necessary manpower and equipment.
      • Assign companies to salvage tasks.
      • Redirect hose lines from fire control to salvage.
    • Overlapping Needs: Call for additional resources if both fire control and salvage need to be performed simultaneously.
    • Resource Commitment: The Incident Commander should allocate sufficient resources for property conservation activities.
    • Personnel Fatigue: Recognize potential for sloppy work and injuries due to fatigue. Rotate crews with fresh personnel as needed.
    • Integrated Salvage and Investigation: Integrate salvage and overhaul functions with investigations, preserving evidence. Be cautious of personnel who may inadvertently eliminate evidence while clearing debris.

    Hose Line Placement

    • Hose line placement is determined by incident priorities.
    • Life safety is the primary priority.
    • Incident stabilization and property conservation follow life safety.
    • Hose lines should be advanced inside fire buildings to control access to hallways, stairways, and other vertical or horizontal channels.

    Engine Company Responsibilities

    • Engine companies are responsible for ensuring an uninterrupted and adequate water supply.
    • This responsibility does not necessarily require them to lay the line to the water source, but rather to deliver water to the pump by any appropriate means.

    Fire Stream Management

    • Key factors for effective hose line use include size, placement, speed, mobility, and supply.

    Support Activities

    • Support activities assist fire control and rescue operations.
    • These activities include forcible entry, ventilation, and access provision.
    • The Incident Commander must assign specific tasks to ensure these support functions are completed effectively and promptly.

    Forcible Entry

    • Used to gain entry and exit from a building during an emergency
    • Method selection depends on urgency and incident nature
    • Trade-off between speed and damage, prioritize entry over minimal damage if fire is spreading
    • Forcing entry is a ventilation method, ensuring safety by considering air being fed to the fire
    • Impact of entry methods on fire flow path is critical
    • Forcing a door at the latch is preferable to hinges, allowing control of ventilation and crew protection

    Medical Run Forced Entry

    • Companies responding to alarms/medical runs may need to force entry
    • Prioritize minimal damage, entering through locks or unlocked windows
    • Justified when believing a person requires urgent medical care
    • Examples include third-party calls and medical alarms

    Forcible Entry Decisions

    • The decision to force entry should be based on the situation and the urgency of the situation.
    • All details of the situation and the decision to force entry should be recorded in the electronic health record (EHR).

    Forcible Entry Without Emergency

    • If there is no clear emergency, CPD (Chicago Police Department) or other law enforcement agency should be contacted before forcing entry.
    • This ensures the person requesting assistance has the legal right to be on the property.

    Forcible Entry Documentation

    • When CFD (Chicago Fire Department) personnel force entry and no resident or responsible party is present to secure the property, CPD must be notified via the FAO (Fire Alarm Office).
    • The details of forced entry must be recorded in the NFIRS (National Fire Incident Reporting System) report.

    Unknown Atmospheres

    • Unknown atmospheres should be assumed as Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)
    • A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is required when operating in unknown atmospheres
    • The following situations require SCBA use:
      • Structure fires beyond control by a handheld extinguisher
      • Dumpster and vehicle fires
      • Confined-space and below-grade responses
      • Gas leaks
      • Hazmat, Bomb, and WMD responses

    Alternative Breathing Apparatus

    • Supplied Air Breathing Apparatus (SABA) can be used when supplied air is necessary
    • An Air-Purifying Respirator (APR) can be used in place of an SCBA when the appropriate conditions are met.

    Respiratory Protection

    • Personnel must pass an annual quantitative fit test to use respiratory protection.
    • Only wear a facepiece or mask that has been fit-tested.
    • Wear respiratory protection according to the manufacturer’s instructions.
    • Do not use unapproved devices or approved devices that have been modified.
    • Members using SCBA shall not compromise the protective integrity of the SCBA by removing the facepiece or disconnecting any portion of the SCBA in hazardous atmospheres.
    • The only exception is when providing an emergency air supply using the RIT Pack regulator.
    • Quantitatively fit-tested facepieces ensure a proper seal.
    • Facial hair, head coverings, and eyeglasses can compromise the seal.
    • Members needing to wear eyeglasses must use an approved spectacle kit.
    • Members using SCBAs shall operate in teams of two or more and maintain close proximity.
    • Members must be aware of the heads-up display in their SCBA’s facepiece and use the 50% warning as an indicator to exit the hazard zone.
    • Another member must accompany a member exiting the hazard zone.
    • Members using respiratory protection will be monitored for fatigue or other factors that could result in medical compromise.
    • All personnel required to wear SCBA’s will be evaluated annually on their knowledge of SCBA operations, including safety, policies, procedures, maintenance, and inspection.

    Fire Suppression

    • Personnel must wear SCBA during all phases of fire suppression
    • SCBA must be worn during salvage and overhaul operations within any portion of the structure that had been exposed to fire

    Fire Cause Determination

    • An APR with an appropriate chemical cartridge may be used in place of an SCBA during fire cause determination

    Below Grade and Confined Space

    • SCBA or SABAs will be used in below grade and confined spaces until the ambient atmosphere can be continuously ventilated, monitored and sampled
    • This ventilation sampling must meet OSHA 1910.146 specifications
    • Personnel must be able to prove that the atmosphere is no longer Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)
    • Ensure that no other permit entry hazards are present

    Hazardous Material Incidents

    • SCBA will be used at Hazmat incidents until the Incident Commander determines it is safe to remove them
    • The Incident Commander will use information from the Hazmat team to make this decision

    SCBA Pre-Use Inspection

    • Disinfect the second stage regulator with an approved disinfectant cleaner.
    • Ensure the cylinder is fully charged.
    • Verify the Vibra-alert (tactile low-air alarm) and the heads-up display are functioning correctly and have sufficient battery power.
    • Inspect the facepiece-to-face seal for a secure fit.
    • Test the exhalation valve to confirm it is functioning properly.
    • Check the purge valve to ensure it operates correctly.
    • Confirm couplings are tight and the cylinder connection (CGA fitting) O-ring is intact.
    • Test the PASS device to verify its functionality and sufficient battery level.
    • Check the voice amplifier for proper operation, noting that reduced amplification indicates low battery.
    • Verify the normal operation of the SCBA before use.

    Daily SCBA Inspection Procedures

    • Before each use, users should replace the air cylinder with a fully charged one.
    • Inspect for any defective or damaged components.
    • Clean all SCBA components and the facepiece.
    • Repeat the daily inspection before each use.

    Compressed Air Cylinder Inspection

    • Check for damage to cylinders, including cuts, slices in the wrapping, and gouges.
    • Verify hydrostatic test dates are within five years of the previous test.
    • Do not carry cylinders by the hand wheel.

    SCBA Maintenance and Repair

    • Station Level:
      • Replace PASS, HUD, or Voice Amplifier batteries as needed.
      • Use only Duracell® Procell PC 1604 9 volt and Duracell® PC 1500 1.5 volt AA batteries.
    • Incident Support Unit (ISU) Level:
      • Replace the AV-3000 facepiece head net.
      • Replace the O-ring on the female (CGA) fitting attachment to the cylinder.
    • Mask Repair Level:
      • The Mask Repair Section is responsible for all maintenance and repairs not listed above.
      • All SCBAs undergo periodic preventive maintenance according to NFPA 1852 and manufacturer recommendations.
      • The Mask Repair Section maintains records of all SCBAs, components, repairs, and maintenance.

    Out Of Service (OOS) Procedures

    • If daily checks or usage reveal a need for maintenance beyond ISU Level, immediately take the SCBA out of service.
    • Tag the SCBA and bring it to the Mask Repair Section.

    SCBA Cleaning and Maintenance

    • External Surfaces: Clean and disinfect according to manufacturer instructions using mild detergent like soap and water.
    • Facepiece: Clean after each use and disinfect as needed. Use manufacturer-approved agents like Scott Multi-Wash.
    • Second Stage Regulator: Clean and disinfect thoroughly if exposed to bodily fluids, breath, dirt, or debris. Use approved disinfectant for SCBA, such as Scott Multi-Wash.
    • Water & Cleaning Materials: Avoid entry into the connection between cylinder valve and SCBA inlet connector.
    • Air Drying: Thoroughly air dry all SCBA components before storage in a well-ventilated compartment.
    • Chlorine Bleach: Never use to clean straps and harness assemblies.
    • Inspections: Perform appropriate inspections after cleaning.
    • Mask Repair Section: Complete all cleaning steps before sending SCBA for maintenance.
    • Contaminated SCBA: If used by a member exposed to toxic chemicals or radioactive materials, additional decontamination is required. Segregate from other equipment.
    • Decontamination: Follow special instructions from appropriate sources specific to the contaminant.

    SCBA Storage

    • Fire Apparatus: SCBA stored on fire apparatus must be secured in an approved bracket as per manufacturer guidelines.
    • Single Person Company: SCBA carried by individuals like B/C, EMS Coordinator, Safety Officer, shall be stored in approved storage cases, bags, or brackets
    • Prescription Lens Kit: A facepiece lens kit is available for members wearing glasses. Request through the chain of command on an RT-154. Contact Mask Repair section at extension 75450 for information.

    APR Use

    • Air purifying respirators (APR) provide a lower level of protection than SCBA.
    • A risk assessment is required to determine if a full or half-face APR is appropriate.
    • If wearing a half-face respirator, appropriate eye protection is required.
    • Only personnel who have passed an annual quantitative fit test may use an APR.
    • Only use an APR with a filter or cartridge appropriate for the environment.
    • If an odor, taste, or irritation occurs when the facepiece is properly adjusted, it may indicate the filtration element is exhausted or compromised.
    • If the filtration element is compromised, return to fresh air immediately and replace the filtration element.

    APR Use During EMS Operations

    • A fit-tested P-100 air-purifying respirator is the minimum level of protection against viral, bacterial or other airborne inhalation hazards during an EMS response.

    APR Use During Overhaul

    • The use of an APR while performing overhaul is strictly prohibited.

    ### Air-Purifying Respirator (APR) Use

    • An APR with an appropriate chemical cartridge can be used after a fire is extinguished, only when several conditions are met
    • Conditions for APR use include: at least 30 minutes after fire extinguishment, no active overhaul, positive pressure ventilation in place, and continuous air monitoring
    • Air monitoring must show acceptable short-term occupational exposure limits for Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) ≤ 4.7ppm and Carbon Monoxide (CO) ≤ 35 ppm
    • The chemical cartridge must be NIOSH-approved for protection against particulates, acid gases, organic vapors, and formaldehyde
    • The Incident Commander, after consulting with the Hazmat Officer, can assign chemical-level protection canisters and adapters to personnel, which can be used instead of SCBA in certain situations

    Other APR Uses

    • APR are recommended for protection from various substances when working in or around the station
    • These substances include: asbestos fibers, lead dust, nuisance dusts, pollen, liquid or oil based particles, metal fumes from welding, mold spores, and biological pathogens

    ### APR Care & Maintenance

    • APR and filtration elements must be maintained and used according to the manufacturer’s requirements
    • The facepiece or mask assembly should be cleaned and inspected after each use
    • P-100 Particulate filters can be ordered from Mask Repair.

    Water Rescue Incidents

    • The text defines incidents as those within static bodies of water deeper than 5 feet, flowing bodies of water, and flood waters.
    • Swimming pools are excluded from this SOP.

    Water Rescue PPE

    • All personnel must wear appropriate water rescue PPE in specific situations.
    • Situations requiring PPE include:
      • Within 15 feet of the water’s edge
      • Working in a boat
      • Handling ropes and safety devices for members in the water

    Shore Based Personnel PPE

    • USCG Type III/V Approved Personal Flotation Device (PFD)
    • Water Rescue Helmet, Fire Helmet, or Rescue Technician Helmet
    • Work Gloves

    Boat Based Personnel PPE

    • USCG Type III/V Approved Personal Flotation Device (PFD)
    • Water Rescue Helmet
    • Work Gloves

    Members Entering the Water PPE

    • Tag line secured to shore
    • USCG Type III/V Approved PFD with water rescue helmet and gloves
    • Fully encapsulated cold water exposure suit (Gumby Suit)

    Water Temperature and Work Limits

    • Members are limited to 60 minutes work time in the water when the temperature is above 75°F.
    • When the water temperature is below 75°F but above 40°F, members are limited to 40 minutes work time.
    • Members are only permitted 20 minutes work time in water below 40°F.

    PPE Ownership

    • City owns all issued PPE.

    PPE Inspection

    • Personnel must inspect PPE regularly and after each use.
    • Company officers inspect subordinate gear monthly, documenting on Form PI-29.
    • Damage Report Form PI-30 is completed for damaged gear.

    PPE Use

    • Only cleaned and annually inspected gear can be used.
    • City-issued PPE cannot be used outside of employment without Fire Chief authorization.

    Unserviceable PPE

    • Unserviceable gear is collected and disposed of by the Support Services Bureau.

    Repairing PPE

    • Damaged PPE is sent to the Laundry Technician with a completed Form PI-30.

    Laundry Technician Availability

    • The Laundry Technician is available Monday through Friday from 0700-15:30 hours.

    Helmet Maintenance

    • The outer shell of the helmet should be washed with mild soap and water.

    Helmet Liners and Sweatbands

    • Clean after each use if exposed to combustion products or other soils.
    • Machine or hand wash with mild detergent.

    Protective Hoods

    • Clean after each use if exposed to combustion products or other soils.
    • Stations should have spare hoods available for exchange.

    Structural Fire Boots

    • Wash down boots on scene after use in a hazard zone.
    • Thoroughly clean with mild soap and water.

    Structural Fire Gloves

    • Clean after each use if exposed to combustion products or other soils.
    • Use mild soap and water for light to moderate soiling.
    • Send heavily soiled or contaminated gloves to the Division Laundry.

    SCBA Mask

    • Clean with mild soap and water after use.

    P-100 Mask

    • Clean with mild soap and water after use.

    Ballistic Vests

    • Machine wash ballistic covers and air dry.
    • Wipe down ballistic panels with a damp cloth and air dry.
    • Do not machine wash ballistic panels.
    • For biological cleaning:
      • Remove ballistic panels and store in a secure area.
      • Request a loaner ballistic vest from EMSO.
      • Send the ballistic cover to the Division Laundry with a completed PI-40 form.
      • Specify biological concerns for specific areas on the cover.

    Ballistic Helmet

    • Wash the outer helmet shell with mild soap and water, then air dry.

    Annual PPE Cleaning Program

    • The Fire Division follows an annual cleaning program for personal protective equipment (PPE).
    • The program schedule is announced each year through a bulletin issued by the Station Support Bureau (SSB).

    Gear Cleaning and Inspection

    • Gear sent to the laundry facility must be prepared in a specific way:
      • Suspenders must be attached.
      • The outer shell must be separated from the thermal liner.
      • Liners must be turned inside out.
      • All pockets should be emptied.
      • Each item must be marked with the member's ID number.
    • All other items sent to the laundry facility (gloves, hoods, suspenders, etc.) must also be marked with the member's ID number.
    • Gear must be bagged and tagged with a specified preprinted tag/label (PI 40e), filled out completely.
    • All turnout gear is inspected and cleaned annually by the Laundry Technician.
    • Members who cannot make their PPE available for cleaning and inspection during the scheduled station pick-up should contact the Laundry Technician for an alternative pickup.
    • Company officers are responsible for ensuring their subordinates comply with the annual cleaning/inspection program for primary and backup gear sets.

    Laundering After Use

    • Structural firefighting PPE should be laundered after any use where exposure or contamination may have occurred.
    • Members should contact the Laundry Technician whenever laundering is necessary.

    Laundering Turnaround Time

    • The turnaround time for gear laundering is typically around 48 hours.

    Loaner Gear

    • Loaner gear is generally issued and returned during the pick-up and drop-off of soiled gear.
    • Loaner gear may be reassigned as Front Line gear at the discretion of the SSB.
    • Members will be notified of the specific time and location where loaner gear will be deposited for pick-up.
    • Loaner gear is laundered after each use and bagged and tagged in the same manner as assigned gear.
    • Members are not to place their ID number or any other markings on loaner gear.

    Loaner Turnout Gear During Business Hours

    • Contact the Laundry Technician at 7-4465 or Extension 28 on Maintenance 10 for loaner turnout gear during business hours
    • If unable to reach the Technician, contact the Inventory Control Property Manager at 7-4469

    Loaner Turnout Gear After Business Hours, Holidays, and Weekends

    • Contact the Facilities Coordinator (FC) at 7-5468 or 614-332-9229
    • If FC is unavailable contact SO-4 at 7-5427 or 614-332-9226
    • If both FC and SO-4 are unavailable after business hours, contact ES-2 who will contact the FAO to authorize off-duty personnel
    • The individual issuing the loaner gear will follow established SSB procedures

    SCBA and Firefighter Safety

    • SCBA air supply is for entry, work, and exit from immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) atmospheres
    • Difficult to estimate the necessary air for safe exit of structure
    • Firefighters can become lost, trapped or disoriented in structures due to low air supply
    • A significant number of firefighter deaths are related to limited air supply

    Emergency Air Reserve Policy

    • This policy aims to improve safety on the fireground
    • Firefighters are advised to save a portion of their air for unexpected events or emergencies
    • This reserve can prevent the exhaustion of the SCBA before exiting the hazard zone

    Air Monitoring Procedures

    • Firefighters must actively monitor their air consumption and the surrounding environment
    • The goal is to maintain a sufficient air reserve and ensure a safe exit
    • Firefighters are to monitor air consumption via their heads-up display
    • The structure exit should be initiated when the 50% yellow LED begins to flash
    • Immediate action may be allowed in rescue situations where lives are at risk
    • This exception does not apply to standard search and rescue activities
    • Staying inside the hazard zone after the 75% red LED or Vibra-alert activation is strictly prohibited

    Deviations from Standard Practice

    • Deviations from standard practice must be exceptions, not standard.
    • Any deviation must be reported to the Incident Commander promptly.
    • A thorough investigation and written report must be submitted to the Division Safety Officer.

    High Risk Environments

    • Fires in commercial buildings, below grade, or in occupancies with center hall construction or maze-like configurations are considered extremely high risk.
    • Fires in multifamily or non-residential structures with lightweight construction features, such as restaurants, strip malls, and large single-story structures, are also considered extremely high risk.
    • Deviations from policy in these environments should only occur after a thorough and conservative risk/benefit analysis.

    Prolonged SCBA Use Risks

    • Prolonged SCBA use carries risks, including:
      • Increased cardiac work stress
      • Increased thermal stress
      • Increased depth of entry into the hazard zone
      • Increased degradation of the structure if the fire is not contained
      • Inadequate margin of error for unintended events like getting lost, trapped, disoriented, or structural failure.

    Out of Air Procedures

    • In the event of an out-of-air situation, firefighters should resist removing their facepiece unless a clean air source is available.
    • Superheated or contaminated air is more likely to result in death than suffocation from lack of air.

    PASS Unit Activation

    • The PASS unit must be activated before entering any potential hazard area.
    • Potential hazard areas include atmospheres that could be immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH), incidents that could result in entrapment, structural collapse, investigation mode, and as directed by the Incident Commander or Incident Safety Officer.

    PASS Alarm Activation

    • The PASS alarm should be activated in various situations.
    • These include situations where a member feels lost, trapped, or disoriented.
    • The alarm should also be activated if a member is low on air or may not have enough air to exit safely.
    • Incapacitation or serious injury in the hazard zone also warrants activation of the PASS alarm.
    • Members are encouraged to activate the alarm if they feel threatened or deem it appropriate.

    Post-Incident Safety Review Requirements

    • An on-scene post-incident safety review is required for all emergency operations involving multiple companies.
    • The review can be informal, with the Incident Commander asking the Safety Officer about potential issues, or a detailed discussion about failed operations.
    • A formal critique can also be conducted at a later time.

    Structure Fire Reviews

    • All residential or commercial structure working fires must be reviewed.
    • Garages and outbuildings do not require a review unless a specific problem needs to be addressed or SOPs need emphasis.

    Safety SOPs for Structure Fires

    • The Incident Safety Officer (or Incident Commander if SO-2 is absent) will address the following safety related SOPs:
      • Accountability
      • Two-in / two-out rule and the buddy system
      • Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), including turnouts, PASS devices, SCBAs, Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs)
      • Structural monitoring for CO levels

    Hazard Identification and Communication

    • The SO-2, or Incident Commander, will discuss hazard identification and communications on the fireground, if necessary.

    Rescue Operation Reviews

    • All technical rescue operations, especially confined space, high-angle, and rapid water rescues, must be reviewed by the in-charge rescue personnel.

    Hazardous Material Operation Reviews

    • All Hazardous Material operations must be reviewed by the HazMat Team Leader and the SO-2.

    Post-Incident Safety Review

    • After an incident is contained, but before companies return to service, the Incident Commander conducts an on-scene post-incident safety review.
    • The review specifically targets companies actively involved in the operation, excluding those called as stand-by or extra companies who were not actively engaged.
    • The goal is to prevent unnecessary delays in returning companies to service.
    • Companies that played a role, however minor, should be included.
    • If another incident requires a company attending the review to respond, the Incident Commander should excuse them, notably HazMat Teams and Technical Rescue Teams.
    • These reviews serve as a training and review opportunity for all involved, aiming to improve operations.

    BZS

    • BZS ensures structures are safe for occupancy.
    • Responsible for ensuring structures are safe for occupancy

    Emergency Reporting

    • The Fire Division is often the first to know about structural problems.
    • The Fire Division should notify BZS about non-emergent and emergent structural problems.
    • BZS is the former "Building One."

    Response Categories

    • BZS classifies reported information into two response categories, Emergent and Non-Emergent.
    • Information for reporting includes:
      • Address of the structure(s)
      • Number of stories in the structure(s)
      • Type of construction
      • Whether the structure(s) is residential or commercial
      • Whether the structure(s) is occupied or vacant
      • Building owner's name and phone number
      • Occupant's name and phone number

    Responding to Emergent Hazards

    • The Incident Commander can request immediate Building and Zoning Services (BZS) response for imminent collapse dangers, including:
      • Collapse onto buildings.
      • Collapse onto a road.
      • Collapse onto a sidewalk.
    • The Fire Alarm Office (FAO) will notify BZS using a Structural Damage Notification Form upon request from the Incident Commander.
    • The Safety Officer (SO-2) will respond to Non-Residential Emergent Hazards, potentially with Prevention 18 assistance.
    • SO-2 is responsible for posting the building based on the hazard severity, which could include:
      • Securing areas with tape and stickers.
      • Requesting Police Department (CPD) standby to ensure no one enters the collapse zone.
    • Prevention 18 will complete a Building Inspection Report for any fire code violations.
    • If an Emergent Hazard is discovered during emergency services operations or inspections:
      • Contact the FAO to dispatch a minimum of a Battalion Chief.
      • The Battalion Chief will follow instructions listed in Section 3 of the policy if needed.

    Addressing Non-Emergent Hazards

    • If a non-imminent hazard is discovered, report damage and requested information to the FAO.
    • FAO will notify BZS and the Fire Prevention Bureau via email using the Structural Damage Notification Form.
    • Non-imminent hazards include building damage not considered an immediate collapse risk, examples include:
      • Holes in roofs and floors.
      • Weakened or missing studs.
      • Damaged stairs.
      • Buildings weakened by age, neglect, or fire.
      • Vehicle impact on a building.
    • A BZS designee will survey non-imminent hazards as soon as possible during regular business hours.
    • The Fire Prevention Bureau assigns an inspector for processing.

    Hydrant Shutdown Response

    • The officer in charge of the station can dispatch apparatus to shut off hydrants.

    • Firefighters should not be sent alone to shut off hydrants.

    • The responding company will be assigned to "1 O Alpha" talk group and must monitor "10 Fire" talk group.

    • The response can be escalated to an emergency run at the discretion of the Fire Alarm Operator.

    • Companies making multiple responses to the same hydrant location should request police to secure the area before arriving.

    On Scene Procedures

    • If there are hostile crowds at the scene, companies should leave the area and request police intervention to secure the area.

    • Companies should not return to the scene until the police secure the area.

    • Companies encountering hostile crowds or a dangerous situation should refer to SOP 02-01-07 and use police terminology like "10-57" (deteriorating situation) or "10-3" (imminent danger) when requesting emergency police assistance.

    • If a hydrant cannot be shut off, the water shop should be called.

    • If the Water Department's response is delayed, a police standby should be requested.

    Police Enforcement Procedure

    • Contact the FAO to notify them of a hydrant flowing incident.
    • This will trigger a police response and surveillance.
    • The notification is necessary when companies respond to the same hydrant or area multiple times.
    • The Police Division can dispatch S.W.A.T. or SRB officers to arrest individuals causing the incident.
    • Fire companies should request police assistance through the FAO when there are numerous runs at the same location.
    • Communication with the officers should include key information and a plan for arrests.
    • Fire companies can use the 9- Fire/Police talkgroup or other means to meet with officers.
    • CMHA properties require contacting their office immediately by phone at 614- 421- 6106 or 614-496-2206 for enforcement.

    Dwelling Definition

    • The American Red Cross defines a dwelling as any structure intended for housing one or more people.
    • The construction material of the dwelling does not matter.
    • A campsite along a waterway or a railroad right-of-way can be considered a dwelling.
    • A vehicle used as a residence can also be considered a dwelling.

    American Red Cross Response to Emergencies

    • The American Red Cross provides support to residents during fires and other emergencies.
    • They offer temporary housing, comfort, and immediate needs assistance until other resources are available.

    Columbus Division of Fire Contacting the American Red Cross

    • The Columbus Division of Fire should contact the American Red Cross in specific situations related to fires and other emergencies.
    • These situations include:
      • When a dwelling unit is uninhabitable due to safety or health concerns, even if repairs are planned.
      • When there is noticeable damage or loss caused by fire, water, smoke, or salvage and overhaul operations.
      • When a resident experiences a death or injury, regardless of whether they were transported to a hospital.
      • When a resident exhibits emotional distress, whether caused by the fire or other circumstances.
      • When a resident reports the loss of medication or durable medical goods, including glasses and dentures.

    When Red Cross Notification is Necessary

    • Notification is required when children, elderly, or individuals with disabilities reside in the affected home.
    • Notification is mandatory if the structure houses multiple residential units.
    • Notification is necessary when utilities have been disconnected.
    • Notification is required if the resident requests the Red Cross presence or affirms needing assistance, regardless of the damage extent.

    When Red Cross Notification is NOT Needed

    • Notification is not necessary for minimal damage incidents with minimal disruption to normal routines, such as minor stove fires or trash can fires.
    • Notification is not necessary for incidents resulting from maintenance issues like sewage backup, ruptured water pipes, or gas leaks.
    • Notification is not necessary for obviously uninhabited structures.
    • Notification is not necessary for non-residential structures, unless canteening is requested.

    Contact Numbers for Red Cross

    • The preferred contact number for an immediate and effective response is 614-253-8888; this number is for first responder use only.
    • The secondary contact number for emergencies is 614-251-1443, operational 24/7.

    Safety and Health

    • CPH and ODH prioritize customer and employee safety and health.
    • The Division of Fire is often the first responder to safety incidents.
    • The Division of Fire is responsible for notifying proper authorities.

    Fire and Food Safety

    • Any fire, regardless of size, can create unsafe food service conditions
    • A "non-reportable" fire is a small, contained fire extinguished with simple tools, like a wet towel or pan lid
    • All other fires must be reported to the regulatory authority
    • Restaurant operations should be stopped if firefighting efforts contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, or single-use items
    • Restaurants, markets, and schools should know and implement food safety procedures for recovering from incidents
    • If a facility is located within the City of Columbus, they should contact the City of Columbus Public Health (CPH)
    • If the facility is located outside of Columbus, they should contact the Ohio Department of Health (ODH)
    • If an individual believes the health department should be notified, they should advise the occupant to contact the health department and have the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) contact the health department and advise that the facility should be temporarily closed until food safety can be assured

    Reopening Food Establishments

    • Food establishments ordered to cease operations cannot reopen without authorization from the regulatory authority.

    Reporting Concerns

    • Company officers on scene with questions or concerns should contact a Battalion Chief and/or Prevention.
    • Members should report any suspected food contamination to the local health department. Examples include extinguisher discharge, sewage backup, power outages, and temperature issues in cooling units.

    Information for the Health Department

    • The health department requires a point of contact, the establishment name, and a valid phone number.

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    Description

    This quiz covers the protocols for requesting emergency assistance in potentially violent situations or urgent fireground communications. Understand the difference between codes 10-57 and 10-3, and the proper use of radio equipment for emergency requests. Ensure you are familiar with the steps to take in the event of an emergency.

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