Drug Permeation and Disposition Processes

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Questions and Answers

What physiological functions are primarily regulated by serotonin (5-HT)?

  • Gastric acid secretion and smooth muscle contraction
  • Mood regulation and gastrointestinal motility (correct)
  • Inflammation and blood clotting
  • Allergic reactions and immune responses

Which of the following is a typical use of leukotriene antagonists?

  • Preventing nausea after chemotherapy
  • Inducing labor and preventing gastric ulcers
  • Managing asthma and allergic rhinitis (correct)
  • Regulating mood and appetite

Which statement best differentiates first-generation antihistamines from second-generation antihistamines?

  • First-generation antihistamines are less sedating than second-generation
  • Both generations exactly have the same side effects
  • Second-generation antihistamines cross the blood-brain barrier more easily
  • First-generation antihistamines cause drowsiness due to crossing the blood-brain barrier (correct)

What condition is primarily associated with the inflammatory mediators known as leukotrienes?

<p>Asthma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect of prostaglandin analogues like Misoprostol?

<p>Gastrointestinal disturbances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is known to block serotonin receptors and is effective in preventing nausea?

<p>Ondansetron (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do drugs specifically play in ion channel regulation?

<p>They alter the flow of ions by modifying opening or closing of the channels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What function does histamine NOT play a role in?

<p>Blood clotting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is associated with second-generation antihistamines?

<p>They are less sedating due to reduced CNS penetration (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of receptor is known for activating intracellular signaling pathways through G proteins?

<p>G protein-coupled receptors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the threshold in a normal dose-response curve represent?

<p>The minimum dose needed to produce a detectable response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a graded dose-response curve?

<p>It shows a continuous and graded increase or decrease in response with increasing dose. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'affinity' refer to in pharmacology?

<p>The strength of binding between a drug and its receptor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do receptors contribute to homeostasis in physiological processes?

<p>They modulate receptor expression and sensitivity in response to external factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding 'spare receptors' is correct?

<p>They are unnecessary for achieving maximum response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the ED50 of a drug?

<p>The dose of a drug that produces a therapeutic effect in 50% of the population (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a quantal dose-response curve measure?

<p>The binary outcome of response among individuals at various doses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature does NOT belong to a normal dose-response curve?

<p>Uniform response across all individuals without difference. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does competitive antagonism affect drug response?

<p>It can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ligand-gated ion channels are characterized by their response to what?

<p>Ligand binding leading to opening for ion passage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of a partial agonist?

<p>It provides a lower maximum effect compared to a full agonist. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can occur when a partial agonist is administered after a full agonist?

<p>The overall drug efficacy may be reduced. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does potency indicate about a drug?

<p>The strength or activity reflected by dose or concentration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the lethal dose (LD50)?

<p>The dose that causes death in 50% of the population. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of Pindolol?

<p>It acts as a partial agonist at beta adrenergic receptors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is Labetalol primarily used to treat?

<p>Hypertensive emergencies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with adrenergic blocking agents?

<p>Bronchoconstriction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do alpha blockers exert their effects on the circulatory system?

<p>By causing vasodilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological changes occur due to the action of beta blockers?

<p>Decreased heart rate and myocardial contractility (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse effect that can occur with nonselective beta blockers?

<p>Worsening of asthma symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is NOT classified as an autacoids?

<p>Ephedrine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do adrenergic blocking agents play in migraine treatment?

<p>Prevent the binding of endogenous catecholamines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of bioavailability in pharmacokinetics?

<p>The fraction of the drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a factor that affects first pass metabolism?

<p>Route of administration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process describes the recycling of drugs between the liver and the intestine?

<p>Entrohepatic circulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does plasma protein binding influence drug distribution?

<p>Bound drugs have a limited distribution, while unbound drugs can distribute freely (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes Phase I biotransformation?

<p>Includes oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis reactions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors affect drug permeation and disposition?

<p>Physicochemical properties of the drug (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement most accurately reflects the clinical significance of drug biotransformation?

<p>It can produce active or toxic metabolites (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a key factor affecting drug bioavailability?

<p>Dietary preferences (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the elimination half-life of a drug in zero-order kinetics as its concentration increases?

<p>It increases with increasing drug concentration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason bioequivalence is clinically significant?

<p>It ensures that generic formulations produce similar drug concentrations to the reference drug. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug is defined as one that binds to a receptor and fully activates it?

<p>Agonist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of a partial agonist when it binds to a receptor?

<p>It produces a weaker response compared to a full agonist. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about inverse agonists is true?

<p>They induce the opposite effect of agonists. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do endogenous ligands play in drug-receptor interactions?

<p>They activate receptors to produce biological responses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do drugs interact with carrier proteins in the cell membrane?

<p>Drugs can either inhibit or enhance transport of substances across membranes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of bioequivalence studies in the context of generic drugs?

<p>They demonstrate that generic drugs can be used interchangeably with reference drugs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Drug Absorption

The movement of a drug from its administration site to the bloodstream.

Drug Distribution

The distribution of a drug throughout the body, reaching different tissues and organs.

Drug Metabolism

The process of breaking down a drug into smaller, inactive or less active metabolites by the body.

Drug Excretion

The elimination of a drug and its metabolites from the body.

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Bioavailability

The fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged after administration.

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First-Pass Metabolism

The metabolism of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation.

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Plasma Protein Binding

The reversible binding of drugs to plasma proteins, affecting their distribution and availability for action.

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Biotransformation

The enzymatic modification of drugs into metabolites involving two phases: oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis (Phase I) and conjugation reactions (Phase II).

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Zero-order kinetics

In zero-order kinetics, the time it takes for the drug concentration to reduce by half increases as the drug concentration increases. This means high drug levels can lead to drug accumulation and potential toxicity.

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Bioequivalence

Two formulations of the same drug are considered bioequivalent if they produce similar concentrations of the drug in the body over time. This means they are absorbed at a similar rate and to a similar extent.

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Clinical significance of Bioequivalence

Bioequivalence studies are performed to ensure that generic drugs are equivalent to the original brand-name drug, allowing for safe and effective substitution.

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Receptor

Proteins that bind to specific molecules, called ligands, to trigger cellular responses.

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Endogenous Ligand

Naturally occurring substances in the body that bind to receptors to produce biological responses (e.g., hormones, neurotransmitters).

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Agonist

Drugs that bind to receptors and activate them, causing a biological response.

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Antagonist

Drugs that bind to receptors but don't activate them. They block other molecules from activating the receptor, preventing their effects.

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Partial Agonist

Drugs that bind to receptors and produce a weaker response compared to full agonists.

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G Protein-Coupled Receptors

Cell surface receptors that activate intracellular signaling pathways through interactions with G proteins.

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Ligand-Gated Ion Channels

Membrane proteins that open in response to ligand binding, allowing ions to pass through and generating an electrical signal.

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Enzyme-Linked Receptors

Cell surface receptors with built-in enzymatic activity.

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Nuclear Receptors

Intracellular receptors that bind to DNA and regulate gene expression in response to ligand binding.

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Dose-Response Curve

A dose-response curve illustrates the relationship between the dose of a drug and the magnitude of its effect.

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Threshold

The minimum dose required to elicit a detectable response.

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Slope of a Dose-Response Curve

The steepness of the curve, indicating the sensitivity to changes in dose.

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Maximum Effect (Emax)

The peak response achieved at high doses.

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What is affinity?

The strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.

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What are spare receptors?

Receptors present in excess of what's needed for maximum response. A full response can still be achieved even if some receptors are occupied.

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What is ED50?

The dose of drug that produces a therapeutic effect in 50% of the population.

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What is LD50?

The dose of drug that causes death in 50% of the population.

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What is TD50?

The dose of drug that produces a toxic effect in 50% of the population.

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What is competitive antagonism?

An antagonist that binds to the same site as the agonist, competing for binding. Increasing the agonist's concentration can overcome this type of antagonism.

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What is non-competitive antagonism?

An antagonist that binds to a different site on the receptor or alters its function, preventing the agonist from producing a response.

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How does an agonist work?

An agonist produces a dose-dependent increase in response, reaching a maximum effect (Emax) at high doses.

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Partial Agonist: Pindolol

Drugs like Pindolol that partially activate beta adrenergic receptors, producing a weaker effect compared to full agonists. They block the receptors to a lesser degree than full antagonists.

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Beta and Alpha Blocker: Labetalol

A drug like Labetalol that blocks both beta and alpha 1 adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate, reduced peripheral resistance, and vasodilation.

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Adrenergic Blocking Agents

Drugs that block the binding of endogenous catecholamines to adrenergic receptors. They competitively bind to receptors, preventing the activation of the receptor.

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Alpha Blockers

Drugs that block alpha adrenergic receptors, causing vasodilation, decreased peripheral resistance, and smooth muscle relaxation.

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Beta Blockers

Drugs that block beta adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate, reduced myocardial contractility, and, in the case of nonselective blockers, bronchoconstriction.

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Therapeutic Uses of Adrenergic Blocking Agents

Used to treat hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, migraines, anxiety disorders, and certain benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms.

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Common Adverse Effects of Adrenergic Blocking Agents

Common side effects may include orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, fatigue, bradycardia, cold extremities, and gastrointestinal disturbances.

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Major Adverse Effects of Adrenergic Blocking Agents

Serious side effects can include heart block, exacerbation of bronchospasm, exacerbation of heart failure, and masking of hypoglycaemic symptoms in diabetic patients.

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What are prostaglandins and what do they do?

Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in various bodily functions, including inflammation, pain, fever, blood clotting, and smooth muscle contraction and relaxation.

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What is histamine and what is its role?

Histamine is a chemical messenger that is released from mast cells and other cells in response to injury or allergic reactions. It plays a crucial role in inflammation, immune responses, and gastric acid secretion.

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What is serotonin and what does it do?

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that influences various physiological functions, including mood regulation, sleep-wake cycles, appetite, and gastrointestinal motility. It's often referred to as the "happiness hormone."

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What role do leukotrienes play in the body?

Leukotrienes are potent inflammatory mediators, particularly involved in asthma. They contribute to airway narrowing, increased mucus production, and airway inflammation.

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What are prostaglandin analogues and how are they used?

Prostaglandin analogues are medications that mimic the actions of naturally occurring prostaglandins. They are used to prevent gastric ulcers, induce labor, and facilitate medical abortions.

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What are antihistamines and how do they work?

Antihistamines are medications that block histamine receptors, preventing histamine from binding and triggering allergic reactions. They are used to relieve allergy symptoms like itching, sneezing, and runny nose.

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What are serotonin agonists and what are they used for?

Serotonin agonists are drugs that stimulate serotonin receptors, often used for treating migraines and cluster headaches. They enhance the effects of serotonin.

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What are serotonin antagonists and what are their uses?

Serotonin antagonists are drugs that block serotonin receptors, used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially associated with chemotherapy or surgery. They block the actions of serotonin.

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Study Notes

Major Drug Permeation and Disposition Processes

  • Drug permeation and disposition processes include absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
  • Factors affecting drug permeation and disposition include physicochemical properties of the drug (e.g., molecular weight, lipophilicity, charge), blood flow to target tissues, protein binding, and membrane barriers.
  • The presence of efflux transporters also plays a role.

First Pass Metabolism and Bioavailability

  • First pass metabolism is the metabolism of a drug before it reaches systemic circulation.
  • Bioavailability is the fraction of the drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged after administration.
  • Factors affecting first pass metabolism and bioavailability include hepatic metabolism and enzyme activity, gut wall metabolism, intestinal and hepatic blood flow, and interactions with food or other drugs.
  • Drug formulation and route of administration also play a role.

Effect of Plasma Protein Binding

  • Plasma protein binding affects drug distribution in the body.
  • Bound drugs have limited distribution, while unbound (free) drugs are available for tissue uptake and action.
  • Protein binding influences drug redistribution within the body and enterohepatic circulation.
  • Enterohepatic circulation is the recycling of drugs between the liver and the intestine via bile.

Two Main Phases of Biotransformation

  • Biotransformation involves the enzymatic modification of drugs into metabolites.
  • Phase I biotransformation involves oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis reactions.
  • Phase II biotransformation involves conjugation reactions, where metabolites are attached to endogenous compounds.
  • The clinical significance includes inactivation or activation of drugs, formation of active or toxic metabolites, and drug-drug interactions.

Processes Involved in Drug Excretion

  • Excretion refers to the elimination of drugs and their metabolites from the body.
  • Major excretion routes include renal (urine), biliary (feces), and pulmonary (breath) excretion.

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