DNA and RNA Structure
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Questions and Answers

What is the significance of the 5' to 3' directionality in DNA synthesis?

  • It allows for the synthesis of RNA molecules from DNA templates.
  • It ensures that DNA strands are synthesized in an antiparallel manner.
  • It defines the direction in which nucleotides are added during synthesis. (correct)
  • It stabilizes the hydrogen bonding between purine and pyrimidine bases.
  • How does the antiparallel orientation of DNA strands influence genetic processes?

  • It allows for more efficient DNA repair mechanisms. (correct)
  • It defines the method of RNA transcription from DNA.
  • It facilitates hydrogen bonding between complementary base pairs.
  • It promotes the formation of nucleosomes for DNA packaging.
  • Which of the following correctly describes purine-pyrimidine base pairing in DNA?

  • Adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds. (correct)
  • Cytosine pairs with guanine through two hydrogen bonds.
  • Adenine pairs with cytosine through three hydrogen bonds.
  • Guanine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds.
  • What is the role of histone proteins in the structure of nucleosomes?

    <p>They provide ionic interactions that stabilize the DNA around the core. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes highly conserved DNA regions?

    <p>They remain unchanged across species due to their essential biological function. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the structure of DNA contribute to the stability of its helical shape?

    <p>The complementary size and bonding pattern of purines and pyrimidines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main consequence of the nucleosome structure on gene expression?

    <p>It regulates gene expression by controlling DNA accessibility. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template?

    <p>RNA is transcribed in a 5' to 3' direction from the DNA template strand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the complementary base pairing in DNA consist of?

    <p>Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What principle is illustrated by Chargaff's experiments regarding scientific theories?

    <p>Scientific theories must be falsifiable and based on empirical evidence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of knocking out the p53 gene in mice?

    <p>Heightened susceptibility to cancer due to unchecked cell division (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is NOT commonly used in knockout technology?

    <p>Gene therapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical function does the p53 protein normally serve in cells?

    <p>Detecting DNA damage and triggering apoptosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In genetic research, knockout models are predominantly used for what purpose?

    <p>To understand the biological roles of specific genes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the tetranucleotide hypothesis relate to Chargaff's findings?

    <p>It was falsified by demonstrating species-specific nucleotide ratios (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an application of knockout technology?

    <p>Researching the effects of gene therapy on target tissues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary aim of using knockout technology in studies involving oncogenes?

    <p>To identify genes that suppress tumor formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impact has knockout technology had on genetic research?

    <p>It has facilitated insights into complex biological systems and disease mechanisms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of cell proliferation in adults?

    <p>To replace dead or damaged cells and maintain homeostasis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens at the G1 checkpoint of the cell cycle?

    <p>The cell checks for adequate size, nutrition, and potential DNA damage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of interphase is primarily responsible for DNA replication?

    <p>S (Synthesis) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely consequence of mutations in tumor suppressor genes?

    <p>Loss of cell cycle checkpoints allowing damaged cells to divide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes malignant tumors from benign tumors?

    <p>Malignant tumors can metastasize to distant organs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) play in the cell cycle?

    <p>They regulate the progression of the cell cycle phases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might lead to genomic instability in a cell?

    <p>Errors during the G2 phase checkpoint (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What signifies strong purifying selection concerning conserved sequences?

    <p>Critical functions necessary for survival remain intact (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Abnormal cell proliferation can lead to which of the following conditions?

    <p>Cancer and tumor formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of interphase does the cell undergo significant growth and prepares for DNA replication?

    <p>G1 phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a main characteristic of benign tumors compared to malignant tumors?

    <p>Benign tumors grow slowly and do not metastasize (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the G2 checkpoint in the cell cycle?

    <p>To check that DNA replication is complete and error-free (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes how stem cells function in relation to cell proliferation?

    <p>They proliferate to replenish specific cell types, such as blood cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary distinction between benign and malignant tumors?

    <p>Malignant tumors are invasive and pose a greater health risk. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the complete set of RNA molecules transcribed from the genome at any given time?

    <p>Transcriptome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Epigenetic changes can be characterized by which of the following statements?

    <p>They can be influenced by environmental factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do non-coding RNAs play in gene expression regulation?

    <p>They can silence or activate gene expression by binding to mRNA or chromatin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Michael Meaney's research, what specific effect did high maternal care have on offspring?

    <p>It resulted in enhanced stress resilience due to epigenetic modifications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the relationship between gene expression and cell differentiation?

    <p>Differentiation is regulated by variations in gene expression. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of genetic change involves alterations in the DNA sequence itself?

    <p>Genetic mutations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phenomenon illustrates the transgenerational transmission of epigenetic traits according to Meaney's findings?

    <p>High levels of maternal care leading to similar behaviors in descendants. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do histone modifications affect gene expression?

    <p>They can either activate or repress gene expression depending on the specific context. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of monozygotic (MZ) twin studies makes them effective for studying environmental influences on gene expression?

    <p>MZ twins share 100% of their genetic material. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does DNA methylation typically have on gene expression?

    <p>It represses gene expression by compacting the DNA structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the function of the proteome?

    <p>It encompasses the complete set of proteins produced by a cell. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of gene expression in cellular differentiation?

    <p>It dictates the types of proteins synthesized in specialized cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily regulated to enable cells to respond to environmental and developmental cues?

    <p>Gene expression through epigenetic mechanisms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of different phenotypes in MZ twins imply about the roles of genetics and environment?

    <p>Variations in phenotypes indicate the influence of epigenetic modifications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the Hershey-Chase experiment, which component was labeled to track the viral DNA?

    <p>Phosphorus (³²P) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was a primary conclusion drawn from the outcomes of the Hershey-Chase experiment?

    <p>Only DNA enters bacterial cells during viral infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes Chargaff's rules regarding base pair equivalence?

    <p>The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What did Chargaff's findings contradict about the tetranucleotide hypothesis?

    <p>Nucleotide ratios can vary among different species. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The primary purpose of using radioactive isotopes in the Hershey-Chase experiment was to:

    <p>Differentiate between DNA and protein components. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do epigenetic modifications play in gene expression?

    <p>They influence gene expression without altering the DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of the Hershey-Chase experiment, which statement is true regarding the separation of viral components?

    <p>Only the DNA entered the bacteria after infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors can influence gene expression through epigenetic mechanisms?

    <p>Environmental influences like diet and stress (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What evidence did Chargaff provide to disprove the tetranucleotide hypothesis?

    <p>Nucleotide ratios in DNA vary by species. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are MZ twins important for studying the impact of environmental factors on phenotypes?

    <p>Their genetic similarity allows isolation of environmental effects. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT represent a possible environmental influence on gene expression?

    <p>Genetic predispositions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How did the results of the Hershey-Chase experiment contribute to the field of molecular biology?

    <p>They established DNA as the molecule of inheritance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What discovery did Chargaff's rule of base pairing ultimately support?

    <p>The formation of the double-helix structure of DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of DNA methylation in the context of gene expression?

    <p>It serves as a marker for epigenetic modifications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which phase of interphase involves the synthesis of proteins specifically required for DNA replication?

    <p>S (Synthesis) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the G1 checkpoint during the cell cycle?

    <p>To ensure adequate size and proper nutrition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of transcription factors?

    <p>They bind to DNA sequences and regulate gene expression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the G2 phase of interphase?

    <p>Structures required for mitosis begin to assemble. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence might occur if errors happen during the S phase?

    <p>The errors can lead to mutations and genomic instability. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which subphase of interphase directly follows cell division?

    <p>G1 (Gap 1) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the G0 phase is true?

    <p>Cells in this phase can re-enter the cell cycle under certain conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the initial event in the G1 phase of interphase?

    <p>The cell carries out normal metabolic activities and grows. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism allows cells to incorporate a specific sequence into the genome when using CRISPR-Cas9?

    <p>Homology-directed repair (HDR) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of genes located close to each other on the same chromosome?

    <p>They are more likely to exhibit linkage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of genetic diversity, what allows for the inheritance of distinct allele combinations from parents?

    <p>Independent assortment of alleles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cellular repair mechanism may disrupt a gene when CRISPR-Cas9 introduces a double-stranded break?

    <p>Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does CRISPR-Cas9 technology benefit patients with sickle cell anemia?

    <p>By editing the hemoglobin gene directly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Cas9 protein in the CRISPR-Cas9 system?

    <p>To cut DNA at specific locations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome has been observed in early clinical trials using CRISPR-Cas9 for treating sickle cell anemia?

    <p>Reduction in symptoms for some patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment in the context of genetic inheritance?

    <p>Alleles segregate independently of one another during gamete formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of CRISPR-Cas9 is responsible for guiding the Cas9 enzyme to a specific target DNA sequence?

    <p>Guide RNA (gRNA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential challenge when using CRISPR-Cas9 technology for gene editing?

    <p>Linkage between genes may affect editing outcomes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism through which enhancers increase transcription?

    <p>By interacting with activator proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of histone methylation in gene expression regulation?

    <p>Can either activate or repress transcription depending on context (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do microRNAs (miRNAs) primarily affect gene expression?

    <p>By binding to mRNA and causing degradation or repression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does the phosphorylation of eIF2 have during stress conditions?

    <p>It prevents translation initiation to conserve resources (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the regulation of the LCT gene?

    <p>Its expression is influenced by environmental cues like lactose intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one primary role of chromatin modifications in transcription regulation?

    <p>They alter the accessibility of DNA to transcription machinery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of alternative translation initiation sites allow for?

    <p>Production of different protein isoforms from the same mRNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to mRNA that is bound by regulatory proteins or microRNAs?

    <p>It is marked for degradation or translational inhibition (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of signaling pathways in transcription regulation?

    <p>They can activate or repress transcription factors based on external signals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the transcriptional impact of histone acetylation?

    <p>It loosens chromatin structure and promotes transcription (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do enhancers and silencers differ in their function?

    <p>Enhancers recruit RNA polymerase, while silencers prevent its recruitment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT involved in the regulation of translation initiation?

    <p>RNA polymerase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the function of regulatory RNAs in gene expression?

    <p>They can silence specific genes or modify chromatin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of mRNA stability in translation regulation?

    <p>Stable mRNAs are more likely to be translated, whereas unstable ones are degraded (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of estradiol in breast tissue?

    <p>Promoting gene expression related to cell proliferation and differentiation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do imprinted genes influence the growth of ligers compared to their parent species?

    <p>They promote overexpression of growth signals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Mendel's Law of Segregation explain about allele inheritance?

    <p>Only one allele for a gene is passed to each gamete (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic outcome of genomic imprinting in hybrids like ligers?

    <p>Exaggerated size due to active imprinted genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does estradiol affect the preparation of the uterus during the menstrual cycle?

    <p>It regulates the transcription of genes essential for implantation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process describes the independence of allele segregation during gamete formation according to Mendel's principles?

    <p>Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is estradiol particularly significant during puberty and the menstrual cycle?

    <p>It stimulates growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) in ligers' abnormal growth?

    <p>To promote cell division by being imprinted differently in hybrids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way does estradiol influence cellular processes beyond breast tissue?

    <p>By regulating a wide range of biological functions including reproduction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of the paternal allele of IGF2 in typical lions and tigers?

    <p>It promotes normal growth rates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does estradiol binding to estrogen receptors alter cellular activity?

    <p>It activates receptors that enhance transcription of target genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome does Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment explain about genetic diversity?

    <p>Genes are distributed randomly into gametes, promoting genetic diversity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which context is genomic imprinting especially notable in ligers?

    <p>It causes a heightened expression of growth-promoting genes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What critical role does estradiol play during pregnancy preparation?

    <p>It is involved in the expression of genes that prepare the uterus for implantation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    5' to 3' directionality

    The direction in which a nucleic acid strand is built, from the 5' end (phosphate group) to the 3' end (hydroxyl group)

    Antiparallel DNA strands

    The arrangement of DNA strands, where one runs 5' to 3' and the other runs 3' to 5', allowing for base pairing and stable structure.

    DNA replication

    The process by which DNA is copied, ensuring genetic information is passed on to daughter cells

    RNA transcription

    The process by which RNA is made from a DNA template, creating a messenger molecule for protein synthesis

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    Purine-pyrimidine base pairing

    The specific pairing of purines (adenine and guanine) with pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine) in DNA, stabilizing the double helix.

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    Nucleosome

    The fundamental unit of chromatin structure, consisting of a segment of DNA wrapped around a histone core

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    Highly conserved DNA

    Regions of the genome that are highly similar across different species, suggesting an essential biological function

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    DNA repair

    The process by which DNA is repaired, ensuring the integrity of the genetic code

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    Conserved sequences

    DNA sequences that are highly similar across different species, suggesting important functions.

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    Purifying selection

    Selection that eliminates harmful mutations, leading to the preservation of critical sequences.

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    Cell proliferation

    The process by which cells divide and produce new cells.

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    Interphase

    The phase of the cell cycle where the cell prepares for division.

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    G1 phase

    The first phase of interphase where the cell grows, synthesizes proteins, and prepares for DNA replication.

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    S phase

    The phase of interphase where the cell replicates its DNA.

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    G2 phase

    The final phase of interphase where the cell completes preparation for division.

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    Tumor suppressor genes

    Genes that control the cell cycle and prevent uncontrolled growth.

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    Oncogenes

    Genes that promote cell growth and division.

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    Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)

    Proteins that regulate the cell cycle by controlling the transitions between phases.

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    Benign tumors

    Non-cancerous growths that remain localized and do not invade surrounding tissues.

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    Malignant tumors

    Cancerous growths that invade tissues and can spread to other parts of the body.

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    Metastasis

    The spread of cancer cells from the original location to other parts of the body.

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    Mitosis

    The process of cell division.

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    Checkpoint

    The process where the cell checks for DNA damage and ensures proper replication.

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    Genome

    The entire set of DNA in a cell, encompassing all genes and non-coding sequences.

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    Transcriptome

    The complete set of RNA molecules transcribed from the genome at a given time, indicating which genes are actively expressed.

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    Differentiation

    The process by which cells specialize into distinct types with unique functions.

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    Proteome

    The entire collection of proteins produced by a cell, resulting from translation of mRNA in the transcriptome.

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    Genetic changes

    Changes in the DNA sequence itself, including mutations, insertions, deletions, or rearrangements.

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    Epigenetic changes

    Modifications that affect gene expression without altering the DNA sequence, influencing the structure of DNA or chromatin.

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    DNA methylation

    The addition of a methyl group (CH₃) to the cytosine base of DNA, typically in a CpG dinucleotide context.

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    Histone modifications

    Chemical modifications to histone proteins around which DNA is wrapped, such as acetylation, methylation, phosphorylation, and ubiquitination.

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    Non-coding RNAs

    Small RNA molecules, such as microRNAs (miRNAs) and long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs), that regulate gene expression by binding to mRNA or chromatin.

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    Epigenetics

    The study of how experiences and environmental factors can influence gene expression without changing the DNA sequence.

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    Transgenerational inheritance

    A phenomenon where environmental factors and experiences can trigger epigenetic changes that affect the development and behavior of offspring, even across generations.

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    Monozygotic (MZ) twin studies

    Twin studies involving identical twins who share 100% of their genetic material, providing a unique opportunity to study the influence of environmental factors on differences in traits, behaviors, and health outcomes.

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    MZ twins and environmental influence

    Identical twins (MZ) share the same genetic makeup, so any differences in their traits like disease susceptibility or behavior can be attributed to environmental influences or epigenetic modifications, not genetic variation.

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    Hershey-Chase experiment

    The Hershey-Chase experiment involved using radioactive isotopes to track the components of a virus, specifically the T2 bacteriophage, to determine whether DNA or protein carries genetic information.

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    Radioactive isotopes used

    In the experiment, radioactive phosphorus (³²P) was used to label DNA, and radioactive sulfur (³⁵S) was used to label the protein coat of the virus.

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    Key finding of Hershey-Chase

    The experiment showed that the radioactive DNA (³²P) entered the bacteria during infection, while the radioactive protein coat (³⁵S) remained outside.

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    Significance of Hershey-Chase

    The Hershey-Chase experiment provided compelling evidence that DNA, not protein, carries the genetic information and is responsible for inheriting traits.

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    Chargaff's research

    Erwin Chargaff's research involved analyzing the nucleotide composition of DNA from various organisms.

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    Chargaff's Rules: Base Pair Equivalence

    Chargaff discovered that in any DNA sample, the amount of adenine (A) is always equal to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of cytosine (C) is always equal to the amount of guanine (G).

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    Chargaff's Rules: Species-specific ratios

    Chargaff also observed that while the base pairing rules were consistent across species, the overall proportions of A, T, C, and G varied from species to species.

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    Tetranucleotide Hypothesis

    The tetranucleotide hypothesis proposed that DNA was composed of repeating units of all four nucleotides in a fixed order, like ATCG ATCG.

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    Disproving the Tetranucleotide Hypothesis

    Chargaff's findings disproved the tetranucleotide hypothesis by showing that the proportions of A, T, C, and G were not fixed in a repeating pattern.

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    Impact of Chargaff's Rules on understanding of DNA structure

    Chargaff's Rules, specifically the base pairing equivalence, proved crucial for understanding the structure of DNA, as these rules helped in unraveling the double-helix structure of DNA.

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    Importance of species-specific ratios in DNA

    Chargaff's work also highlighted the unique and varying composition of DNA in different organisms, suggesting the possibility of a diverse genetic blueprint for life.

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    Falsifiability

    The principle that scientific theories must be able to be tested and potentially proven false. This helps ensure that scientific progress is based on empirical evidence and not just speculation.

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    Chargaff's Rules

    The observation that the amount of adenine (A) in DNA is always equal to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of cytosine (C) is always equal to the amount of guanine (G).

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    Knockout Technology

    A technique used by scientists to study the function of specific genes by intentionally inactivating or "knocking out" those genes in living organisms.

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    Knockout Gene

    A modified version of a gene or a gene that has been completely deleted, used in knockout technology to disrupt the function of the original gene.

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    Phenotype

    The visible physical characteristics or traits of an organism, including its appearance and function. Changes in these traits can be observed after a gene is knocked out.

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    p53 Knockout Mouse

    A mouse model in which the p53 gene, a tumor suppressor gene, has been specifically deleted.

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    Apoptosis

    The process by which damaged or abnormal cells are programmed to die, preventing them from dividing uncontrollably.

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    Tumorigenesis

    The study of how tumors develop and grow.

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    What is the G1 phase?

    G1 phase is like a cell's childhood - it grows, gets ready to learn (replicate DNA), and makes sure it has enough resources.

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    What happens in the S phase?

    The S phase (synthesis) is the DNA replication phase, where the cell makes an exact copy of its genetic information. This is crucial for ensuring that both daughter cells receive a complete set.

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    What happens in the G2 phase?

    The cell finishes growing, checks for errors in the replicated DNA, and prepares the machinery for actual cell division. It's like the finishing touches before a big event!

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    What are transcription factors?

    Transcription factors are like 'on/off switches' for genes. They bind to DNA and can either activate or repress the process of making RNA from a gene.

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    What is interphase?

    Interphase is like a cell's busy preparation period for division. It's divided into three phases: G1, S, and G2, each with its own set of tasks.

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    What are cell cycle checkpoints?

    These checkpoints ensure that the cell only moves on to the next phase if everything is in order. It's like a quality control system.

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    What is transcription?

    Transcription is like copying a recipe from a cookbook (DNA) to a recipe card (RNA) so you can make the dish (protein).

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    Why is gene expression control important?

    Gene expression control is the process of regulating which genes are turned on or off in a cell. It's like deciding which recipe you want to use.

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    Transcription Factors

    Proteins that bind to DNA and control the rate of transcription by either enhancing or blocking RNA polymerase.

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    Enhancers

    DNA sequences that can bind to activator proteins to enhance transcription, often located far from the gene they regulate.

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    Silencers

    DNA sequences that bind to repressor proteins to decrease transcription, often located far from the gene they regulate.

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    Histone Acetylation

    The process of adding acetyl groups to histone proteins, generally loosening chromatin structure and promoting transcription.

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    Histone Methylation

    The process of adding methyl groups to histone proteins, which can either activate or repress transcription depending on the location and context.

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    MicroRNAs (miRNAs)

    Small, non-coding RNA molecules that regulate translation by binding to complementary sequences in the 3' UTR of target mRNAs, often leading to translational repression or mRNA degradation.

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    Translation

    The process by which mRNA is used as a template to synthesize proteins.

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    mRNA Stability

    The stability or degradation of mRNA, which plays a critical role in regulating translation. Stable mRNAs are translated, while unstable mRNAs are degraded.

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    Translation Initiation

    The process of initiating translation by binding the small ribosomal subunit to the mRNA and recruiting the large ribosomal subunit, which can be influenced by factors like stress and nutrient availability.

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    Regulatory Proteins

    Proteins that can bind to mRNA and regulate its translation, either promoting or inhibiting the recruitment of the ribosome. They may bind to the untranslated regions (UTRs) of the mRNA.

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    Alternative Translation Initiation

    The ability of some mRNAs to have multiple translation initiation sites, allowing for the production of different protein isoforms depending on the conditions or factors present.

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    Ribosome Activity

    The activity of ribosomes themselves can be regulated, affecting the rate of translation. Ribosome function can be affected by stress conditions or signaling pathways.

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    LCT Gene

    The gene that encodes lactase, the enzyme responsible for digesting lactose in milk.

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    Lactase Persistence

    The ability to digest lactose beyond infancy due to the continued expression of the LCT gene.

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    Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment

    The principle that during gamete formation, alleles for different traits separate independently of each other, leading to a variety of possible combinations in offspring.

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    CRISPR-Cas9

    A revolutionary genome-editing technology that allows scientists to make precise changes to DNA using a naturally occurring system in bacteria.

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    Guide RNA (gRNA)

    A short RNA sequence designed to guide the Cas9 enzyme to a specific target DNA sequence in the genome.

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    Cas9 Enzyme

    A DNA-cutting enzyme, guided by the gRNA to a specific target DNA sequence, where it makes a double-stranded break.

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    Non-homologous End Joining (NHEJ)

    A process that repairs the double-stranded break in DNA after Cas9 cuts it. It can lead to insertions or deletions, often disrupting the gene.

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    Homology-directed Repair (HDR)

    A process that repairs the double-stranded break in DNA using a provided repair template to replace specific sequences in the genome.

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    Sickle Cell Anemia

    A genetic blood disorder caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene, resulting in sickle-shaped red blood cells.

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    CRISPR-Cas9 for Sickle Cell Anemia

    The use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology to edit the hemoglobin gene in bone marrow cells to correct the mutation causing sickle cell anemia.

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    Hematopoietic Stem Cells

    Cells that differentiate to produce various types of blood cells, targeted in CRISPR-Cas9 therapy for sickle cell anemia.

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    CRISPR-Cas9 Technology

    A promising tool for gene therapy, research, and biotechnology, enabling precise and targeted modifications of the genome.

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    Estradiol's Role in Gene Expression

    Estradiol, a type of estrogen, interacts with specific receptors in cells, leading to changes in gene expression and activity.

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    Estradiol Receptors in Breast Tissue

    Estradiol receptors are present in breast tissue and play a crucial role in breast development and regulation of the menstrual cycle.

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    Estradiol's Effect on Breast Cell Activity

    Estradiol binding to its receptor in breast cells activates a cascade of signaling events that promote genes involved in cell growth, differentiation, and development.

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    Ligers and Genomic Imprinting

    The offspring of a male lion and a female tiger, ligers, are often larger than their parent species due to genomic imprinting.

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    Genomic Imprinting

    Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic process where certain genes are expressed differently depending on whether they were inherited from the mother or father.

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    Imprinted Gene: IGF2

    Insulin-like Growth Factor 2 (IGF2) is an imprinted gene that plays a role in growth regulation, and its expression varies between maternal and paternal alleles.

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    IGF2 Overexpression in Ligers

    Ligers inherit active IGF2 alleles from both parents, leading to overexpression of growth signals and larger size compared to lions and tigers.

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    Mendel's Law of Segregation

    Mendel's Law of Segregation explains how alleles for a gene separate during gamete formation, ensuring that offspring inherit one allele from each parent.

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    Allele Inheritance

    Each individual carries two alleles for each gene, one from each parent, which segregate during gamete formation, ensuring the diploid number of alleles is restored in the offspring.

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    Random Allele Distribution

    The two alleles for a gene are randomly distributed into separate gametes during meiosis, explaining why offspring inherit one allele from each parent without affecting others.

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    Importance of Mendel's Laws

    Mendel's Laws provide a foundation for understanding how traits are inherited, explaining the patterns of inheritance in offspring.

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    Independent Inheritance of Alleles

    The inheritance of one allele for a gene does not affect the inheritance of an allele for a different gene, as long as they are on separate chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome.

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    Random Segregation of Alleles

    During meiosis, alleles for each gene segregate randomly into different gametes, ensuring that offspring receive a mix of parental genes.

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    Significance of Mendel's Laws

    Mendel's Laws provide a framework for understanding the genetic basis of inheritance, highlighting the fundamental principles of how traits are passed from one generation to the next.

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    Study Notes

    DNA and RNA Structure and Directionality

    • DNA and RNA exhibit directionality (5' to 3') due to their sugar-phosphate backbones.
    • DNA strands are antiparallel (one 5' to 3', the other 3' to 5').
    • Nucleotides are added to the 3' end during synthesis.
    • DNA replication and RNA transcription proceed in the 5' to 3' direction.
    • Directionality is crucial for genetic processes.

    DNA Base Pairing and Stability

    • Purine-pyrimidine base pairing stabilizes the DNA double helix.
    • Adenine (purine) pairs with thymine (pyrimidine) via two hydrogen bonds.
    • Guanine (purine) pairs with cytosine (pyrimidine) via three hydrogen bonds.
    • Purines are larger than pyrimidines, maintaining strand separation.
    • This precise pairing is essential for DNA's helical structure and stability.

    Nucleosomes and Chromatin Structure

    • Nucleosomes are fundamental chromatin units.
    • A nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer.
    • The histone octamer is composed of two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 proteins.
    • Approximately 146 base pairs of DNA coil around the histone octamer.
    • Linker DNA (20-60 base pairs) connects adjacent nucleosomes.
    • Nucleosome structure compacts DNA for nuclear space and regulates gene expression.

    Highly Conserved DNA Sequences

    • Highly conserved DNA regions remain unchanged across species.
    • These sequences typically reside within genes or regulatory regions.
    • Their conservation reflects vital cellular functions (metabolism, repair, division).
    • Purifying selection eliminates mutations that disrupt these essential roles.

    Cell Proliferation and Regulation

    • Cell proliferation is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance.
    • Embryonic development relies heavily on rapid cell division.
    • In adults, proliferation maintains homeostasis and repairs damage.
    • Uncontrolled proliferation can lead to diseases like cancer.
    • Proliferation must be carefully regulated.

    Cell Cycle Phases (Interphase)

    • Interphase is the cell's preparation phase for division, composed of G1, S, and G2 phases.
    • G1: Cell growth, protein synthesis, preparations for DNA replication, G1 checkpoint; checks size, nutrition, and DNA damage. If conditions are unfavorable, the cell may enter a resting state called G0.
    • S: DNA replication creating sister chromatids, connected at the centromere; crucial for accurate genome replication. Cell continues to grow, synthesizing proteins for replication.
    • G2: Further cell growth, protein synthesis, checks for DNA errors (G2 checkpoint), and DNA repair; assembling structures for mitosis, including spindle apparatus.
    • Interphase prepares the cell for mitotic division, ensuring resources, DNA integrity, and structural components for successful division.

    Cell Cycle Mutations and Cancer

    • Mutations in cell cycle regulator genes contribute to cancer.
    • Tumor suppressor genes (like p53) prevent uncontrolled division.
    • Oncogenes (like RAS) constantly stimulate proliferation.
    • Mutations in cyclins or CDKs dysregulate the cell cycle.

    Benign vs. Malignant Tumors

    • Benign tumors are non-cancerous, localized, and slow-growing; usually encapsulated and do not metastasize.
    • Malignant tumors are cancerous, invasive, and potentially metastatic.

    Genome, Transcriptome, Proteome

    • The genome is the complete DNA set (genes + non-coding).
    • The transcriptome is the expressed RNA set, reflecting gene activity.
    • The proteome is the set of all proteins produced by a cell.
    • These molecular layers reflect a cell's identity, activity, and response to signals.

    Genetic vs. Epigenetic Changes

    • Genetic changes alter DNA sequence (mutations, insertions, deletions).
    • Epigenetic changes modify gene expression without DNA sequence alteration – typically reversible and responsive to environmental factors.

    Epigenetic Mechanisms

    • DNA methylation (adds methyl groups to DNA).
    • Histone modifications (alterations to histone proteins).
    • Non-coding RNAs (regulate gene expression).
    • Epigenetic processes regulate gene expression without altering the DNA sequence itself.

    Meaney's Rat Study and Epigenetics

    • Meaney's rat research demonstrated transgenerational epigenetic effects.
    • Maternal care (licking/grooming) epigenetically alters stress response.
    • Epigenetic modifications, specifically DNA methylation of the GR gene, are inherited.

    Monozygotic Twin Studies

    • MZ twins share 100% of their genome, making them ideal for studying environments.
    • Differences seen in MZ twins suggest environmental and epigenetic effects.
    • Monozygotic twin studies reveal that environment affects gene expression by modifying epigenetic tags.

    Hershey-Chase Experiment

    • Established DNA as the genetic material using radioactive isotopes (³²P for DNA, ³⁵S for protein).
    • DNA entered bacteria after infection, not protein.

    Chargaff's Rule

    • Discovered consistent base pairing ratios (A=T and C=G).
    • DNA composition varies in different species.
    • Chargaff's rules disproved the tetranucleotide hypothesis.
    • Supported the double-helix model.

    Knockout Technology

    • Knockout technology inactivates specific genes for functional study using techniques like CRISPR/Cas9 and homologous recombination.
    • p53 knockout mice demonstrate the gene's crucial role in preventing tumors.
    • Knockout technology is vital for understanding genetic functions in health and disease.

    Control of Gene Expression

    Transcriptional Regulation

    • Transcription factors bind to specific DNA sequences (promoter regions) to activate or repress transcription.
    • Activators enhance RNA polymerase recruitment, promoting expression.
    • Repressors block RNA polymerase, inhibiting expression.
    • Enhancers and silencers are regulatory DNA elements located far from target genes, affecting transcription.
    • Chromatin modifications (acetylation, methylation) influence accessibility.
    • Acetylation generally promotes transcription by loosening chromatin structure.
    • Methylation can either activate or repress transcription, depending on the context; typically represses by preventing transcription factor binding.
    • Non-coding RNAs (microRNAs and long non-coding RNAs) regulate transcription by interacting with transcription factors or chromatin.
    • Signaling pathways (hormones, growth factors) can activate or repress transcription factors.

    Post Transcriptional Regulation (Translation)

    • Gene expression controlled at translation affects protein production rapidly.
    • mRNA Stability: mRNA degradation or stability regulates translation rates; regulatory proteins or microRNAs can mark mRNA for degradation or inhibit translation.
    • Translation Initiation: Initiation factors control small ribosomal subunit binding to mRNA, which can be influenced by signals.
    • Regulatory Proteins: Binding to mRNA can promote or inhibit translation.
    • MicroRNAs (miRNAs) bind to target mRNAs, leading to translational repression or mRNA degradation.
    • Alternative Translation Initiation: Multiple initiation sites allow for different protein isoforms.
    • Ribosome Activity: Is regulated by cell signals, affecting overall protein synthesis rates.

    Additional Influences on Gene Expression

    • Lactose influences human gene expression, specifically regulating lactase gene expression for lactose digestion.
    • Estradiol, a key estrogen hormone, influences gene expression in breast tissue through estrogen receptors, impacting cell proliferation, differentiation, and development.
    • Genomic imprinting affects ligers' growth, due to imprinted genes like IGF2, which are parent-of-origin specific, producing exaggerated growth when paternal active alleles meet maternal active alleles.
    • Mendel's Law of Segregation, traits sort independently during gamete formation.
    • Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment, different traits inherited independently.
    • CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome-editing tool that allows precise changes to DNA. CRISPR-Cas9 works by using a guide RNA (gRNA) to target the DNA sequence, then the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA. Natural DNA repair processes (NHEJ, HDR) then lead to changes in the sequence. This technology has applications in various diseases, including sickle cell anemia.

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    Description

    Explore the essential concepts of DNA and RNA structure, including directionality, base pairing, and chromatin organization. This quiz covers the significance of the 5' to 3' direction and the stability provided by purine-pyrimidine pairings in nucleic acids. Test your knowledge on these fundamental molecular biology principles.

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