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A patient with a severe intra-abdominal infection requires antibiotic therapy. Considering the specific anaerobic coverage needed, which quinolone would be the MOST appropriate choice?

  • Moxifloxacin (correct)
  • Levofloxacin
  • Gemifloxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin

A 62-year-old male patient with a history of kidney transplant and current steroid use develops Achilles tendon pain shortly after starting ciprofloxacin for a UTI. What is the MOST important next step in managing this patient's quinolone-related complication?

  • Reduce the dose of ciprofloxacin by 50% and monitor the patient closely for any worsening of symptoms.
  • Switch to moxifloxacin, as it has a lower risk of tendonopathy compared to ciprofloxacin.
  • Immediately discontinue ciprofloxacin, advise complete rest and immobilization of the affected tendon, and consider alternative antibiotics. (correct)
  • Prescribe a short course of NSAIDs to manage the tendon pain while continuing ciprofloxacin.

Which of the following macrolides is LEAST likely to cause QT prolongation?

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin (correct)
  • Telithromycin

A patient is prescribed a macrolide antibiotic for a respiratory infection. Which characteristic of macrolides should be considered when prescribing?

<p>Macrolides can cause QT prolongation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following quinolones would be the MOST appropriate choice for treatment?

<p>Levofloxacin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of β-lactam antibiotics?

<p>They interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) and inhibiting transpeptidation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe penicillin allergy requires treatment for a Gram-negative bacterial infection. Which of the following β-lactam antibiotics would be the MOST appropriate and safest to administer, considering potential cross-reactivity?

<p>Aztreonam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might continuous infusion of a β-lactam antibiotic be preferred over intermittent bolus dosing in certain clinical situations?

<p>To maintain drug concentrations above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for a prolonged period, optimizing time-dependent killing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pharmacokinetic property of certain β-lactam antibiotics necessitates dosage adjustments or alternative selection in patients with impaired renal function?

<p>Predominantly renal elimination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the affinity of β-lactams for different Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs) explain the varying spectrum of activity among different bacterial species?

<p>Different bacteria express PBPs with varying amino acid sequences, resulting in differing binding affinities for β-lactams. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with an Enterococcus infection. Why are β-lactams generally considered bacteriostatic against Enterococcus species, in contrast to their bactericidal activity against many other bacteria?

<p><em>Enterococcus</em> species have slower growth rates and can survive with incomplete cell walls, tolerating the effects of β-lactams. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why nafcillin and oxacillin are exceptions to the general rule of renal elimination for beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>They are actively secreted into the bile and eliminated via the fecal route. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are most beta-lactam antibiotics administered frequently?

<p>Because of their short half-life, generally less than two hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an antibiotic from the penicillin family to treat a suspected bacterial infection. The lab results come back indicating the bacteria is producing beta-lactamase. Which of the following medications would address this type of resistance?

<p>Amoxicillin-clavulanate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms describes how bacteria develop resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics?

<p>Producing enzymes that inactivate the antibiotic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a severe infection confirmed to be caused by MSSA (Methicillin-Susceptible Staphylococcus aureus). Which of the listed penicillins would be most appropriate for treating this infection?

<p>Dicloxacillin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might a beta-lactamase inhibitor have reduced effectiveness in a bacteria that overproduces beta-lactamase?

<p>The inhibitor is overwhelmed by the high concentration of beta-lactamase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following explains why aminopenicillins are often preferred over natural penicillins for treating certain infections?

<p>Aminopenicillins have an enhanced spectrum of activity that includes some Gram-negative bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires treatment for a Listeria infection. Which penicillin could be considered, keeping in mind its spectrum of activity?

<p>Amoxicillin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosae (PSAE) infection. Which penicillin would be most appropriate for empiric treatment?

<p>Piperacillin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is most likely to increase the probability of a drug reaching the central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>Ability to bypass efflux pumps in the blood-brain barrier (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action for quinolones?

<p>Inhibiting DNA replication by targeting topoisomerase (Gram-negative) and DNA gyrase (Gram-positive). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a severe Gram-negative bacterial infection is prescribed a quinolone. However, they have a history of poor gut absorption. Which property of quinolones makes it still potentially effective in this scenario?

<p>Quinolones demonstrate high bio-availability, making them suitable for high-dose IV administration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following quinolones was withdrawn from the market due to hepatotoxicity?

<p>Trovafloxacin (Trovan) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a quinolone that is known to cause QT-prolongation. Concurrent administration of which class of drugs would increase the risk of adverse cardiac events?

<p>Macrolides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following quinolones is the L-isomer of ofloxacin, offering enhanced activity?

<p>Levofloxacin (Levaquin) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a UTI caused by a Gram-negative bacterium. Which of the following quinolones is MOST suitable for treating this infection, considering its spectrum of activity?

<p>Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is stopping a drug important when hypersensitivity develops?

<p>To prevent further adverse reactions and restore normal sensitivity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the information provided, which bacterial species is LEAST likely to be effectively treated with Nalidixic acid?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking a specific quinolone develops a severe sunburn after minimal sun exposure. Which quinolone could be the cause?

<p>Lomefloxacin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a quinolone is described as 'cidal' against susceptible bugs, what does this indicate about its mechanism of action?

<p>It directly kills the bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST explains why cross-reactivity is observed between different β-Lactam antibiotics?

<p>β-Lactams possess structural similarities that allow IgE antibodies to recognize and bind to multiple drugs within the class. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with a documented β-Lactam allergy, which clinical factor MOST significantly correlates with an increased likelihood of cross-reactivity to another β-Lactam antibiotic?

<p>The severity of the patient's initial allergic reaction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with a severe, IgE-mediated allergy to penicillin requiring treatment with a β-Lactam antibiotic, which of the following agents is generally considered the SAFEST alternative, due to its unique structural properties?

<p>Aztreonam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY immunological mechanism underlying antimicrobial desensitization protocols?

<p>Controlled degranulation of mast cells to deplete inflammatory mediators. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During antimicrobial desensitization, why is the antibiotic dose gradually increased over time rather than administering a full therapeutic dose immediately?

<p>To slowly degranulate mast cells, preventing a massive release of inflammatory mediators. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical starting dose range for an antibiotic during a desensitization procedure, relative to the full therapeutic dose?

<p>1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of the full dose (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which outcome BEST describes the long-term immunological state achieved through antimicrobial desensitization?

<p>A transiently suppressed hypersensitivity response that requires continued exposure to the antibiotic to maintain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing antimicrobial desensitization begins to exhibit mild flushing and pruritus. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this reaction?

<p>Temporarily halt the infusion and administer an antihistamine, then resume the desensitization at a lower rate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin requires treatment for a life-threatening infection. After careful consideration, the decision is made to proceed with rapid desensitization to penicillin. What is the MOST critical prerequisite that MUST be in place before initiating the desensitization protocol?

<p>Establishment of reliable intravenous access and availability of appropriate resuscitation equipment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between antimicrobial desensitization and simply administering an antihistamine or corticosteroid prior to antibiotic administration in a patient with a known drug allergy?

<p>Antihistamines and corticosteroids prevent the release of histamine and other mediators, while desensitization aims to modify the immune response itself. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

β-Lactams MOA

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs), blocking transpeptidation (cross-linking).

Types of β-Lactams

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.

β-Lactam Efficacy

Time above the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).

β-Lactam Spectrum

Different bacteria have different binding affinities for PBPs, resulting in variability in effectiveness among different types of bacteria.

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β-Lactams Definition

Cell wall synthesis inhibitors that are bactericidal, especially against actively growing cells.

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β-Lactam Elimination

Renal elimination, except nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone and cefoperazone

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β-Lactam Structure

A structure composed of fused thiazolidine and β-lactam rings

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Ciprofloxacin vs. Pseudomonas

Ciprofloxacin is more effective than levofloxacin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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Moxi/Gemi & Pseudomonas

Moxifloxacin and gemifloxacin do not cover Pseudomonas infections.

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HAP/VAP Treatment (Quinolones)

Levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin are used to treat Hospital-Acquired Pneumonia (HAP) and Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP).

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Quinolone Tendon Rupture Risks

Steroid use, age over 50, male gender, and renal failure increase the risk of quinolone-associated tendon rupture.

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Macrolides as Anti-inflammatories

Macrolides can be used as anti-inflammatory agents to inhibit oxidative burst in neutrophils and macrophages, and to inhibit NF-kB, which decreases IL-8 and other chemokines.

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Cephalosporin Renal Function

Most cephalosporins are cleared renally, meaning dosage adjustments are needed for patients with kidney problems.

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Cephalosporin Half-Life

Most cephalosporins have short half-lives (T1/2 < 2 hrs) requiring frequent administration; ceftriaxone is an exception.

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Cephalosporin CNS Penetration

Most cephalosporins have poor CNS penetration, except ceftriaxone and cefotaxime.

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Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms

Resistance develops via enzymatic inactivation, target modification, impaired penetration, or efflux pumps.

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β-Lactamase Inhibitors

Adding a beta-lactamase inhibitor prevents bacterial enzymatic breakdown of the beta-lactam antibiotic.

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β-Lactamase Inhibitor Specificity

β-lactamase inhibitors only work against resistance mediated by β-lactamase enzymes.

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Natural Penicillins

Penicillin G and Penicillin VK are natural penicillins effective against streptococci and T. pallidum.

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Antistaphylococcal Penicillins

Nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, and dicloxacillin are antistaphylococcal penicillins effective against MSSA and streptococci.

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Aminopenicillins Spectrum

Ampicillin and amoxicillin are aminopenicillins effective against Strep, Enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella, and Shigella.

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Hypersensitivity Restoration

Restoring drug sensitivity after stopping a drug for a period of time.

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Quinolones

A class of antibiotics derived from nalidixic acid and cinoxacin.

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Quinolone Mechanism of Action

Inhibition of topoisomerase (Gram -) and DNA gyrase (Gram +).

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Quinolone Bioavailability

Generally excellent, allowing for oral administration with similar results to IV.

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Quinolone Activity Spectrum

Effective against many Gram-negative bacteria and some newer agents are effective against Gram-positive bacteria.

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Quinolone Bactericidal Activity

Means that they directly kill the bacteria.

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Nalidixic Acid

First quinolone antibiotic.

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Norfloxacin

A quinolone antibiotic primarily used for UTIs.

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Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A fluoroquinolone antibiotic.

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Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

A levofloxacin isomer.

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β-Lactam Cross-Reactivity

The chance of allergic reaction between different β-Lactam antibiotics.

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Cross-Reactivity & Severity

Cross-reactivity increases based on the allergic reaction. It can range from 10% in those with a rash to 40-50% in those with anaphylaxis.

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Aztreonam

An antibiotic with a different structure, often considered for patients with serious β-Lactam allergies.

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Antimicrobial Desensitization

A procedure to allow antibiotic administration in patients with severe allergic reactions.

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Type I Hypersensitivity

IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

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Desensitization Goal

The goal is to shift the body from a hyperactive allergic state to a tolerant one.

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Controlled Degranulation

Controlled release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells.

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Desensitization Eligibility

It must be a Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

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Initial Desensitization Dose

Starting dose is very small, like 1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of the full dose.

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Desensitization Process

The gradual increase of antibiotic concentration and infusion rate over time.

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Study Notes

  • Antibacterial Pharmacology is discussed in the presentation

Objectives of the presentation:

  • Discuss the mechanisms of action (MOA) for beta-lactam, quinolone, macrolide, and other common antimicrobials
  • Compare the activity spectrums of beta-lactam, quinolone, and macrolides
  • Discuss allergic reactions to antimicrobials, including desensitization
  • Review side effects, focusing on seizures and QT prolongation

Beta-Lactams

  • Penicillin, a beta-lactam, was first discovered over 75 years ago, specifically in 1929 by Flemming
  • Beta-Lactams are the largest antimicrobial class
    • Includes penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams
  • Beta-lactam general structure includes fused thiazolidine and beta-lactam rings, referred as "house and garage"

Beta-Lactam Structures

  • Includes penicillins, cephalosporin, clavulanate, and imipenem

Pharmacology of Beta-Lactams

  • Method of Action: Inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding to Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) at the active site, inhibiting transpeptidation (cross-linking)
  • Typically bactericidal, except against enterococcus, and when cells are not actively growing
  • Exhibits a faster kill rate compared to vancomycin for streptococcus
  • Efficacy is determined by the time spent above the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)
  • Excreted renally, with exceptions such as nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone, which requires monitoring of renal function
  • Exhibits poor oral absorption
  • Has a short half-life (t1/2) of under 2 hours, except for ceftriaxone
  • Demonstrates limited Central Nervous System (CNS) penetration, except for ceftriaxone and cefotaxime

Resistance to Beta-Lactams

  • Occurs through four general mechanisms:
    • Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic
    • Modification of the target PBP
    • Impaired penetration into the cell
    • Efflux pumps
  • Beta-lactamase production is the most common resistance mechanism
  • Over 100 beta-lactamases have been identified to date
  • Some beta-lactamases are specific to penicillin but not cephalosporins

Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors

  • Combines a beta-lactamase inhibitor to a beta-lactam antibiotic to prevent resistance
  • In case of enzymatic resistance, couple antimicrobial agent with a beta-lactamase inhibitor
  • Only overcomes resistance mediated by beta-lactamase
  • With overproduction of beta-lactamase, the inhibitor may have less activity
  • Examples of beta-lactamase inhibitors include: Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam, Tazobactam, and Avibactam

Penicillin Classifications

  • Natural penicillins have decent function against staph and strep, but causes resistance quickly
    • Examples include: Penicillin G, benzathine and VK*
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins
    • Examples include: Nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin*
  • Aminopenicillins, examples: Ampicillin*, amoxicillin*
  • Carboxypenicillins, examples: Ticarcillin
  • Ureidopenicillins, example: Piperacillin
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitor combos
    • Examples include: Amp/clav*, amp/sulb, ticar/clav, pip/tazo
      • *Oral formulation

Classification and Activity Spectrum of Penicillins

  • Penicillins are effective against Streptococci and T. pallidum
  • Antistaphylococcal penicillins are effective against MSSA and strep
  • Aminopenicillins cover Strep, enterococcus, Listeria, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and "wimpy" GNB
  • Carboxypenicillins are effective against most Gram-negative bacteria including PSAE, E. coli, Proteus sp., Enterobacter sp., and some Gram-positive bacteria
  • Ureidopenicillins are effective against enhanced GNB (PSAE), Serratia, streptocci, and some Gram-positive bacteria
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitors combat beta-lactamase producing stains of E.coli, Proteus sp., MSSA, H.flu, Neisseria, and Bacteroides sp.

Cephalosporins

  • Cephalosporins were introduced in the 1960s
  • Cephalosporins are categorized into "generations," which are loose classifications based on spectrum of activity
  • More resistant to beta-lactamases, resulting in a broader spectrum of activity
  • Inactive against most Extended-Spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBLs), enterococci, and Listeria
    • Cefepime has some stability against ESPLs

Cephalosporin general structure includes:

  • R1 acyl side chain
  • Beta-lactam ring
  • Dihydrothiazine ring
  • R2

First Generation Cephalosporins

  • Activity is narrow, mainly effective against Gram-positive cocci, mostly skin infections
  • Examples: S. aureus (MSSA), streptococci, E. coli, Klebsiella
  • Treats skin and skin-structure infections, surgical prophylaxis, UTI, and endocarditis
  • Includes drugs like Cefazolin (Ancef), cephalexin* (Keflex), and cefadroxil* (Duricef)
    • *Oral formulation

Second Generation Cephalosporins

  • Enhanced Gram-negative and anaerobic activity while maintaining some Gram-positive coverage
  • Effective against H. influenza (penicillin resistant), M. catarrhalis, Neisseria sp., and Bacteroides sp. (including B. fragilis)
  • Commonly used for colorectal, urogenital, and lower/upper respiratory tract infections (RTI)
  • Examples include Cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole, and cefuroxime (Ceftin*)
    • Cefoxitin can cover anaerobes below the waist
  • Treats Polymicrobial infections, such as Intra-abdominal and gynecologic infections
    • *Oral Formulation noted for Ceftin

Third Generation Cephalosporins

  • Enhanced activity against Gram-negative bacteria, less activity against Gram-positive and anaerobic bacteria

  • Variable activity against AMP-C hydrolysis, affecting Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter ("SPACE bugs")

  • Treats NGPR (now DOC), meningitis (PRP), Gram-negative sepsis/UTI/RTI (HAP), and SSTI

  • Ceftazidime is the only one with activity against PSAE ("Tasmanian Devil”)

  • Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime are used to treat Meningitis because they have good CNS penetration

  • Other third gen drugs:

    • Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
    • Cefdinir (Omnicef*)
    • Cefixime (Suprax*)
    • Cefotaxime (Claforan)
    • Primarily broad-spectrum Gram-(negative) O * Oral formulation

Fourth and Fifth Generation Cephalosporins

  • Good Gram-negative and Gram-positive activity
  • Effective against MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter
  • No activity against Stenotrophomonas and Burkholderia
  • Some stability against ESBL and Amp-C producers
  • Cefepime (Maxipime) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin
  • Ceftaroline (Teflaro) is a fifth-generation cephalosporin that is similar to cefepime but effective against MRSA

Carbapenems

  • Called "Bazooka" has wide coverage
  • Broadest spectrum, covering MSSA, strep, Enterobacteriaceae, Citrobacter sp., Enterobacter sp., Stenotrophomonas, and ESBL producers
  • Includes Imipenem (Primixim), meropenem (Merrem), ertapenem (Invanz), and doripenem (Doribax)
  • Imipenem and meropenem have similar spectrums (mero>PSAE and imi>enterococcus)
    • Ertapenem does NOT cover Pseudomonas aeruginosa (PSAE) or enterococcus
  • Considered as the drug of choice for ESBLs and inducible Amp-C producers
  • Used to treat polymicrobial infections, HAP (not dori/erta), and meningitis (mero), etc.

Monobactams

-  Broad spectrum Gram-negative ONLY
- Similar Gram-negative activity to ceftazidime
  • Reserved for penicillin allergic patients
    • Is structure is only the "garage” portion
  • Aztreonam (Azactam) an IV drug therapy

Allergic Reactions to Antimicrobials

  • Drug monitoring indicates 2.2% of cutaneous drug reactions are due to drugs like Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, or Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
  • Maculopapular rash is the most common reaction, occurring from day to weeks (secondary exposure)
  • Onset from initial exposure occurs in minutes to hours
  • Patients with HIV (20-80%) are more likely to have hypersensitivity to Bactrim
  • Cystic Fibrosis results in increased immune hyper-responsiveness with repeated exposure
  • Mononucleosis can also cause allergic reactions, due to unclear alteration in host immune response

Allergic Reactions to Beta-Lactams

  • Cross-reactivity may be overestimated due to inaccuracy of patient reporting or impurities from manufacturing
  • Cross-reactivity between different Beta-Lactams is between 1% and 10%
  • Cross-reactivity appears higher in individuals with more serious reactions
  • Cross reactivity increases with severity and antibody activity
  • Aztreonam missing reactive "house portion", therefore reserved for those w/ serious allergy
  • Meropenem safer than imipenem but caution is still advised as there are few documented cases

Antimicrobial Desensitization

  • Desensitization is a safe procedure which allows administration of antibiotics to patients with severe allergic reactions, such as hives or anaphylaxis
  • Works for Type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity reactions
  • Goal is to convert patients from a hyperactive state to a tolerant state
  • Desensitization involves controlled degranulation of mast cells
  • Typically start with abx dose generally 1/10,000 to 1/100,000 of full dose, abx concentration and rate of infusion are steadily increased over time
  • Slow degranulation reduces or eliminates inflammatory mediators
  • Desensitization is NOT permanent; hypersensitivity returns

Quinolones

  • All are derivatives of nalidixic acid and cinoxacin
  • Original compound fluorinated to improve activity
  • Method of Action: Topoisomerase (gram negative) and DNA gyrase (Gram positive) inhibition
  • High bioavailability
  • Active against Gram-negative (all) & Gram-positive (newer agents)
  • Considered cidal against susceptible bugs
  • List of Quinolones: - Nalidixic acid - First - Norfloxacin – UTI - Ofloxacin (Oflox) - Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) - Levofloxacin – L isomer (Levaquin) - Lomefloxacin – gone (P) - Clinafloxacin – gone (P) - Temafloxacin – gone (G) - Grepafloxacin – gone (C) - Sparfloxacin – gone (P/C) - Trovafloxacin (Trovan) – gone (H) - Moxifloxacin (Avelox) - Gatifloxacin (Tequin)- gone (G) - Gemifloxacin (Factive) -C = QT-prolong H = hepatotoxicity - G = Glucose abn P = Phototoxicity

Activity Spectrum for Quinolones

  • All cover Enterobacteriaceae, Neisseria sp., Moraxella sp., Haemophilus sp. Good Gram Negative
    • MSSA, pneumococci covered by levofloxacin, moxi, gemiflox(S. pneumonia not Cipro)
    • Ciprofloxacin is better than Levofloxacin for Pseudomonas
    • Moxi and gemiflox do not cover Pseudomonas
    • Moxifloxacin is good for anaerobes
    • Effective against Atypicals with Cipro, levo, moxi, gemiflox

Quinolones – Precautions

  • Arthropathy/tendonopathy
    • juvenile animal studies (beagles)
    • Increase in renal failure/transplant, age>50, steroid use, M>F
      • Achilles' tendon most common (50% rupture)
    • Requires 1 to 2 months for rest and immobilization
    • Caution when using Steroids due to precipitate which can cause tendon rupture
  • QT – prolongation
  • Glucose homeostasis
  • CNS – HA, dizziness, altered mental status, seizure
  • Phototoxicity (<0.1% in available agents)
  • Administration w/ divalent cations (physically binds)
    • esp. Mg, Fe, Ca, Zn) - Requires dose separation - Tube feeds

Macrolides versus Ketolides

  • C11-C12 Carbamate:
    • Increase in potency, overcomes macrolide resistance
  • Methoxy group:
    • Increase in acid stability Keto Group:
  • Increase in acid stability, overcomes macrolide resistance

Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Erythromycin is the prototype member of this family Targeting activity against the 50S ribosome

  • Bacteriostatic

  • Metabolized in the liver, with only clarithromycin requiring renal adjustment

  • P450 drug interactions, except azithromycin - No CYP interactions with azithromycin

  • Erythromycin (initial macrolide) features acid labile, Gl intolerance, narrow spectrum of activity

    • Low dose use as prokinetic agent
      • Clarithromycin, azithromycin and telithromycin are synthetic derivatives
    • Acid stable, greater half-life (esp. azithromycin) penetrates well into most tissues (esp. pulmonary) dump-truck theory" of distribution
  • Higher Gram positive activity: Telith > clarith > eryth > azith

  • Examples: MSSA, S.pneumonia (PSSP), S.pyogenes, viridans streptocci

  • Higher Gram Negative activity: Azith>clarith>eryth>telith - E- Examples: M. catarrhalis, H.influenza, Neisseria sp. Is No Activity against Enterobacteriaceae (gut bugs)

    • Atypicals: All have excellent activity
  • Others: Mycobacterium avuim, T. pallidum, Borellia, Bordetella

Macrolides - Monitoring Parameters

Drug interactions – All except azithro

  • GI intolerance – Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Ototoxicity – Rare, but seen with high dose erythro
  • QT prolongation (erythr > clarith > telith > azith)
  • Hepatic (telithro) – Seen 1-2 weeks - Increase of transaminases, eosinophilia (75%)

QT Prolongation

Seen with macrolides, quinolones, azole antifungals, pentamidine

  • Most of information from post-marketing studies

  • Defining a QTC change difficult since some patients are more susceptible to the effects

  • Analysis of patients experiencing QT-prolongation revealed multiple risk factors

  • Of the 69 cases of TdP, pts had on average at least 2 risk factors including: - Female sex (64.5%) - Heart diseas (52.6%) - Hypokalemia (30.6%) - Drug interactions / excess drug dose

  • FDA post-marketing reports showed that macrolides account for (77%) of Torsades de Pointes

  • Multifactorial including: -Concurrent administration of other QT prolonging agents -Electrolyte abnormalities - Advanced age -Cardiac disease -Organ dysfunction

Macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin) and

  • A moxifloxacin appear at highest risk for induction of arrhythmia
  • -Generally multifactorial -Watch for Dose adjustment (renal impairment, drug interactions, etc.) -Other QT agents present (class la/III antiarrhymics – i.e. sotalol, quinidine, dofetilide -Antimicrobials appear to play a combine role with other factors

Seizures

  • Epileptogenic effect of antibiotics based on alterations in GABA activity.

  • Antibiotics appear to antagonize GABAA

  • Seizure activity characterized by: Myoclonus, confusion, twitching, etc.

  • Proconvulsant antibiotics include: Penicillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, carbapenems, fluoroquinolones

  • Penicillin most extensively studies

  • Penicillin has greatest epileptogenic of other penicillins -Large inpatient study showed incidence ar ound 0.32%. Renal insufficiency and high doses were most underlying cause of seizures

  • Neonates (<7 months) appear to haveincreased risk of penicillin induced seizures

  • Patients treated for meningitis may have been predisposed seized

  • Frequently linked in human/animal neurotoxicity

  • Incidence higher than penicillins

  • Imipenem is best studied agent - incidence (0.2-6%)

  • Clinical trials comparing imipenem vs. meropenem yielded similar results

  • Newer carbapenems (doripenem) excluded pts w/ active seizure hx from trials 2 summary studies have listed the following risk factors for the development of risk factors include:

  • Age <7 months, >60 years

  • Renal insufficiency

  • Pre-existing CNS dx .- -Cardiopulmonary bypass Sepsis and endocarditis Administration ·site Treatment --centers on removing offending agent. -Judiciious dosing required for continued use

Old and New Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Antimicrobials

  • Multidrug-Resistant Gram Positives: MRSA, VRE, GISA, VISA
    • Vancomycin – oldie but a goodie
    • Linezolid – “Vitamin L”
    • Daptomycin – Should be resistant? -Tigecycline – Similar to minocycline, but much more sexy.
    • Dalbavancin – Weekly dosing
  • Multidrug-resistant Pseudo, Acinetobacter, ESBL's, carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella - Colistin? – Back of the hands of time! - Few new agents in trials or development for multidrug-resistant GNB. Extended spectrum cephalosporin in combination with B-lactamase inhibitor
    • Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
      • Ceftazidime/Avibactam

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