Contraception and Erectile Dysfunction

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Questions and Answers

What is the normal result for an RPR test used to screen for syphilis?

Reactive with low titer

Negative reaction (correct)

Positive reaction

Indeterminate reaction

Which of the following treatments is appropriate for bacterial infections such as chlamydia?

Acyclovir

Azithromycin (correct)

Metronidazole

Permethrin

What is the normal sperm count value identified in a semen analysis?

≥20 million/mL

1 million/mL

≥15 million/mL (correct)

≥10 million/mL

In evaluating female fertility, which test is used to assess uterine and fallopian tube patency?

Hysterosalpingography (HSG) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal endometrial thickness range detected via transvaginal ultrasound?

7-14 mm (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following contraception methods is considered permanent?

Tubal ligation (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect associated with hormonal contraceptive methods?

Thromboembolism (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT a vascular cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?

Diabetes (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of PDE5 inhibitors in the management of erectile dysfunction?

Enhance blood flow to the penis (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following STIs is caused by a virus?

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to detect Chlamydia and Gonorrhea?

PCR tests (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is a non-pharmacologic treatment option for erectile dysfunction?

Counseling (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a fungal infection that may not always be sexually transmitted?

Candidiasis (D) Signup and view all the answers

A patient is instructed to perform a self-breast exam. Which action indicates correct positioning for the exam?

Lying down with arms raised above the head. (A) Signup and view all the answers

A 50-year-old woman with a life expectancy of 15 years is scheduled for her annual breast cancer screening. Which imaging modality is most appropriate?

Annual mammography (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered the only definitive way to diagnose breast cancer?

Biopsy (A) Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with uterine fibroids reports heavy menstrual bleeding and painful intercourse. Which of the following fibroid types would be most likely to cause these symptoms?

Submucosal fibroids. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports using 6-7 soaked pads per day during menstruation. This is an important assessment finding when further evaluating what condition?

Uterine fibroids (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with vaginal bleeding, and a transvaginal ultrasound. Which additional lab test would be most essential in assessing the patient's condition?

Hemoglobin and Hematocrit (H&H) (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Stage III endometrial cancer. Considering the staging classifications, which of the following best describes disease progression?

The cancer has spread to the vagina or lymph nodes. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A patient who underwent a mastectomy is being educated on post-op care. Which of the following would be the most important for the nurse to emphasize?

Lymphedema management techniques. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed terazosin. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Endometrial Cancer is scheduled for brachytherapy. Which nursing intervention is crucial during this treatment?

Ensure the patient remains immobile with the implant in place. (A) Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. Which diagnostic test is MOST likely to confirm a diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Culture and sensitivity of vaginal discharge (B) Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing treatment for Cervical Cancer asks about the purpose of a colposcopy. What is the BEST explanation for this procedure?

To visualize the cervix and take biopsies for microscopic examination. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of BPH is prescribed finasteride. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?

Lowered libido and erectile dysfunction. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of both Endometrial Cancer and Cervical Cancer?

Painless vaginal bleeding (A) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Prostate Cancer is screened using a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test. What is the rationale for drawing a blood sample BEFORE and AFTER a digital rectal examination (DRE)?

To identify potential inflammation of the prostate (prostatitis) that can elevate PSA levels. (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common procedure to cure prostate cancer?

Prostatectomy (A) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Testicular Cancer is considering sperm banking. What is the rationale for this procedure?

To preserve fertility after cancer treatment. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Erectile Dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What is the MOST IMPORTANT patient teaching point regarding this medication?

Sildenafil should be taken 15 to 60 minutes before sexual activity. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has undergone TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) has pinkish drainage from the catheter. How should the nurse respond?

Document the finding as normal; pinkish drainage is expected after TURP. (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a risk factor for developing Prostate Cancer?

High intake of calcium-rich foods. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

Frequent urination at night (nocturia) (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) is being admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is the PRIORITY nursing intervention?

Remove the source of infection, such as tampons or diaphragms. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is in significant pain. Which nursing intervention is MOST helpful to manage this symptom?

Encourage the patient to remain in a semi-Fowler's position. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Cervical Cancer is undergoing treatment with a LEEP procedure. What is the rationale for this treatment?

To remove abnormal cells from the cervix and prevent further progression. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Following brachytherapy treatment, which of these findings should the client be instructed to report immediately to their physician?

Abdominal pain, visible blood in the urine, or heavy vaginal bleeding (A) Signup and view all the answers

A client is being educated about proper care for vulvovaginitis. Which of the following practices should the nurse emphasize as being incorrect?

Taking long, hot baths to relieve itching (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client who underwent cryotherapy is given discharge instructions. Which activity should the nurse emphasize the client needs to avoid?

Using tampons and douching (A) Signup and view all the answers

A 50 year old African American male is being screened for prostate cancer. What is the most important factor in recommending this screening?

His race (B) Signup and view all the answers

A client is being treated with a PDE-5 inhibitor for erectile dysfunction. What is an important precaution regarding positioning that the nurse should teach the client?

To sit or stand carefully due to possible orthostatic hypotension (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which position should a client be encouraged to rest in to help manage infection and pain related to PID?

Semi-Fowler's position (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant screening recommendation for women with new partners?

They should be screened for chlamydia regardless of age (A) Signup and view all the answers

What immediate action should be taken if stool is noted coming from the vagina after a vaginoplasty?

Seek emergency room evaluation (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common supplement used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

Saw palmetto (D) Signup and view all the answers

What should be taught to a client regarding testosterone therapy?

Cessation of menstruation is anticipated (A) Signup and view all the answers

How often should a transdermal estrogen patch be applied?

Daily (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of referring a client to a sperm bank facility before surgery for testicular cancer?

To preserve fertility (D) Signup and view all the answers

What should be assessed in a client who has undergone a total hysterectomy and presents with two saturated perineal pads in two hours?

Risk of excessive bleeding (B) Signup and view all the answers

What should clients be educated about regarding HPV testing?

It is important to include with a Pap smear (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is one recommended method of STI prevention?

Mutual monogamy (B) Signup and view all the answers

What should be prioritized in assessment following a post-hysteroscopic surgery if a client exhibits tachycardia and crackles in lung bases?

Call the rapid response team (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consideration when addressing psychosocial needs for a client with STIs?

Promoting open expression of fears and anxieties (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is crucial to educate a client regarding the potential risks associated with obtaining hormones online?

It may lead to unmonitored health risks (C) Signup and view all the answers

What indicates a new infection of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)?

Presence of IgM antibodies (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom associated with gonorrhea in females?

Dysuria (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a chancre sore?

Primary stage (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended interval for follow-up after benzathine penicillin G injection for treating syphilis?

6, 12, and 24 months (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is effective for Condyloma Acuminata (genital warts)?

Cryotherapy (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Chlamydia infection (D) Signup and view all the answers

What should an individual with acute kidney injury prioritize in their treatment?

Hydration (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is associated with an increased risk of infection leading to urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Catheters (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is NOT typically associated with nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)?

Fluid overload (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common treatment approach for renal cell carcinoma?

Nephrectomy (A) Signup and view all the answers

What long-term symptom might someone with chronic glomerulonephritis experience?

Mild proteinuria (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of urge incontinence?

Uncontrollable urge to urinate (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a recommended nursing intervention for managing polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

Pain management (C) Signup and view all the answers

What does an elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) indicate?

Inflammation in the body (B) Signup and view all the answers

A client undergoing brachytherapy should be instructed to report which of the following to their physician?

Abdominal pain, visible blood in the urine, and heavy vaginal bleeding. (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is an incorrect practice that should be avoided by a client with vulvovaginitis, according to the provided information?

Taking long, hot baths to relieve itching. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Following cryotherapy, a client should be instructed to avoid which of the following?

Using tampons, douching, or having sexual activity. (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical symptom of testicular cancer that requires prompt medical evaluation?

Painless testicular lump. (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which exercises are beneficial for clients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?

Kegel exercises. (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most important action to take when caring for a client with tachycardia, tachypnea, and crackles in the lung bases after a hysteroscopic surgery?

Assess immediately and call the rapid response team. (D) Signup and view all the answers

For a 50-year-old African-American male, what type of screening should be recommended?

Prostate cancer screening. (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct way to refer to a client who identifies as transgender?

Refer to them as a transgender individual and ask how they would like to be addressed. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is an important teaching point regarding estrogen therapy?

Transdermal patches are applied daily and changed every 3 days. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A transmasculine client asks a nurse about typical effects of testosterone therapy. Which of the following is a correct response?

Increased muscle mass, deepening voice, changes in fat distribution, and cessation of menstruation. (A) Signup and view all the answers

A client is being educated about a vaginoplasty. What qualification must they meet?

Must live continually in their desired gender identity for 12 months. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a client experiencing burgundy-colored urine while undergoing continuous bladder irrigation after a TURP?

Administer antispasmodic drugs and monitor for anemia. (A) Signup and view all the answers

After a total hysterectomy, a nurse assesses a client who has two fully saturated perineal pads within two hours. What is the priority nursing action?

Prioritize assessment of the client due to potential excessive bleeding. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A client who is transitioning from female to male asks about surgical options. Which of the following procedures, are options for that client?

Vaginectomy, metoidioplasty, and scrotoplasty. (B) Signup and view all the answers

What information should be included in client education about external beam radiation therapy (EBRT)?

Skin care, sun exposure precautions, and potential radiation-induced damage to the perineal area. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A client with a history of hypertension and a BMI of 32 is considering estrogen therapy. What is the nurse's priority action in this situation?

Identify risk factors in the client's history related to estrogen therapy. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A client who has undergone a total hysterectomy is reporting vaginal bleeding. Two perineal pads have become saturated within 2 hours. What requires immediate action?

Prioritize assessment of the client to rule out excessive bleeding. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client with a painless testicular lump seeks medical attention. What is the nurse's primary action?

Prioritize care for the client as this symptom warrants prompt medical evaluation. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A client with a new diagnosis of uterine leiomyomas is experiencing significant discomfort. What is the most appropriate action?

Teach non-pharmacologic comfort measures and assess for iron deficiency anemia. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client undergoing brachytherapy for cervical cancer is concerned about the potential for radioactivity. What is the most helpful response?

Explain the procedure and reassure the client that they won't be radioactive after treatment. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client is seeking breast augmentation surgery. Which statement indicates a need for further education?

I understand that fat injections can replace breast implants for augmentation. (B) Signup and view all the answers

A client reports visible blood in the urine after brachytherapy. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Prioritize care for the client as this symptom warrants prompt medical evaluation. (A) Signup and view all the answers

A client diagnosed with ovarian cancer is concerned about her potential for future pregnancies. What is an appropriate response?

Educate that ovarian cancer is not primarily a disease affecting young women. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone TURP. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Administer antispasmodic medications and assist with early mobilization. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A client with vulvovaginitis is experiencing intense itching. Which incorrect practice requires intervention?

Taking long, hot baths to relieve itching. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client with a history of smoking and multiple births is seeking cervical cancer screening. Which action is most appropriate?

Assess the client's risk factors for cervical cancer, such as smoking and multiple births. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A client is considering testosterone therapy. What information should the nurse provide during education?

Teach the client about anticipated physical changes, such as increased muscle mass. (A) Signup and view all the answers

A client is scheduled for a vaginoplasty. What is the most important eligibility criterion?

The client must be living continuously in their desired gender identity for 12 months. (C) Signup and view all the answers

A client diagnosed with erectile dysfunction is prescribed a PDE-5 inhibitor. What is the nurse's priority instruction?

Ensure the client understands precautions associated with PDE-5 inhibitors. (D) Signup and view all the answers

A client with a history of gender dysphoria is concerned about confidentiality. What is the nurse's best response?

Reassure the client about confidentiality and respect their preferred name and pronouns. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Contraception

Educate on various methods, including hormonal (oral, patches, vaginal rings, injections, implants), barrier (condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps, sponges), intrauterine devices (both hormonal and non-hormonal), and permanent methods (tubal ligation, vasectomy).
Discuss emergency contraception options (Plan B, Ella).
Emphasize pregnancy testing prior to starting contraceptives.
Highlight the importance of ongoing compliance with oral contraceptives and dual protection (condoms) for STI prevention.
Monitor for potential side effects like thromboembolism (hormonal methods).

Erectile Dysfunction (ED) and Medications

Understand the different causes of ED, including vascular (atherosclerosis, hypertension, peripheral artery disease), neurological (diabetes, spinal injuries, multiple sclerosis), psychological (stress, anxiety, depression), and medication side effects.
Diagnostic testing includes testosterone levels, Doppler ultrasound, nocturnal penile tumescence testing, and psychological assessment.
Treatments include pharmacologic options (PDE5 inhibitors like sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil), non-pharmacologic approaches (counseling, lifestyle changes), and surgical interventions (penile implants, vascular reconstruction).
Recognize symptoms like persistent inability to maintain an erection and reduced libido.

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

Bacterial STIs: Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis.
Viral STIs: HPV, HSV, HIV, hepatitis B/C.
Parasitic STIs: Trichomoniasis, pubic lice.
Fungal STIs: Candidiasis (not always sexually transmitted).

Infertility Causes and Care

Understand female infertility causes, including ovulatory dysfunction (e.g., PCOS), tubal factors, uterine abnormalities, and endometriosis.
Understand male infertility causes, including low sperm count, motility issues, testicular abnormalities, and varicocele.
Diagnostic testing for male infertility includes semen analysis (volume, count, motility, morphology), ovulation tracking, hysterosalpingography (HSG), transvaginal ultrasound.
Normal values for various tests are provided.

Breast Cancer

Differentiate invasive and non-invasive breast cancers (DCIS, LCIS, IDC, ILC, inflammatory breast cancer, triple-negative breast cancer, HER2-positive, hormone receptor-positive).
Discuss diagnostic methods like mammography, ultrasound, MRI, biopsy, tumor markers (e.g., HER2, ER/PR status), and genomic tests (e.g., Oncotype DX).
Outline treatment options, such as surgery (lumpectomy, mastectomy), radiation therapy, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, and targeted therapy.
Describe potential signs and symptoms, such as painless lumps, nipple discharge, skin dimpling, nipple inversion, and peau d'orange appearance.

Prostate Cancer

Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of prostate cancer, arising from glandular cells.
Discuss rare types of prostate cancer, such as small cell and transitional cell carcinoma.
Diagnostic testing focuses on prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, with different levels having different interpretations.
Describe the use of DRE, MRI, and biopsy.
Explain Gleason scoring to assess the aggressiveness of prostate cancer.
Discuss different treatment options based on disease stage.

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

Understand different types of symptoms associated with BPH (storage symptoms, voiding symptoms).
Discuss diagnostic tests, including uroflowmetry, post-void residual volume, and PSA (to rule out cancer).
Outline treatment options for BPH, including medications (alpha-blockers, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors), minimally invasive therapies (TUMT, TUNA), and surgical interventions (TURP, laser therapy).

Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)

Differentiate uncomplicated and complicated UTIs, including recurrent UTIs.
Discuss diagnostic testing, including urinalysis (pyuria, nitrites), urine culture, imaging studies.
Describe treatment options, including short-course antibiotics.

Renal and Urinary Conditions

Understand Pyelonephritis (bacterial infection of the kidneys), its symptoms (fever, flank pain, dysuria) and diagnostic and treatment methods.
Understand Glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the glomeruli), its symptoms (hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension) and diagnostic and treatment methods.
Understand Urolithiasis (formation of stones), its causes (calcium, struvite, uric acid, cystine), and diagnostic approaches.

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

ATN is a common cause of acute kidney injury (AKI).
Summarizes the causes of ATN, including ischemia (reduced blood flow to the kidneys) and nephrotoxins (direct injury to renal tubules).
Presents symptoms and diagnostic indicators for ATN — oliguria (reduced urine output), fluid overload, uremic symptoms, elevated serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and muddy-brown granular casts.
Outlines the phases of ATN (initiation, maintenance, recovery) and corresponding management approaches.

Other Renal Conditions

Understand nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema) and nephritic syndrome (hematuria, mild proteinuria, hypertension).
Understand Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD), its symptoms (hypertension, flank pain, hematuria), and diagnostic and treatment methodologies.
Explain the importance of urinalysis and renal lab tests, including the normal range values for protein, nitrites, casts, specific gravity.

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Description

This quiz focuses on contraception methods, including hormonal, barrier, and permanent options, as well as emergency contraception. It also covers erectile dysfunction causes, diagnostics, and treatments. Understand the importance of pregnancy testing and compliance in contraceptive use.