CVS Revision Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What defect is commonly associated with Bicuspid Aortic Valve (BAV) in young patients?

  • NOTCH 3 defect
  • NOTCH 1 defect (correct)
  • NOTCH 4 defect
  • NOTCH 2 defect
  • Rheumatic fever is a common etiology for aortic stenosis.

    False

    What are the clinical features of severe aortic stenosis?

    Angina, syncope, dyspnea

    The severity of aortic stenosis can be evaluated using the _____ rule.

    <p>40/4/1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal surface area of the aortic valve?

    <p>3 - 4 cm²</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of aortic stenosis with their characteristics:

    <p>Mild/Moderate AS = Asymptomatic Severe AS = Symptomatic Very Severe AS = LV failure (poor prognosis)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In aortic stenosis, concentric LV hypertrophy results in increased _____ and decreased cavity size.

    <p>LV mass</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mean transvalvular pressure gradient (MTPG) classification for severe aortic stenosis?

    <blockquote> <p>40 mmHg</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic sign of mitral stenosis?

    <p>Low pitched, mid diastolic murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An opening snap is present in patients with atrial fibrillation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name one medication used to control heart rate in patients with pulmonary edema.

    <p>Beta-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Mitral valve replacement is indicated as a first line treatment for __________.

    <p>calcific mitral stenosis with moderate/severe mitral regurgitation or left atrial clot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the conditions with their potential causes of mitral regurgitation:

    <p>1st degree MR = Rheumatic Heart Disease (MS + MR) 2nd degree MR = LV dysfunction and annular dilatation MVP = Common in developed countries Acute MR = Papillary muscle rupture due to inferior wall MI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging technique is used to diagnose mitral stenosis?

    <p>Transesophageal echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chronic mitral regurgitation always results from a primary cause.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hemodynamic change occurs with mitral regurgitation during hypertension?

    <p>Reduction in afterload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of tachycardia with a narrow QRS interval?

    <p>AVNRT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Digoxin toxicity can lead to abnormal enhanced automaticity.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical QRS duration in wide QRS tachycardia?

    <blockquote> <p>0.16 seconds</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

    The presence of three distinct P-wave morphologies is indicative of _____ tachycardia.

    <p>Multifocal atrial</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tachycardia is associated with long QT syndromes?

    <p>Triggered activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following type of tachycardia with its characteristics:

    <p>AVNRT = No P-waves or P wave after QRS complex Atrial fibrillation = Irregular R-R interval MAT = Three distinct P-wave morphologies Atrial flutter = Regular R-R interval with P waves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with LVOT obstruction?

    <p>Palpitations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Polymorphic VT is an example of a tachycardia with a slightly wide QRS interval.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Most patients with LVOT obstruction are asymptomatic.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name a tachyarrhythmia that originates from the ventricles.

    <p>Ischemic VT</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treating LVOT obstruction?

    <p>β-blocker</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The intensity of the ejection systolic murmur is directly proportional to the __________ of LVOT obstruction.

    <p>magnitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the murmurs with their locations:

    <p>Ejection systolic murmur = Lower left sternal border Pansystolic murmur = Apex S3 = Normal S4 = ±</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which maneuver would increase the intensity of the murmur in HCM?

    <p>Standing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action results in a decreased post-VPC pulse volume in cases of HCM?

    <p>Brockenbrough sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Amyl nitrate and isoproterenol are used to decrease afterload in LVOT obstruction.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of right heart failure?

    <p>Dyspnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Genetic mutations such as titin and Myh7 are associated with diastolic failure.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name one risk factor for peripartum cardiomyopathy.

    <p>Increased age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The most common mutation associated with genetic etiology in heart failure is the truncated variant of ______.

    <p>titin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following conditions with their corresponding effects:

    <p>Dyspnea = Increased LVEDP and PCWP Ascites = Right heart failure Hepatomegaly = Right heart failure symptom Hypotension = New onset heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following investigations is considered the gold standard for assessing ejection fraction?

    <p>Cardiac MRI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Alcohol-induced heart failure is associated with a good prognosis.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of focal atrial tachycardia?

    <p>Abnormal P-wave</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the triad of findings on ECG for heart failure?

    <p>Low voltage in limb leads, high voltage in chest leads, poor R-wave progression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Atrial fibrillation cannot be reverted back to normal if it is permanent.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first-line medication for managing AVNRT?

    <p>Adenosine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Atrial fibrillation features an irregular ______ interval.

    <p>R-R</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the atrial fibrillation types with their characteristics:

    <p>Paroxysmal = Reverts spontaneously or with drugs Persistent = Lasts longer than 7 days Permanent = Cannot be reverted back to normal Long-standing persistent = Continuous for longer than a year</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following agents are used for rate lowering in atrial tachycardia?

    <p>Verapamil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    List one risk factor for atrial fibrillation.

    <p>Age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Thromboembolism is a complication associated with atrial fibrillation.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Contents

    • CVS Revision - 1: page 1
    • CVS Revision - 2: page 9
    • CVS Revision - 3: page 13
    • CVS Revision - 4: page 18
    • CVS Revision - 5: page 22
    • RS Revision - 1: page 28
    • RS Revision - 2: page 38
    • RS Revision - 3: page 49
    • Rheumatology Revision - 1: page 57
    • Rheumatology Revision - 2: page 66
    • Rheumatology Revision - 3: page 76
    • Rheumatology Revision - 4: page 80
    • Haematology Revision - 1: page 89
    • Haematology Revision - 2: page 95
    • Haematology Revision - 3: page 102
    • Haematology Revision - 4: page 110
    • Endocrinology Revision - 1: page 118
    • Endocrinology Revision - 2: page 127
    • Endocrinology Revision - 3: page 134
    • Endocrinology Revision - 4: page 145
    • CNS Revision - 1: page 157
    • CNS Revision - 2: page 161
    • CNS Revision - 3: page 165
    • CNS Revision - 4: page 170
    • CNS Revision - 5: page 176
    • Nephrology Revision - 1: page 181
    • Nephrology Revision - 2: page 186
    • GIT Revision: page 191
    • Hepatology Revision: page 198

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    Description

    Test your knowledge across various medical fields including Cardiology, Rheumatology, Hematology, Endocrinology, and more. This quiz covers multiple revisions to help solidify your understanding of key concepts and practices in medicine. Ideal for students preparing for exams and professionals seeking a refresher.

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