CVS Revision Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What defect is commonly associated with Bicuspid Aortic Valve (BAV) in young patients?

  • NOTCH 3 defect
  • NOTCH 1 defect (correct)
  • NOTCH 4 defect
  • NOTCH 2 defect

Rheumatic fever is a common etiology for aortic stenosis.

False (B)

What are the clinical features of severe aortic stenosis?

Angina, syncope, dyspnea

The severity of aortic stenosis can be evaluated using the _____ rule.

<p>40/4/1</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal surface area of the aortic valve?

<p>3 - 4 cm² (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of aortic stenosis with their characteristics:

<p>Mild/Moderate AS = Asymptomatic Severe AS = Symptomatic Very Severe AS = LV failure (poor prognosis)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In aortic stenosis, concentric LV hypertrophy results in increased _____ and decreased cavity size.

<p>LV mass</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mean transvalvular pressure gradient (MTPG) classification for severe aortic stenosis?

<blockquote> <p>40 mmHg</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic sign of mitral stenosis?

<p>Low pitched, mid diastolic murmur (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An opening snap is present in patients with atrial fibrillation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one medication used to control heart rate in patients with pulmonary edema.

<p>Beta-blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mitral valve replacement is indicated as a first line treatment for __________.

<p>calcific mitral stenosis with moderate/severe mitral regurgitation or left atrial clot</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the conditions with their potential causes of mitral regurgitation:

<p>1st degree MR = Rheumatic Heart Disease (MS + MR) 2nd degree MR = LV dysfunction and annular dilatation MVP = Common in developed countries Acute MR = Papillary muscle rupture due to inferior wall MI</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging technique is used to diagnose mitral stenosis?

<p>Transesophageal echocardiogram (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chronic mitral regurgitation always results from a primary cause.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hemodynamic change occurs with mitral regurgitation during hypertension?

<p>Reduction in afterload</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of tachycardia with a narrow QRS interval?

<p>AVNRT (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Digoxin toxicity can lead to abnormal enhanced automaticity.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical QRS duration in wide QRS tachycardia?

<blockquote> <p>0.16 seconds</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of three distinct P-wave morphologies is indicative of _____ tachycardia.

<p>Multifocal atrial</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tachycardia is associated with long QT syndromes?

<p>Triggered activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following type of tachycardia with its characteristics:

<p>AVNRT = No P-waves or P wave after QRS complex Atrial fibrillation = Irregular R-R interval MAT = Three distinct P-wave morphologies Atrial flutter = Regular R-R interval with P waves</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with LVOT obstruction?

<p>Palpitations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Polymorphic VT is an example of a tachycardia with a slightly wide QRS interval.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Most patients with LVOT obstruction are asymptomatic.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name a tachyarrhythmia that originates from the ventricles.

<p>Ischemic VT</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for treating LVOT obstruction?

<p>β-blocker</p> Signup and view all the answers

The intensity of the ejection systolic murmur is directly proportional to the __________ of LVOT obstruction.

<p>magnitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the murmurs with their locations:

<p>Ejection systolic murmur = Lower left sternal border Pansystolic murmur = Apex S3 = Normal S4 = ±</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which maneuver would increase the intensity of the murmur in HCM?

<p>Standing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action results in a decreased post-VPC pulse volume in cases of HCM?

<p>Brockenbrough sign</p> Signup and view all the answers

Amyl nitrate and isoproterenol are used to decrease afterload in LVOT obstruction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of right heart failure?

<p>Dyspnea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Genetic mutations such as titin and Myh7 are associated with diastolic failure.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one risk factor for peripartum cardiomyopathy.

<p>Increased age</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most common mutation associated with genetic etiology in heart failure is the truncated variant of ______.

<p>titin</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following conditions with their corresponding effects:

<p>Dyspnea = Increased LVEDP and PCWP Ascites = Right heart failure Hepatomegaly = Right heart failure symptom Hypotension = New onset heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following investigations is considered the gold standard for assessing ejection fraction?

<p>Cardiac MRI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Alcohol-induced heart failure is associated with a good prognosis.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of focal atrial tachycardia?

<p>Abnormal P-wave (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the triad of findings on ECG for heart failure?

<p>Low voltage in limb leads, high voltage in chest leads, poor R-wave progression</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atrial fibrillation cannot be reverted back to normal if it is permanent.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first-line medication for managing AVNRT?

<p>Adenosine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atrial fibrillation features an irregular ______ interval.

<p>R-R</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the atrial fibrillation types with their characteristics:

<p>Paroxysmal = Reverts spontaneously or with drugs Persistent = Lasts longer than 7 days Permanent = Cannot be reverted back to normal Long-standing persistent = Continuous for longer than a year</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following agents are used for rate lowering in atrial tachycardia?

<p>Verapamil (A), Digoxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

List one risk factor for atrial fibrillation.

<p>Age</p> Signup and view all the answers

Thromboembolism is a complication associated with atrial fibrillation.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is the role of inflammation in causing Aortic Stenosis (AS)?

Aortic valve stenosis (AS) due to inflammation is uncommon. It is typically seen in young patients and caused by bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), which is a congenital condition resulting in a valve with two cusps instead of the typical three. BAV is often associated with heart failure, and patients may need surgery to replace the valve.

How does Aortic Stenosis (AS) develop in older adults?

Aortic valve stenosis (AS) in elderly patients is usually caused by degeneration and calcification of the valve. This process occurs due to aging and the hardening of arteries (atherosclerosis).

What is Aortic Stenosis (AS)?

Aortic valve stenosis (AS) is a condition where the aortic valve doesn't fully open, resulting in a narrowing of the opening. This narrowing creates a higher pressure gradient between the left ventricle (LV) and the aorta, hindering blood flow.

How is the severity of Aortic Stenosis (AS) diagnosed?

Aortic valve stenosis (AS) is often diagnosed by recognizing a specific set of criteria. These include a mean transvalvular pressure gradient (MTPG) of greater than 40 mmHg, a peak flow velocity across the valve exceeding 4 m/s, and a valve surface area of less than 1 cm2. Remember, normal valve surface area is 3-4 cm2.

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How does the heart adapt to Aortic Stenosis (AS)?

The heart compensates for the reduced blood flow caused by aortic stenosis (AS) by thickening the left ventricle muscle (concentric LV hypertrophy). This adaptation helps maintain cardiac output, but it can also lead to heart failure if the AS worsens.

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What are the clinical features and prognosis of Aortic Stenosis (AS)?

Aortic stenosis (AS) can lead to various symptoms such as angina, syncope (fainting), and dyspnea (shortness of breath). The prognosis for untreated AS worsens over time, with a 5-year survival rate after the onset of angina, a 3-year survival rate after syncope, and a 2-year survival rate after dyspnea.

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Mitral Stenosis Murmur

A heart murmur in which the sound is low-pitched, heard best in the mid-diastolic phase, and is characterized by an opening snap (OS) that follows a short gap after the second heart sound (S2).

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Pulmonary Hypertension

A condition characterized by increased pulmonary artery pressure, leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and eventual right ventricular failure. Often associated with a mitral stenosis murmur.

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Atrial Fibrillation

An abnormal heart rhythm characterized by irregular and rapid atrial contractions. In mitral stenosis, the murmur may be absent or less prominent due to the lack of a regular atrial contraction.

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Mitral Stenosis (MS)

A process where the mitral valve leaflets become thickened and less pliable, leading to a narrowed valve opening and obstruction of blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.

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Mitral Regurgitation (MR)

A condition where the mitral valve does not close properly, leading to a backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole. It can be caused by various factors like rheumatic heart disease or mitral valve prolapse.

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Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)

A condition where the mitral valve leaflets bulge into the left atrium during ventricular systole. Can lead to mitral regurgitation (MR). Often found in developed countries.

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Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)

A heart condition caused by damage to the heart valves, often following a strep throat infection. Can lead to both mitral stenosis (MS) and mitral regurgitation (MR).

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Acute Mitral Regurgitation (MR)

A condition where the mitral valve leaflets experience a rupture, often due to inferior wall myocardial infarction (heart attack) involving the right coronary artery. This leads to a sudden and severe mitral regurgitation (MR).

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What is diastolic heart failure?

Diastolic heart failure is characterized by difficulty breathing due to increased pressure within the left ventricle and pulmonary circulation.

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What are the signs of right heart failure?

Right-sided heart failure presents with symptoms like swelling in the legs and abdomen, a swollen neck vein, and an enlarged liver.

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What is the most common genetic cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A truncated variant titin mutation is the most common genetic cause for dilated cardiomyopathy, affecting the protein responsible for heart muscle elasticity.

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What is the prognosis for peripartum cardiomyopathy?

Peripartum cardiomyopathy, often affecting women during or after pregnancy, usually has a good prognosis.

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How do anti-angiogenic factors affect peripartum cardiomyopathy?

Anti-angiogenic factors, like SFLT1, can contribute to peripartum cardiomyopathy by disrupting blood vessel formation.

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What is the difference in outcome between alcohol-induced and drug-induced cardiomyopathy?

Alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy has a good prognosis if the patient abstains from alcohol consumption; however, drug-induced cardiomyopathy caused by anthracyclines has a poorer prognosis.

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What is an example of an autoimmune cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?

Dilated cardiomyopathy can be triggered by autoimmune disorders like sarcoidosis.

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What is acute post-inflammatory dilated cardiomyopathy?

Dilated cardiomyopathy can result from an acute post-inflammatory process, often linked to viral infections like HHV6 or Chagas disease.

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What are the clinical manifestations of LVOT obstruction?

LVOT obstruction is frequently asymptomatic, but when it does occur, it can manifest as angina (chest pain), syncope (fainting), and dyspnea (shortness of breath). These symptoms are due to the increased workload on the heart caused by the narrowed LV outflow tract.

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How does preload affect LVOT obstruction?

LVOT obstruction is increased by factors that augment preload or afterload. For example, an increased preload can be caused by a high volume of blood returning to the heart, such as after a large meal.

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How does afterload affect LVOT obstruction?

LVOT obstruction is increased by factors that increase afterload. These can include factors like hypertension (high blood pressure) or conditions that make the heart muscle contract more forcefully.

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How do maneuvers like standing and the Valsalva maneuver affect LVOT obstruction?

LVOT obstruction is decreased by factors that reduce preload and afterload. These can include maneuvers such as standing up (shifting blood to the lower extremities) or the Valsalva maneuver (holding breath and bearing down).

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What is the Brockenbrough sign?

The Brockenbrough sign is a physical exam finding in HCM that indicates LVOT obstruction. This sign is characterized by a decrease in pulse volume after a premature ventricular contraction (PVC).

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Why does the Brockenbrough sign occur in HCM?

The Brockenbrough sign is a physical exam finding in HCM. This sign is characterized by a decrease in pulse volume after a premature ventricular contraction (PVC). This occurs because the ventricle is left with a reduced amount of blood to pump following a PVC.

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What is the first-line treatment for LVOT obstruction?

Beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are the first-line treatment for LVOT obstruction because they slow the heart rate, reduce contractility, and increase preload. This reduces LVOT obstruction.

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What are the alternative treatments for LVOT obstruction if beta-blockers are contraindicated?

When beta-blockers are contraindicated (not appropriate), the alternative medications used to treat LVOT obstruction include verapamil or diltiazem. These drugs also belong to the calcium channel blocker family.

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What is abnormal enhanced automaticity?

Abnormal automaticity occurs when heart cells spontaneously fire faster than normal. It can be caused by factors like focal areas of the heart, certain medications, or conditions like ischemia.

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What's triggered activity in tachyarrhythmias?

Triggered activity involves heart cells being stimulated by abnormal electrical impulses. This is often seen in conditions like Long QT syndrome or when the heart is exposed to high levels of stress hormones.

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What is the re-entry mechanism in tachyarrhythmias?

Re-entry occurs when an electrical impulse travels in a circle within the heart. This can lead to rapid and sustained heartbeats. Common examples include AVNRT, atrial fibrillation, and scar-related ventricular tachycardia.

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What is narrow QRS complex tachycardia?

Narrow QRS complex tachycardia refers to a fast heart beat where the electrical signal in the heart is originating from the upper chambers (atria) or the junction of the atria and ventricles.

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What does a slightly wide QRS complex suggest in tachycardia?

Slightly wide QRS complex tachycardia signals suggest the issue originates in the part of the heart that connects the upper and lower chambers (bundle of His).

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What does a wide QRS complex indicate in tachycardia?

Wide QRS complex tachycardia indicates the abnormal electrical signals are originating from the lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart.

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What causes narrow QRS tachycardia with a regular rhythm?

Narrow QRS tachycardia with a regular rhythm is often due to a consistent repetition of a single abnormal electrical loop in the heart (AVNRT). It can also be caused by rapid heartbeats in the upper chambers (atrial fibrillation).

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What causes narrow QRS tachycardia with an irregular rhythm?

Narrow QRS tachycardia with an irregular rhythm is most likely due to the upper chambers (atria) beating chaotically (atrial fibrillation) or with multiple independent triggers (multifocal atrial tachycardia).

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What is focal atrial tachycardia?

A type of atrial tachycardia characterized by a long RP interval (time between the P wave and the R wave) and a short PR interval (time between the P wave and the Q wave). The P wave is abnormal.

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How is AVNRT managed?

Adenosine is the first-line treatment for AVNRT (atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia). Verapamil and metoprolol are used if adenosine fails. Synchronized DC cardioversion is the last resort.

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How is Atrial Tachycardia managed?

Rate-lowering agents are used to manage atrial tachycardia. Verapamil and beta-blockers are commonly used.

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What is MAT and how is it managed?

Multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) is often associated with COPD and patients may be on theophylline. Verapamil and beta-blockers are the treatment options.

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What are the indications for unsynchronized cardioversion?

Unsynchronized cardioversion is used in life-threatening arrhythmias like pulseless VT, ventricular fibrillation, and polymorphic VT.

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What are the features of atrial fibrillation?

Atrial fibrillation is an irregular heart rhythm characterized by no identifiable P-wave, an irregular R-R interval, and a potential for spontaneous reversion or the need for medication or permanent management.

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What are the types of atrial fibrillation?

Atrial fibrillation can be categorized as Paroxysmal (lasting less than 7 days and resolving spontaneously or with drugs), Persistent (lasting longer than 7 days), or Permanent (not reversible).

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What are the complications and risk factors of atrial fibrillation?

The main complications of atrial fibrillation are thromboembolism and stroke. Risk factors include age, hypertension, structural heart/lung diseases, obstructive sleep apnea, thyroid disorders, psoriasis, mitral stenosis, and prosthetic valves.

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Study Notes

Contents

  • CVS Revision - 1: page 1
  • CVS Revision - 2: page 9
  • CVS Revision - 3: page 13
  • CVS Revision - 4: page 18
  • CVS Revision - 5: page 22
  • RS Revision - 1: page 28
  • RS Revision - 2: page 38
  • RS Revision - 3: page 49
  • Rheumatology Revision - 1: page 57
  • Rheumatology Revision - 2: page 66
  • Rheumatology Revision - 3: page 76
  • Rheumatology Revision - 4: page 80
  • Haematology Revision - 1: page 89
  • Haematology Revision - 2: page 95
  • Haematology Revision - 3: page 102
  • Haematology Revision - 4: page 110
  • Endocrinology Revision - 1: page 118
  • Endocrinology Revision - 2: page 127
  • Endocrinology Revision - 3: page 134
  • Endocrinology Revision - 4: page 145
  • CNS Revision - 1: page 157
  • CNS Revision - 2: page 161
  • CNS Revision - 3: page 165
  • CNS Revision - 4: page 170
  • CNS Revision - 5: page 176
  • Nephrology Revision - 1: page 181
  • Nephrology Revision - 2: page 186
  • GIT Revision: page 191
  • Hepatology Revision: page 198

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