Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) when taken in small doses continuously?

  • To reduce platelet adhesion (correct)
  • To relieve pain
  • To increase blood clotting
  • To reduce blood pressure

    • Which of the following is a likely consequence of a partial obstruction in a coronary artery?

  • Angina attacks (correct)
  • Hypertension
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Pulmonary embolus

    • Why does cigarette smoking increase the risk of coronary artery disease?

  • It decreases serum lipid levels
  • It promotes platelet adhesion (correct)
  • It increases serum HDL levels
  • It reduces vasoconstriction

    • What is specifically referred to as arteriosclerosis?

    <p>Loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors is modifiable and contributes to an increased risk for atherosclerosis?

    <p>Leading a sedentary lifestyle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An atheroma primarily develops from which of the following?

    <p>Accumulated lipids and endothelial injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in the body?

    <p>They promote atheroma development</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT precipitate an angina attack?

    <p>Taking a nap</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason ventricular fibrillation leads to cardiac arrest?

    <p>Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes cardiac arrest?

    <p>The cessation of all cardiac function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What change is expected in a patient with total heart block?

    <p>Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions that are not coordinated with atrial contraction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication of excess fluid in the pericardial cavity?

    <p>Decreased ventricular filling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by a premature ventricular contraction?

    <p>Additional contractions arising from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following options encompass all possible causes of pericarditis?

    <p>Infection, abnormal immune responses, injury, and malignant neoplasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Uncontrolled essential hypertension.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vessel is least likely to be the source of an embolus causing obstruction in the brain?

    <p>Femoral vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is congestive heart failure defined?

    <p>Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet metabolic needs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathophysiological change linked to essential hypertension?

    <p>Loss of arterial elasticity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptoms are significant indicators of right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea characterized by?

    <p>Sudden shortness of breath during sleep.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Uncontrolled hypertension primarily affects which organs or systems leading to ischemia?

    <p>Kidneys, brain, and retinas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A diagnosis of essential hypertension in young individuals is likely when blood pressure consistently exceeds:

    <p>140/90</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is most likely to be indicated by atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries?

    <p>Gangrenous ulcers in the legs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'intermittent claudication' primarily describe?

    <p>Ischemic muscle pain during exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological response indicates compensation for shock?

    <p>Increased heart rate and oliguria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of severe hypoxia in anaphylactic shock?

    <p>Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario describes neurogenic shock?

    <p>Vasodilation leading to reduced venous return</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which consequence is likely following a prolonged period of shock?

    <p>Increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory result indicates decompensated acidosis related to shock?

    <p>Serum pH below normal range</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What biochemical change is caused by anaerobic metabolism during shock?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main cause of shock in patients with severe burns?

    <p>Loss of plasma and pain response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes an early manifestation of left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly associated with congestive heart failure?

    <p>Shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications?

    <p>Orthostatic hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered the cause of essential hypertension?

    <p>Idiopathic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition would a cardiac pacemaker most likely be indicated?

    <p>Heart block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which arrhythmia is considered the most dangerous?

    <p>Ventricular fibrillation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins?

    <p>Increased venous pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about nitroglycerin is NOT true?

    <p>It enhances myocardial contraction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which options are most pertinent for confirming a myocardial infarction diagnosis?

    <p>Specific changes in the ECG and elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the manifestation of pallor, diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety immediately following a myocardial infarction indicate?

    <p>Onset of circulatory shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a true statement regarding aneurysms?

    <p>They result in manifestations due to compression of adjacent structures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does septic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in terms of its symptoms?

    <p>Fever and flushed face</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of heart block results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions due to a conduction delay at the AV node?

    <p>Second-degree block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is more extensive permanent damage likely following a myocardial infarction?

    <p>An embolus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does a very rapid heart rate reduce cardiac output?

    <p>Ventricular filling is reduced</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is the right side of the heart likely to fail first?

    <p>Advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological change indicates compensation for shock?

    <p>Increased heart rate and oliguria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from neurogenic (vasogenic) shock?

    <p>Increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What metabolic change occurs as a result of anaerobic cell metabolism during shock?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism contributes to shock in patients with severe burns?

    <p>Pain and loss of plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?

    <p>Increased blood pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does increased stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system primarily cause?

    <p>Increased heart rate and force of contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological event is represented by the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

    <p>Ventricular depolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of cardiac output?

    <p>The volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes the volume of venous return to the heart?

    <p>Preload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes vasodilation in the skin and viscera?

    <p>Relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug is effective in decreasing sodium and fluid retention in the body?

    <p>Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor contributes to thrombus formation in circulation?

    <p>Damage to blood vessel walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which arteries are the first to branch off the aorta?

    <p>Coronary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compensation mechanism primarily involves hormonal changes in cases of congestive heart failure?

    <p>Increased renin and aldosterone secretions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area experiences increased hydrostatic pressure due to left ventricular failure?

    <p>Pulmonary capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication of congestive heart failure in infants?

    <p>Feeding problems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely outcome of aortic stenosis?

    <p>Heart murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is associated with an incompetent mitral valve?

    <p>Increased pressure in the left atrium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a ventricular septal defect, where does the blood flow directly from?

    <p>From the left ventricle to the right ventricle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of using a beta-adrenergic blocking drug?

    <p>Decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is typically indicated by the presence of an aortic stenosis murmur?

    <p>Left ventricular outflow obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is typically a distinguishing factor between angina and myocardial infarction (MI)?

    <p>Pain relief with medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathophysiological condition is most accurately characterized by total obstruction of a coronary artery?

    <p>Myocardial infarction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are common early signs of a myocardial infarction?

    <p>Persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the leading cause of myocardial infarction?

    <p>Atherosclerosis with thrombus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism by which calcium-channel blocking drugs exert their effect?

    <p>Reducing muscle contractions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What definitively confirms the occurrence of a myocardial infarction?

    <p>Serum isoenzymes and ECG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor does NOT contribute to minimizing the size of the necrotic area resulting from a myocardial infarction?

    <p>Atheroma prevention measures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common immediate cause of death following a myocardial infarction?

    <p>Cardiac arrhythmias</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes cyanosis in children with tetralogy of Fallot?

    <p>A large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary initial effect on the heart from rheumatic fever?

    <p>Acute inflammation in all layers of the heart due to abnormal immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a common sign of rheumatic fever?

    <p>Arthritis causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does rheumatic heart disease typically manifest in later years?

    <p>Cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What leads to the formation of septic emboli in infective endocarditis?

    <p>Vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In subacute infective endocarditis, which characteristic applies?

    <p>A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological effect does pericarditis have on cardiac output?

    <p>Increased pressure from fluid accumulation impeding heart function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding infective endocarditis is true?

    <p>It can cause systemic embolism due to vegetations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is most commonly associated with the development of varicose veins?

    <p>Increased venous pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by pallor, diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety immediately after a myocardial infarction?

    <p>Onset of circulatory shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates septic shock from hypovolemic shock?

    <p>Fever and flushed face</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of heart block is characterized by intermittent missed ventricular contractions due to a delay at the AV node?

    <p>Second-degree block</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of myocardial infarction, what is more likely to cause extensive permanent damage?

    <p>An embolus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compensatory mechanisms in congestive heart failure ultimately increase the heart's workload?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological response is expected as a compensation mechanism during shock?

    <p>Increased heart rate and oliguria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates decompensated acidosis related to shock?

    <p>Serum pH below normal range</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition results from neurogenic (vasogenic) shock?

    <p>Increased capacity of the vascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of anaerobic metabolism during shock?

    <p>Metabolic acidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would likely indicate a prolonged period of shock?

    <p>Damage to pulmonary capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients with severe burns, what primary mechanism contributes to shock?

    <p>Pain and loss of plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option describes a typical manifestation of left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Pulmonary congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a dissecting aortic aneurysm characterized by?

    <p>A tear in the intimal lining, allowing blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with a friction rub?

    <p>Pericarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the early signs of circulatory shock?

    <p>Pale moist skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome is commonly associated with aortic aneurysms?

    <p>Rupture and hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor increases the likelihood of varicose veins during pregnancy?

    <p>Insufficient muscle support for veins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is phlebothrombosis more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than thrombophlebitis?

    <p>The thrombus forms in a vein and is less firmly attached.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is shock defined in a medical context?

    <p>Decreased blood flow and tissue perfusion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What typically occurs following a myocardial infarction related to shock?

    <p>Damage to a significant portion of the myocardium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological response is associated with stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system during increased heart rate?

    <p>Increased heart contractility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which waveform on an electrocardiogram (ECG) corresponds to ventricular depolarization?

    <p>QRS complex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately defines cardiac output?

    <p>The total volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term preload specifically refer to in cardiovascular physiology?

    <p>The volume of blood filling the ventricles before contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of vasodilation in cutaneous blood vessels?

    <p>Decreased skin temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of drugs are typically used to decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?

    <p>Loop diuretics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT associated with an increased risk of thrombus formation?

    <p>High blood velocity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason smoking increases the risk of coronary artery disease?

    <p>It promotes platelet adhesion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries?

    <p>Arteriosclerosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which modifiable factor is known to increase the risk for atherosclerosis?

    <p>Leading a sedentary lifestyle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary source from which an atheroma develops?

    <p>Accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin from endothelial injury.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the role of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)?

    <p>They contribute to atheroma development.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a likely precipitating factor for an angina attack?

    <p>Taking a nap.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the comparison of angina and myocardial infarction (MI) is true?

    <p>Both conditions can have overlapping symptoms.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does taking acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) in small doses have on platelet adhesion?

    <p>It reduces platelet adhesion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is indicated by significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the term cardiac arrest?

    <p>The cessation of all cardiac function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely consequence of total heart block?

    <p>Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes premature ventricular contraction?

    <p>Contractions arising from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common trigger for left-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Uncontrolled essential hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines congestive heart failure?

    <p>Failure of the heart to meet the body's metabolic needs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

    <p>Severe shortness of breath at night</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition commonly leads to cardiac arrest as a result of ventricular fibrillation?

    <p>Insufficient blood supply to the myocardium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cyanosis in children with tetralogy of Fallot occurs primarily due to which factor?

    <p>A high quantity of unoxygenated hemoglobin in circulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial effect on the heart associated with rheumatic fever?

    <p>Acute inflammation affecting all heart layers due to immune response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is NOT commonly associated with rheumatic fever?

    <p>Inflammation of small joints causing deformities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does rheumatic heart disease typically present later in life?

    <p>Arrhythmias and abnormal heart sounds (murmurs).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Septic emboli, a complication of infective endocarditis, are mainly formed due to which reason?

    <p>Loose and fragile vegetation on heart valves.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding subacute infective endocarditis?

    <p>Low virulence microbes infect damaged heart valves.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does pericarditis have on cardiac output?

    <p>It leads to weak contractions due to friction rubs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of rheumatic fever, what is the primary mechanism leading to cardiac inflammation?

    <p>An abnormal immune response leading to inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders - Test Bank

    • AV Valves Closure: Increased intraventricular pressure causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close.

    • Cardiac Output Maintenance: When stroke volume decreases, increased heart rate can maintain cardiac output.

    • Pericardial Cavity: The pericardial cavity is a potential space containing a small amount of serous fluid, providing a protective cushion for the heart. It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.

    • Venous Return Enhancement: During strenuous exercise, contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle enhances venous return to the heart.

    • Baroreceptors Function: Baroreceptors signal the cardiovascular control center about changes in systemic blood pressure, adjusting blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance.

    • AV Node Delay: The normal conduction delay through the AV node is crucial for completing ventricular filling and preventing excessively rapid heart rate.

    • Epinephrine Effect: Increased epinephrine secretion results in increased heart rate and the force of contraction, vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys.

    • ECG QRS Wave: Ventricular depolarization causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

    • Cardiac Reserve: The ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed is cardiac reserve. This is different from the extra blood remaining in the heart after contraction.

    • Preload: Preload refers to the volume of venous return.

    • Aortic Branching: The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the coronary arteries.

    • Cardiac Output: Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute.

    • Vasodilation in Skin/Viscera: Relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles causes vasodilation in the skin and viscera.

    • Drugs for Fluid Retention: Hydrochlorothiazide decreases sodium and fluid retention.

    • Thrombus Formation Predisposing Factors: Damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, and decreased blood viscosity are predisposing factors for thrombus formation.

    • Platelet Adhesion Reduction Drug: Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is a drug used to reduce platelet adhesion in small doses continuously.

    • Coronary Artery Obstruction: A partial obstruction in a coronary artery is likely to cause angina attacks or myocardial infarction.

    • Cigarette Smoking and Coronary Artery Disease: Cigarette smoking promotes platelet adhesion, reducing vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance.

    • Arteriosclerosis Definition: Arteriosclerosis is a disease characterized by degeneration, with loss of elasticity and obstruction in the smaller arteries, especially in large arteries.

    • Modifiable Factor for Atherosclerosis: A sedentary lifestyle is a modifiable factor increasing the risk of atherosclerosis.

    • Atheroma Development: Atherosclerosis begins with injury to the endothelial lining of the artery and the subsequent accumulation of lipids, cells, and fibrin (fibrins).

    • Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL): LDL promotes atheroma development and transports cholesterol from cells to the liver.

    • Angina Triggers: Eating a large meal, angry arguments, and shoveling snow on a cold windy day can precipitate angina attacks.

    • Angina vs. Myocardial Infarction (MI): Angina relieved by rest and nitroglycerin unlike MI which does not.

    • Myocardial Infarction (MI) Cause: A total obstruction of a coronary artery is the primary cause of myocardial necrosis and infarction.

    • Calcium-Channel Blocking Drugs: Effective in reducing the risk of blood clots by decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques.

    • Myocardial Infarction Identification: Elevated serum isoenzymes, ECG changes, and a description of the pain are used to identify a myocardial infarction.

    • Myocardial Infarction Minimization: Previous collateral circulation, prompt thrombolytic administration, and removing predisposing factors can minimize the size of a necrotic area from an infarction.

    • Myocardial Infarction Cause of Death: Cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation are the most common causes of death immediately upon infarction.

    • Ventricular Fibrillation and Cardiac Arrest: Ventricular fibrillation, a rapid and uncoordinated contraction of the ventricles, leads to insufficient blood supply to the myocardium and causes cardiac arrest.

    • Aortic Stenosis Sign: A heart murmur is a sign of aortic stenosis.

    • Mitral Valve Incompetence: Increased blood retention in the right atrium can happen with an incompetent mitral valve, and decreased output from the left ventricle.

    • Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) Blood Flow: Oxygenated blood flows from the left ventricle to the right ventricle in a VSD.

    • Tetralogy of Fallot and Cyanosis: Unoxygenated blood enters the systemic circulation because of the exchanged positions of the aorta and pulmonary artery in tetralogy of Fallot. This causes cyanosis.

    • Rheumatic Fever Initial Effect: Acute inflammation of the heart due to an abnormal immune response happens first.

    • Common Rheumatic Fever Signs: Arthritis, tachycardia, fever, skin rashes, and subcutaneous nodules.

    • Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD) Development: Damage to heart valves from rheumatic fever and eventual heart murmurs are symptoms.

    • Infective Endocarditis Emboli: Septic emboli (blood clots) result due to abnormal microorganisms and vegetations.

    • Vegetations in Infective Endocarditis: Fragile and loosely attached microorganisms may break from the valves and cause obstruction.

    • Pericarditis and Cardiac Output: Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity may decrease cardiac output due to friction rub.

    • Pericarditis Causes: Infection, immunological disorders, or injury to the pericardium may cause pericarditis.

    • Causes of Emboli: Damage to blood vessels, clots, and thrombus formation can cause emboli.

    • Essential Hypertension Basic Change: Increased systemic vasoconstriction is a characteristic change in essential hypertension.

    • Hypertension and Tissue Damage: Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to reduced blood flow and organ function in the kidneys, brain, and eye.

    • Young/Middle-Aged Hypertension Diagnosis: Blood pressure consistently above 140/90 is a potential sign of essential hypertension, particularly in younger individuals.

    • Causes of Atherosclerosis: Atherosclerosis is linked to damage to the endothelial lining and accumulation of lipids, amongst other factors.

    • Peripheral Artery Disease and Gangrene: Atherosclerosis in the iliac and femoral arteries can cause gangrene in the legs.

    • Intermittent Claudication Definition: Intermittent claudication involves pain in the legs during exercise and is caused by restricted blood flow.

    • Amputation in Peripheral Artery Disease: Amputation is performed to treat gangrene to prevent infection from spreading.

    • Echocardiogram Uses: Assess the heart's valve function is one of many uses of echocardiograms.

    • Cardiac Cycle Non-Responsiveness: Septic shock symptoms do not respond to the cardiac cycle's rhythm.

    • Septic Shock Cause: Gram-negative endotoxin-producing bacteria are frequently associated with septic shock.

    • Myocardial Infarction Symptoms: Signs such as severe angina chest pain, nausea, and sweating are caused by damage to the myocardium.

    • Shock Recognition: Loss of consciousness, rapid and weak pulse, pale skin, and restlessness are early signs of shock.

    • Cardiomegaly: Increased workload on the heart causes enlargement of the heart muscle.

    • Compensatory Mechanism (Shock): Increased heart rate and renin secretion are compensatory mechanisms to combat shock symptoms.

    • Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND): Increased blood in the lungs during supine position causes shortness of breath, typical of PND.

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    Ch. 12 Test Bank - Gould's Ch. 12 Test Bank PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on cardiovascular system disorders with this comprehensive quiz based on chapter 12. Focus areas include AV valves, cardiac output, venous return, and baroreceptors. Perfect for students studying anatomy and physiology.

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