Payam medium
37 Questions
2 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is a primary complication of pyogenic osteomyelitis?

  • Angina pectoris
  • Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Segmental bone necrosis (correct)

Which bacteria is most frequently associated with pyogenic osteomyelitis?

  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Staphylococcus aureus (correct)

What factor is likely to delay the healing of fractures?

  • Proper immobilization
  • Inadequate immobilization (correct)
  • Minimal displacement
  • Adequate nutrition

Which statement about tuberculous osteomyelitis is accurate?

<p>It can spread to adjacent soft tissues, causing psoas muscle abscesses. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of bone tumor?

<p>Metastatic tumors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by severe osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures due to a decrease in bone mass?

<p>Primary Osteoporosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT a characteristic of Paget disease?

<p>Osteitis fibrosa cystica (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does parathyroid hormone (PTH) primarily play in the body?

<p>Activates bone resorption and regulates calcium homeostasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the histological features of primary osteoporosis?

<p>Histologically normal bone with decreased quantity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chronic renal failure, what is the primary consequence that leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Decreased active form of vitamin D synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common presentation of a brown tumor in patients with untreated hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Mass of reactive tissue with hemorrhage and macrophage influx (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the familial aspects of Paget disease is true?

<p>50% of Paget disease cases have a familial link. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is most indicative of osteitis deformans (Paget disease)?

<p>Presence of prominent cement lines and mosaic patterns in bone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of osteoblasts?

<p>Form new bone cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bone is characterized by parallel collagen fibers and is found in the adult skeleton?

<p>Lamellar bone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mutation is associated with achondroplasia?

<p>Point mutation in FGFR3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the brittle bone disease known as osteogenesis imperfecta?

<p>Defective synthesis of type I collagen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ossification process is responsible for the development of long bones?

<p>Endochondral ossification (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is osteopetrosis primarily characterized by?

<p>Defective osteoclast-mediated bone resorption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural abnormality does woven bone exhibit?

<p>Naphtazard arrangement of collagen fibers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor promotes osteoclast activity and bone turnover?

<p>Glucocorticoids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is true for Fibrous Dysplasia?

<p>It arises from GNAS mutations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary site of occurrence for Chordoma?

<p>Sacrococygeal region (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of lesion is characterized by a diameter of 5-6 cm?

<p>Non-Ossifying Fibroma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary diagnostic marker for Chordoma?

<p>BRACHURY (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining symptom of Osteoarthritis?

<p>Morning stiffness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor differentiates Rheumatoid Arthritis from Osteoarthritis?

<p>Symmetrical joint involvement (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which age group is Ewing Sarcoma most commonly diagnosed?

<p>Under 20 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding bone metastases in adults?

<p>Most originate from prostate, breast, kidney, and lung cancers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining characteristic of osteoid osteoma?

<p>Responds to aspirin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bone lesion is associated with Gardner Syndrome?

<p>Osteoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bone tumor is most commonly found in individuals under 20 years of age?

<p>Osteosarcoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes osteoblastoma from osteoid osteoma?

<p>It is painful and non-localized (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which region is an osteochondroma most likely to develop?

<p>Metaphysis of long tubular bones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What size characterizes chondromas as part of Soillier and Maffucci syndromes?

<p>Greater than 5 cm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common site for osteosarcoma?

<p>Knee (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding chondrosarcoma?

<p>It is a malignant tumor that produces neoplastic cartilage matrix. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Osteoblast function

Bone-forming cells

Osteoclast function

Bone-resorbing cells

Endochondral ossification

Long bone development

Achondroplasia cause

FGFR3 gene mutation disrupting growth plate function

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

Brittle bone disease, defective collagen synthesis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Woven bone characteristic

Rapidly formed, less organized bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lamellar bone feature

Mature, organized, and strong adult bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoporosis

Bone loss, increasing risk of fractures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Osteoporosis

A type of osteoporosis where bone is decreased in quantity, but histologically (microscopic structure) appears normal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperparathyroidism

A condition caused by high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to increased osteoclastic activity (bone breakdown) and osteopenia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Brown Tumor

A manifestation of untreated hyperparathyroidism. It's a mass of reactive tissue from bone loss, micro fractures, and secondary hemorrhages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Paget Disease

A bone disease with increased, but disordered, bone formation, and resulting in structurally unsound bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

High Bone Turnover

A characteristic of diseases where bone is broken down and reformed at a faster-than-normal rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

A condition, triggered by lower-than-normal levels of active Vitamin D, leading to increased parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vertebral Fractures

Fractures in the vertebrae of the spine, potentially leading to postural problems and respiratory difficulties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

A condition characterized by bone loss, microfractures, and hemorrhages primarily seen in symptomatic hyperparathyroidism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the high-output heart failure a sign of?

Extensive polyostotic hypervascularity can lead to high-output congestive heart failure, often seen in conditions like fibrous dysplasia.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a chalk-stick fracture?

A characteristic fracture that occurs in fragile, brittle bones, often seen in fibrous dysplasia, where bone is replaced by fibrous tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a sequestrum?

A piece of dead bone that has become separated from the living bone due to infection. It remains surrounded by infected tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is an involucrum?

A layer of new bone that forms around a sequestrum as a protective barrier to contain the infection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Pott disease?

Tuberculous infection of the vertebrae leading to spinal curvature, collapse, and potential neurological deficits.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fibrous Cortical Defect

A developmental disorder usually less than 5mm in size, often bilateral and multiple. Lesions larger than 5cm are considered Non-ossifying fibromas.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-Ossifying Fibroma

A benign bone tumor characterized by osteoclast-like giant cells, often detected incidentally. It's a larger version of a Fibrous Cortical Defect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fibrous Dysplasia

A benign bone disorder caused by a GNAS gene mutation. It can be associated with McCune Albright Syndrome, which also includes café-au-lait spots and endocrine issues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chordoma

A malignant tumor derived from notochord remnants in intervertebral discs. It commonly affects the sacrococcygeal region.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ewing Sarcoma/PNET

A highly malignant round cell tumor of bones and soft tissue, primarily affecting young individuals. It involves a specific gene rearrangement and often presents with distinctive microscopic features.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis

A chronic degenerative joint disease characterized by progressive cartilage breakdown leading to joint pain and stiffness. It affects primarily older individuals and may exhibit characteristic bony growths on fingers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A systemic autoimmune disease causing chronic inflammation of joints and other tissues. It is characterized by multiple joint involvement, progressive joint damage, and specific antibody markers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Distinguish OA vs RA

Osteoarthritis is degenerative, primarily impacting cartilage, with bone spurs. Rheumatoid arthritis is autoimmune, causing joint inflammation, swelling, and ultimately joint destruction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoma

A slow-growing, benign bone tumor composed of mature cortical bone, typically found in the head and neck, especially in the paranasal sinuses. It can be solitary or multiple, with multiple osteomas being associated with Gardner Syndrome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoid Osteoma vs. Osteoblastoma

These tumors are similar histologically and affect mostly men aged 10-20. The main difference lies in size: Osteoid osteoma is < 2 cm and Osteoblastoma is > 2 cm. Osteoid osteoma causes night pain and responds to aspirin, while Osteoblastoma is localized to the vertebral column and doesn't respond to aspirin. Neither is malignant unless irradiated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteosarcoma

The most common primary malignant bone tumor, usually affecting individuals under 20 years old. It features immature bone tissue and malignant osteoid production, leading to rapid growth and painful mass. It often presents with a pathological fracture and spreads through the bloodstream, typically to the lungs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Codman triangle

A radiological sign of osteosarcoma, characterized by a triangular area of new bone formation formed by the periosteum lifted by the tumor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteochondroma

A benign tumor connected to a bone by a stalk and capped with cartilage, typically occurring in men during early adulthood. It can be solitary or multiple, with multiple osteochondromas being an autosomal dominant condition. It develops from the medulla and can potentially cause pain due to nerve compression when the stalk is broken.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chondroma/Enchondroma

A benign tumor composed of hyaline cartilage, usually solitary and affecting individuals between 20-50 years old. It typically involves the small tubular bones of hands and feet. Multiple chondromas can be associated with Soillier-Maffucci syndrome and are linked to IDH-1 mutations. They are usually asymptomatic and detected incidentally.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chondrosarcoma

A malignant tumor composed of neoplastic cartilage cells, usually affecting individuals over 20 years old. It typically involves the pelvis, shoulder, and ribs, and rarely affects the distal extremities. Unlike enchondromas, it is painful, slow-growing, and locally aggressive, with a risk of lung and skeletal metastasis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the key difference between Osteoid osteoma and Osteoblastoma?

The main difference between them is size. Osteoid osteoma is smaller than 2 cm, while Osteoblastoma is larger than 2 cm. Osteoid osteoma typically causes night pain and responds to aspirin, while Osteoblastoma is painful but not localized and does not respond to aspirin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Bone Cells & Structure

  • Osteoblasts form bone cells
  • Osteocytes are mature bone cells
  • Osteoclasts break down bone matrix
  • Osteogenic cells are stem cells in periosteum & endosteum, giving rise to osteoblasts
  • Woven bone is produced rapidly during fetal development or fracture repair, with a haphazard arrangement of collagen fibers
  • Lamellar bone is the mature bone in adult skeletons, with slow formation and durability. It has parallel collagen fibers.

Bone Development

  • Endochondral ossification develops long bones.
  • Intramembranous ossification develops flat bones.
  • RANKL (on osteoblasts and marrow stromal) binds RANK (on osteoclast precursors)
  • Osteoprotegerin (OPG) produced by osteoblasts blocks RANK-RANKL interaction, regulating bone resorption/formation.
  • Parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and sex hormones influence bone turnover.

Bone Diseases

  • Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI): Brittle bone disease due to defective type I collagen synthesis.
  • Osteopetrosis: Stone/marble bone disorder, caused by defective osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.
  • Osteoporosis is characterized by low bone mass and bone fragility, increasing risk of fractures.

Hyperparathyroidism

  • Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) leads to increased osteoclast activity, bone resorption, and bone loss.
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism is often related to chronic renal failure, with low vitamin D production.
  • Brown tumors are a manifestation of severe hyperparathyroidism, characterized by extensive bone loss and micro-fractures.

Paget's Disease

  • Increased but disordered bone remodeling
  • Three phases: osteolytic, osteoblastic, osteosclerotic.
  • Osteoclast activity is abnormally elevated.

Bone Tumors

  • Benign (Osteoid osteoma, osteoblastoma): Painful, localized bone tumors.
  • Malignant (Osteosarcoma): Most common primary malignant bone tumor other than myeloma and lymphoma.

Other Bone Diseases

  • Osteomyelitis (infection of bone): Caused by bacteria, resulting in bone necrosis.
  • Osteochondroma: Benign bone tumor consisting of both cartilage and bone.
  • Chondroma/Chondrosarcoma: Benign/malignant cartilage tumors that develop in the medullary cavity primarily of long bones.
  • Fibrous cortical defect/Non-ossifying fibroma: Benign bone lesions, often asymptomatic, and typically found in the metaphysis of long tubular bones.
  • Giant cell tumor: Benign tumor characterized by multiple giant multinucleated cells in the bone.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Bone Tissue PDF

Description

Test your knowledge on bone cells and their functions, including osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts. The quiz also covers bone development methods, diseases related to bone health, and the influence of hormones on bone turnover. Understand the differences between woven and lamellar bone in the process.

More Like This

Bone Structure and Development Quiz
73 questions
Bone Cell Types and Formation
20 questions

Bone Cell Types and Formation

WellKnownConstellation avatar
WellKnownConstellation
Payam Hard
45 questions

Payam Hard

CompatibleParabola avatar
CompatibleParabola
Bone Structure and Function Quiz
48 questions
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser