Payam Hard

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which characteristic is NOT associated with osteoarthritis?

  • Eburnation of bone
  • Heberden nodes
  • Morning stiffness
  • Symmetrical joint involvement (correct)

Fibrous dysplasia is associated with which genetic mutation?

  • EGFR mutation
  • TP53 mutation
  • GNAS mutation (correct)
  • FGFR mutation

Which tumor type is characterized by the presence of Homer-Wright rosettes?

  • Ewing Sarcoma (correct)
  • Chordoma
  • Giant Cell Tumor
  • Fibrous Cortical Defect

Which of the following statements regarding rheumatoid arthritis is inaccurate?

<p>It is primarily a disease of older adults. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant diagnostic marker for chordoma?

<p>BRACHURY (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature of non-ossifying fibromas?

<p>Characterized by the presence of osteoclast-like giant cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cells are responsible for the formation of new bone?

<p>Osteoblasts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bone forms in response to rapid requirements such as fetal development?

<p>Woven bone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is primarily responsible for the development of flat bones?

<p>Intramembranous ossification (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to the increase in osteoclast activity during bone turnover?

<p>Reduction in OPG production (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic mutation is responsible for the most common form of dwarfism?

<p>FGFR3 mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by defective synthesis of type I collagen, leading to skeletal fragility?

<p>Osteogenesis imperfecta (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines osteopetrosis in relation to bone density?

<p>Reduced bone resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of osteogenesis imperfecta?

<p>Blue sclerae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes lamellar bone compared to woven bone?

<p>More mineralized structure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary histological characteristic of primary osteoporosis?

<p>Histologically normal bone decreased in quantity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does severe osteopenia affect fracture risk?

<p>It increases the risk of fractures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does parathyroid hormone (PTH) play in calcium homeostasis?

<p>Increases renal calcium reabsorption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is not associated with the development of Paget's disease?

<p>Infection by a specific virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the hallmark of the osteosclerotic phase of Paget's disease?

<p>Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a brown tumor indicate in the context of hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Untreated symptomatic hyperparathyroidism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by increased but disordered bone structure?

<p>Paget's disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In secondary hyperparathyroidism, what often leads to increased levels of PTH?

<p>Chronic renal failure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bones are most affected in generalized osteoporosis?

<p>Phalanges and vertebrae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of hyperparathyroidism in relation to bone health?

<p>Increased bone resorption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of untreated infections in osteomyelitis?

<p>Ischemic injury leading to segmental bone necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is most frequently associated with pyogenic osteomyelitis?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can arise from tuberculous osteomyelitis affecting the vertebrae?

<p>Pott disease leading to neurologic deficits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of healing fractures, what does inadequate immobilization primarily cause?

<p>Delayed union and potential non-union (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of metastatic bone tumors?

<p>They are the most common tumors of bone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does involucrum refer to in the context of osteomyelitis?

<p>New bone formation surrounding sequestered bone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of fractures are most likely to delay healing due to their characteristics?

<p>Displaced and comminuted fractures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In bone conditions leading to high-output congestive heart failure, what structural changes are typically observed?

<p>Extensive polyostotic hypervascularity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a direct effect of malnutrition on fracture healing?

<p>Impaired callus formation and healing delays (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical manifestation could indicate skull involvement due to extensive polyostotic hypervascularity?

<p>Headache and visual disturbances (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is specifically associated with osteoid osteoma?

<p>Localized bone pain that responds to Aspirin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinguishing factor between osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma?

<p>Size of the tumor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which age group is primary osteosarcoma most commonly diagnosed?

<p>Ages 10 to 20 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a defining feature of chondrosarcoma compared to enchondroma?

<p>Presence of pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical pattern of metastasis associated with osteosarcoma?

<p>Hematogenous spread to the lung and skeleton (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by multiple osteochondromas and an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?

<p>Osteochondromatosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical growth pattern of osteomas?

<p>Slow and persistent (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which imaging feature is commonly associated with osteosarcoma?

<p>Codman triangle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which benign bone tumor is most commonly found in the paranasal sinuses and head region?

<p>Osteoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tumors is characterized by a cartilage cap and typically develops from the medulla?

<p>Osteochondroma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Osteoblast function

Bone cells that form bone tissue.

Osteoclast function

Bone cells that break down bone tissue.

Endochondral ossification

Bone formation from a cartilage model, crucial for making long bones.

Achondroplasia cause

Genetic disorder causing dwarfism; mutation in FGFR3 gene affects cartilage growth.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Genetic disorder - reduced collagen synthesis, leading to weak and brittle bones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Compact bone

Dense bone tissue, found on the outer surface of bones

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteocytes

Mature bone cells, maintain bone tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteogenic cells function

Stem cells creating osteoblasts (bone-forming cells).

Signup and view all the flashcards

RANKL's role in bone turnover

Stimulates osteoclast activity, promoting bone resorption.

Signup and view all the flashcards

High bone turnover

A condition where bone is broken down and rebuilt faster than normal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Osteoporosis

Loss of bone density due to a decreased amount of bone tissue, but the structure is normal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperparathyroidism

A condition where the parathyroid gland produces too much parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Brown Tumor

A benign tumor that develops in the bones due to severe, untreated hyperparathyroidism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to a condition causing low blood calcium, often caused by chronic kidney disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Paget's Disease

A bone disorder characterized by the increased and disordered bone formation, and abnormal bone structure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

A severe manifestation of untreated hyperparathyroidism, marked by bone loss, micro fractures, and hemorrhages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Severe Osteopenia

A significant reduction in bone density leading to a higher risk of fractures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vertebral Fractures

Fractures in the bones of the spine, often leading to a hunched posture (kyphoscoliosis), and respiratory problems.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PTH's role in calcium homeostasis

Parathyroid Hormone regulates calcium balance by affecting bone, kidneys and gut.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoma location

Osteomas are most commonly found in the head and neck, particularly the paranasal sinuses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoid osteoma size

Osteoid osteomas are small bone tumors, typically less than 2 centimeters in diameter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoblastoma size

Osteoblastomas are larger than osteoid osteomas, exceeding 2 centimeters in diameter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteosarcoma prevalence

Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor, excluding myeloma and lymphoma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteochondroma growth pattern

Osteochondromas are benign tumors that grow in a cartilaginous cap on a stalk, usually stopping when normal bone growth ends.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chondroma location

Chondromas are benign tumors of cartilage, most often found in the small tubular bones of the hands and feet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chondrosarcoma aggressiveness

Chondrosarcomas are malignant tumors of cartilage, known for their slow growth but locally aggressive nature.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoid osteoma pain

Osteoid osteomas cause localized bone pain that worsens at night, often relieved by aspirin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoblastoma pain

Osteoblastomas cause pain that is not localized and does not respond to aspirin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteosarcoma spread

Osteosarcomas typically spread through the bloodstream (hematogenously), often to the lungs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fibrous dysplasia

A bone disorder characterized by excessive, abnormal bone growth, leading to bone deformities and sometimes pain. It can affect a single bone (monostotic) or multiple bones (polyostotic).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Polyostotic Fibrous dysplasia

A type of fibrous dysplasia that affects multiple bones throughout the body.

Signup and view all the flashcards

High-output heart failure

A condition where the heart pumps blood excessively, often due to underlying conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia. It's a response to an increased demand for blood.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chalk-stick fractures

Brittle bone fractures that are often seen in children with certain bone disorders like fibrous dysplasia, where bones can be fragile.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteosarcoma

A type of bone cancer that originates in bone-forming cells. It's a serious cancer that can spread to other parts of the body.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Biphosphonates

A type of medication used to treat bone disorders, particularly those involving excessive bone resorption. They work by interfering with the activity of cells that break down bone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Delayed union

A fracture that takes longer than expected to heal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-union

A fracture that fails to heal properly, resulting in a persistent gap between the bone fragments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pseudoarthrosis

A false joint that forms at the site of a non-united fracture. It's a gap where bone should have healed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sequestrum

A piece of dead bone that becomes separated from the living bone during an infection like osteomyelitis. It's often surrounded by infected tissue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fibrous Cortical Defect

A developmental disorder of bone, usually < 5mm in size. Often detected incidentally, especially in the distal femur and proximal tibia. May become a Non-ossifying Fibroma if larger than 5-6cm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-ossifying Fibroma

A benign, non-cancerous bone tumor. Usually occurs in children and adolescents, often found in the long bones (femur, tibia). May start as a Fibrous Cortical Defect, but grows larger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chordoma

A malignant tumor arising from notochord remnants in the spinal column. Commonly found in the sacrococcygeal region (tailbone).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ewing Sarcoma/PNET

A malignant, aggressive bone cancer often found in adolescents and young adults. Characterized by rapid growth, round cells and often found in the long bones (femur).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Osteoarthritis

A degenerative joint disease, most common type of arthritis, often associated with aging. Characterized by cartilage breakdown, pain, and stiffness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Bone Cells and Structure

  • Osteoblasts form bone cells
  • Osteocytes are mature bone cells
  • Osteoclasts break down bone matrix
  • Osteogenic cells are stem cells in the periosteum and endosteum, giving rise to osteoblasts
  • Woven bone is rapidly produced during fetal development or fracture repair, characterized by a haphazard arrangement of collagen fibers
  • Lamellar bone is the mature bone found in adult skeletons, with a more organized structure (cortical and trabecular)
  • Parallel collagen fibers characterize lamellar bone.

Bone Development

  • Endochondral ossification develops long bones
  • Intramembranous ossification develops flat bones

Osteoclast Regulation

  • RANKL (on osteoblasts and marrow stromal cells) binds to RANK (on osteoclast precursors), stimulating osteoclast activity.
  • Osteoprotegerin (OPG) blocks RANK-RANKL interaction, inhibiting osteoclast activity.
  • Bone resorption and formation balance is controlled by PTH, Vitamin D3, sex hormones, and glucocorticoids.

Achondroplasia

  • Autosomal dominant disorder affecting endochondral ossification
  • Point mutation in FGFR3
  • Shortened limbs, large head, and bulging forehead are characteristics
  • No change to longevity, intelligence, or reproductive status.

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

  • Brittle bone disease
  • Defective synthesis of type I collagen
  • Multiple extraskeletal manifestations (too little bone mass and extreme fragility)
  • Various types with varying severity and lifespan
  • Some types are uniformly lethal in utero or postpartum

Osteopetrosis

  • Stone/marble bone disease
  • Defective osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
  • Increased bone density, making bones brittle and prone to fracture
  • Many types with variations in symptoms

Hyperparathyroidism

  • Increased PTH leads to increased osteoclastic activity, resulting in bone resorption and osteopenia (low bone mass)
  • Some bones are more conspicuous on radiographs
  • Central role in calcium homeostasis
  • Increased osteoclastic activation
  • Increased urinary excretion of phosphates
  • Synthesis of active vitamin D3, affecting calcium absorption

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

  • Chronic renal failure
  • Inability to produce enough active vitamin D3
  • Reduction of PTH levels can correct the imbalance

Brown Tumor

  • Manifestation of symptomatic untreated hyperparathyroidism
  • Bone loss occurs most severely in phalanges, vertebra, and femur
  • Micro-fractures and hemorrhages cause reparative fibrous tissue growth inside bone
  • Brown color is due to vascularity, hemorrhage, and hemosiderin deposition

Paget Disease

  • Increased, disordered bone in structure
  • Osteolytic, osteoclastic-osteoblastic, and osteosclerotic phases
  • Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

Osteomyelitis

  • Infection of bone and bone marrow
  • Usually starts from a hematogenous source
  • Different forms/types, leading to various complications

Bone Tumors

  • Metastatic bone tumors are prevalent
  • Benign bone tumors (osteoma) grow slowly, often asymptomatic, and are generally localized
  • Malignant bone tumors, like osteosarcoma, grow quickly, spread aggressively, and present more severe health issues.
  • Osteosarcoma arises in metaphyses of long bones: most common primary malignant bone tumor in children.

Other Bone Conditions

  • Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are benign bone tumors that differ by size
  • Osteochondroma is a benign bony projection, often arising from growth plates
  • Chondroma is a benign tumor arising from cartilage tissue that often presents in small tubular bones
  • Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from cartilage tissue. Typically arises from bones in the extremities, pelvis, and trunk.
  • fibrous cortical defect and non-ossifying fibroma: benign, often discovered incidentally, developmental disorders; fibrous dysplasia is a benign process with pre-cancerous potential
  • Ewing sarcoma/PNET is a malignant, aggressive tumor originating from bone marrow. It is associated with bone pain, swelling.

Osteoarthritis

  • Degeneration of articular cartilage, often associated with aging and predisposing factors
  • Secondary osteoarthritis can develop due to several causes.
  • Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disorder, leading to chronic progressive inflammation in many tissues.
  • Some common sites of involvement include small joints.

Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies

  • Include ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter's syndrome, and psoriatic arthritis.
  • These disorders lack rheumatoid factor and show a prevalence of HLA-B27 presence.

Gout

  • Caused by monosodium urate crystal deposits in joints.
  • Several risk factors for gout development; alcohol consumption, purine-rich diets, kidney disease or impairment.
  • Acute arthritis is common in the great toe
  • Secondary gout can be associated with neurological conditions and other medical issues

Pseudogout

  • Calcium pyrophosphate deposition in joints.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Bone Tissue PDF

More Like This

Bone Cells Overview
5 questions

Bone Cells Overview

JubilantUvarovite avatar
JubilantUvarovite
Bone Cell Types Quiz
10 questions

Bone Cell Types Quiz

VirtuousConflict avatar
VirtuousConflict
Células Ósseas
45 questions

Células Ósseas

WellIntentionedTulip avatar
WellIntentionedTulip
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser